Chest Pain - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two different types of chest pain? What will each feel like? Will it radiate?

A

visceral: Discomfort, heaviness, pressure, tightness, aching are commonly used descriptors

pain WILL RADIATE

Somatic: Sharp, stabbing, scratchy, without radiation

does not radiate and usually only in 1 area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What organs does visceral type pain usually involve? somatic pain?

A

heart, blood vessels, esophagus, and visceral pleura

innervates the chest wall, from the dermis to the parietal pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of pain is difficult to describe and localize? Which one is easily described and precisely located?

A

visceral: difficult to describe and localize

somatic: easily described and precisely located

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 5 chest pain red flags?

A
  1. Abnormal vital signs
  2. concerning EKG findings
  3. hx of prior CAD
  4. multiple ASCVD risk factors
  5. Abrupt onset, new or severe chest pain or dyspnea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What vital signs are considered unstable?

A

RR >24
HR less than 60 or greater than 120
Abnormal BP
O2 less than 90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the initial management for a pt complaining of chest pain?

A

Placed in a treatment bed quickly

Cardiac monitoring and IV access (2 large bore)

EKG (within 10 minutes)

Measure vital signs, then resuscitate as needed, following the ABCs

Administer supplemental oxygen if O2 saturation at rest is < 95%*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the top 6 ddx that can kill you the fastest with a chest pain CC?

A

ACS

Aortic dissection

PE

Severe PNA

Tension Pneumothorax

Esophageal rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If the pt is complaining of pleuritic chest pain, what are the 3 top ddx you should be thinking?

A

Pulmonary embolism

Pneumonia

Spontaneous pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

WShat am I?

A

Acute coronary syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What am I?

A

pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A

Aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
A

Pneuomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A

Esophageal rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A

pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A

perforated peptic ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the associated timeframe that an EKG needs to be completed by? Does a normal EKG rule out an ACS event?

A

EKG within 10 minutes upon presentation to the ED

normal EKG does NOT rule out ACS event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

EKG is normal, now what should you do?

A

repeat in 15-30 minutes if initially normal, consider serial EKGs

compare to previous EKGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

______ is the first line cardiac enzyme used in the ED. When does it elevate?

A

troponin

4 hours after onset of acute MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When do troponin levels peak? **What do you need to remember about troponin levels?

A

Peaks in 24-48 hours, remains elevated or multiple days

If patient has multiple infarctions in a short amount of time, will remain elevated and is NOT a reliable detector of re-infarcts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

_____ is used only if troponin isn’t available or if patient has had an MI in the last 2-3 days. When does the level start to normalize?

A

CK-MB

levels normalize in 48-72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

_____ and _____ should be ordered if concerned about PNA or pneumothorax?

A

CXR

non-contrast CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

______ should be ordered if concerned about aortic aneurysm/dissection or PE

A

Chest CTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

______ is used to dx aortic dissection, cardiac tamponade, new regurgitant murmur

A

Echocardiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

_______ can also present as ishemia/chest pain so important to check CBC

A

severe anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What 4 findings would necessitate an hospital admit if found in combo with chest pain?

A

Positive cardiac enzymes

New concerning EKG changes

Persistent pain

Concerning physical exam findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If the pt does NOT have ____, ____ and ______ it is UNLIKELY to have ACS

A

Negative EKG, cardiac enzymes, and chest x-ray = unlikely to have ACS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

**What does a HEART score of 0-3 mean?

A

2.5% chance of Major adverse cardiac event in next 6 weeks

Discharge home

29
Q

**What does a HEART score of 4-6 mean?

A

20.3% chance of MACE event

admit for clinical observation

30
Q

**What does a HEART score of 7-10 mean?

A

72.7% MACE

need early invasive strategies

31
Q

What is defined as a hypertensive crisis? How does this measurement need to be defined?

A

Defined as a SBP >180 mm Hg and/or DBP >120 mm Hg

BP should be assessed in both arms multiple times

32
Q

What are the two types of hypertensive crisis? What are the differences?

A

Hypertensive urgency - no evidence of end-organ damage

Hypertensive emergency - evidence of end-organ damage

33
Q

What organs are effected the most in a hypertensive crisis?

A

brain, heart, aorta, kidneys, eyes

34
Q

What are some fundoscopic findings that would indicate end organ damage?

A

flame hemorrhage, optic disc swelling,

35
Q

What are some H&P findings that would indicate end organ damage?

A

Mental status changes, neurologic dysfunction, seizure, acute severe HA

Visual changes, retinopathy, papilledema

Sudden onset chest pain

Dyspnea

Peripheral edema

Oliguria

36
Q

What is the management for hypertensive urgency? What is the drug of choice? When do they need to follow up with PCP?

A

need to control BP within 24-48 hours

No hx of HTN: HCTZ

Hx of HTN: reinstitution or intensification of oral antihypertensive therapy

PCP follow up within 48 hours

37
Q

How much do you need to reduce BP by in the first hour in a hypertensive crisis? If stable, then what do you do

A

reduce SBP by no more than 25% in the 1st hour

reduce to 160/100 mm Hg over the next 2 to 6 hours

38
Q

What happens in a hypertensive crisis if the BP is reduced TOO FAST?

A

watershed cerebral infarction

aka most distal areas do not get blood supply due to sudden drop in BP

39
Q

What is the ideal BP for an aortic dissection?

A

Aortic dissections which require rapid reduction to SBP between 100-120 with in 20 minutes

40
Q

Acute ischemic stroke with CI to tPA BP are not lowered unless is it _____

A

≥ 185/110

41
Q

What is the goal BP for Intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

SBP gole is 130-140 mmHg

42
Q

**What is the preferred BP agent for BP crisis in pregnancy?

A

Hydralazine

43
Q

** What are the 2 preferred BP lowering agents in strokes?

A

Enalaprilat or Labetalol

44
Q

**______ is the preferred BP lowering agent in the ED for renal insufficiency?

A

Fenoldopam

45
Q

______ is the preferred BP lowering agents in the ED for aortic dissections?

46
Q

______ is the preferred BP lowering agents in the ED for SAH and ischemic strokes

A

nicardipine

47
Q

_____________ is the preferred BP lowering agents in the ED for CHF?

A

enalaprilat

48
Q

What is another name for esophageal rupture? Where is it most likely to tear?

A

Boerhaave Syndrome

distal ⅓ of the esophagus

49
Q

What is the MC etiology of an esophageal rupture? Almost all (90%) occur along the _______ of the distal esophagus

A

forceful vomiting/coughing - MC

left posterolateral wall

50
Q

How will esophageal rupture present? Where does it radiate? What makes it worse?

A

Sudden onset substernal chest pain following an episode of forceful vomiting

to the neck or abdomen

neck flexion, breathing, and swallowing

51
Q

What is Hamman’s crunch? What condition is it associated with?

A

audible crepitus that varies with the heartbeat on auscultation of the precordium, is a rare finding associated with pneumomediastinum

esophageal rupture

52
Q

When will a CXR be normal in an esophageal rupture? What other imaging is used to dx?

A

CXR will be normal within the first 1-2 hours

Contrast esophagram or CT with IV contrast chest

53
Q

pleural effusion caused by esophageal rupture is mc left or right?

A

LEFT is more common than right

54
Q

What are the arrows pointing to?

A

pneumomediastinum

a condition where air leaks into the mediastinum, the space in the chest between the lungs

55
Q

What is the management for esophageal rupture?

56
Q

What is cardiac tamponade? What side of the heart?

A

An accumulation of fluid within the pericardial space that affects the normal filling pressures of the RIGHT heart chambers.

57
Q

Why is cardiac tamponade an emergency?

A

due to severe diastolic dysfunction that leads to reduced cardiac ouput, which leads to cardiogenic shock and then death

58
Q

Development of diastolic dysfunction in cardiac tamponade results in relation to what 3 things?

A

rate of fluid accumulation

pericardial compliance

intravascular volume (hypovolemia lowers ventricular filling pressure)

59
Q

What are 7 causes of atraumatic cardiac tamponade?

60
Q

**What is Beck’s triad of cardiac tamponade?

A

hypotension (with narrow pulse pressure)

jugular venous distention

distant heart sounds

61
Q

How will cardiac tamponade present?

A

dyspnea at rest and exertion

tachycardia

hypotension with narrow pulse pressure

pulsus paradoxus

JVD

distant heart sounds

62
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus? Where is it palpable?

A

A drop of SBP by > 10-20 mmHg during inspiration

Often palpable in the radial, brachial, or femoral pulses as a weakening or disappearance of the pulse during inspiration

63
Q

_____ is the most sensitive and specific dx tool for cardiac tamponade?

64
Q

What will the EKG show on a pt with cardiac tamponade?

A

low voltage QRS

electrical alternans

signs of underlying dz (pericarditis?

65
Q

What will pericarditis present like on EKG?

A

diffuse ST segment elevation

66
Q

What will the CXR show of a pt with cardiac tamponade?

A

may be normal or show an enlarged cardiac silhouette

67
Q

What is the management of cardiac tamponade?