Female Flashcards

1
Q

germ cells form (2)

A

ovarian stroma and epithelium

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2
Q

mullerian ducts form (4)

A

-fallopian tubes
-uterus
-cervix
-upper vagina

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3
Q

urogenital sinus forms (2)

A

-lower vagina
-external genitalia

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4
Q

mesonephric ducts

A

regress (if present, abnormal/cysts)

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5
Q

3 common gyno infections causing discomfort

A

-candida
-trichomonas
-gardnerella

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6
Q

gyno infections causing infertility (2)

A

-chlamydia
-neisseria gonorrhoeae

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7
Q

gyno infections in pre term labor (2)

A

-ureaplasma urealyticum
-mycoplasma hominis

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8
Q

infection causing cervical, vaginal, and vulvar cancer

A

HPV

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9
Q

order of frequency for HSV infection (3)

A

cervix, vagina, vulva

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10
Q

causes genital ulcers

A

HSV

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11
Q

typically results in oropharyngeal infection

A

HSV-1

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12
Q

usually involves genital mucosa and skin

A

HSV-2

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13
Q

HSV is a ____ virus

A

DNA

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14
Q

red papules that progress to vesicles and then to painful coalescent ulcers; severe purulent discharge and pelvic pain indicative of

A

HSV

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15
Q

most common period of HSV transmission

A

acute infection

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16
Q

the HSV virus migrates to the regional lumbosacral nerve ganglia and establishes a latent infection during this period

A

acute infection

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17
Q

4 things that can trigger reactivation of HSV and recurrence

A

-stress
-trauma
-uv radiation
-hormonal changes

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18
Q

caused by a poxvirus

A

molluscum contagiosum

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19
Q

most prevalent type of Molluscum contagiosum

A

MCV-1

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20
Q

most often sexually transmitted molluscum contagiosum

A

MCV-2

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21
Q

cytoplasmic viral inclusions in molluscum contagiosum

A

Handerson-Patterson bodies

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22
Q

papules with a central waxy core with cells with cytoplasmic viral inclusions in this disease

A

molluscum contagiosum

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23
Q

development of symptomatic candidiasis is due to

A

disturbance in patient’s vaginal flora

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24
Q

4 conditions associated with candidiasis

A

-uncontrolled DM
-antibiotic use
-pregnancy
-immunocompromise

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25
trichomonas vaginalis cervix appearance
strawberry cervix
26
large, flagellated ovoid protozoan
trichomonas vaginalis
27
4 symptoms of trichomonas vaginalis
-yellow, frothy vaginal discharge -vulvovaginal discomfort -dysuria -dyspareunia
28
painful intercourse
dyspareunia
29
gram neg bacilli implicated as main cause of BV
gardnerella vaginalis
30
disease implicated in premature labor
bacterial vaginosis
31
implicated in chorioamnionitis and premature delivery in pregnant patients
ureaplasma and mycoplasma
32
mainly takes form of cervicitis
chlamydia trachomatis
33
infection that may ascend to the uterus and fallopian tubes, resulting in endometritis and salpingitis
chlamydia trachomatis
34
Begins in the vulva or vagina and spreads upward to involve most of the structures in the female genital system, resulting in pelvic pain, adnexal tenderness, fever, and vaginal discharge
Pelvic inflammatory disease
35
infections that can cause PID (3)
-neisseria gonorrhoeae -chlamydia infection -puerperal infections after delivery
36
Staphylococci, Streptococci, Coliforms Clostridium perfringens in a combination can cause
puerperal infections
37
infective stage of PID
acute suppurative salpingitis
38
non infective stage of PID
chronic salpingitis
39
order of sequelae in PID (5)
-acute suppurative salpingitis -salpingo-oophoritis -tubo-ovarian abscesses/pyosalpinx -chronic salpingitis -hydrosalpinx
40
Infection produces an acute inflammation (adenitis) and may result in an abscess; Result from obstruction of the duct
Bartholin cyst
41
Bartholin duct cysts are either excised or opened permanently via this process
marsupialization
42
Relatively common cyst that occur at all ages
bartholin cyst
43
Non-neoplastic Epithelial Disorders of the Vulva may be caused by this variety of disorders
benign, premalignant, or malignant disorders
44
smooth, white plaques or macules that in time may enlarge and coalesce, producing a surface that resembles porcelain or parchment. 
lichen sclerosus
45
marked thinning of the epidermis, degeneration of the basal epithelial cells, excessive keratinization (hyperkeratosis), sclerotic changes of the superficial dermis, and a bandlike lymphocytic infiltrate in the underlying dermis.
lichen sclerosus
46
cigarette paper appearance lesion in this disorder
lichen sclerosus
47
Nonspecific condition resulting from rubbing or scratching of the skin to relieve pruritus.
squamous cell hyperplasia
48
Clinically qpresents as leukoplakia
squamous cell hyperplasia
49
not considered premalignant because it is sometimes present at the margins of vulvar cancers.
squamous cell hyperplasia
50
4 types of benign exophytic vulvar lesions
-condyloma acuminatum -syphilitic condyloma latum -skin tags -vulvar squamous papilloma
51
HPV 6 and 11 can cause
condyloma acuminatum
52
Exophytic proliferations covered by nonkeratinized squamous epithelium
vulvar squamous papilloma
53
Uncommon malignant neoplasm (much less frequent than cervical cancer)
vulvar carcinoma
54
The risk of cancer development in VIN depends on 2 things
-Duration and extent of disease -Immune status of the patient
55
Majority present in women older than 60 years
vulvar carcinoma and VIN
56
SCC of the vulva that is HPV related will be
Basaloid and warty carcinomas
57
SCC of the vulva that is not HPV related will be
Keratinizing squamous cell carcinomas
58
this type of SCC of the vulva arises from differentiated VIN or VIN simplex
keratinizing squamous cell carcinomas
59
high grade VIN are these stages
2 and 3
60
Once invasive SCC vulvar cancer develops, the risk of metastatic spread is linked to (3)
- Size of tumor - Depth of invasion - Involvement of lymphatic vessels
61
Patients with lesions less than____ cm in diameter have a 90% 5-year survival after treatment with vulvectomy and lymphadenectomy
2 cm
62
initial spread of this cancer is to inguinal, pelvic, iliac, and periaortic lymph nodes
SCC
63
Larger SCC vulvar lesions with lymph node involvement have
poor prognosis
64
Sharply circumscribed nodule, most commonly on the labia majora or interlabial folds
Papillary Hidradenoma
65
Rare lesion of the vulva is similar in its manifestations to Paget disease of the breast 
Extramammary Paget Disease
66
is vulvar Paget typically associated with underlying cancer and is confined to the epidermis of vulvar skin like the breast
no
67
vulvar modified apocrine sweat glands tumors (2)
-papillary hidradenoma -extramammary paget disease
68
May be confused clinically with carcinoma because of its tendency to ulcerate
papillary hidradenoma
69
Histologic appearance is identical to that of intraductal papilloma of the breast 
papillary hidradenoma
70
In the vulva, it presents as a pruritic, red, crusted, map-like area, usually on the labia majora
extramammary paget disease
71
The most serious lesion of vaginas
squamous cell carcinoma
72
uterine anomaly that is least commonly associated with reproductive failure (mild variant)
arcuate uterus
73
A deformity of the uterus, which happens during fetal development before birth. A membrane called the septum divides the inner portion of uterus, at its middle
septate uterus
74
Indentation, greater than 1cm that occurs when partial non-fusion of Müllerian ducts at the level of the fundus; one cervix
bicornuate uterus
75
Uterine malformation where the uterus is present as a paired organ when the embryogenetic fusion of the Müllerian ducts fails to occur. As a result, there is a double uterus with two separate cervices, and possibly a double vagina as well.
didelphus uterus
76
A type of congenital uterine abnormality (Müllerian duct abnormality). It is smaller than a typical uterus (often about half the normal size) and usually has only one functioning fallopian tube (rather than two).
unicornuate uterus
77
small patches of residual glandular epithelium may persist into adult life
Vaginal adenosis
78
derived from wolffian (mesonephric) duct rests on lateral walls of vagina
Gartner duct cysts
79
most benign vaginal tumors occur in this demographic
reproductive age
80
3 benign tumors of the vagina
-Stromal tumors (stromal polyps) -Leiomyomas -Hemangiomas
81
most common malignant tumor to involve the vagina
carcinoma spreading from the cervix
82
rare vaginal malignancy infants can develop
Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma
83
sarcoma botryoides
Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma
84
part of vagina most often affected by squamous cell carcinoma
upper vagina
85
The greatest risk factor for vagina SCC
previous carcinoma of the cervix or vulva
86
squamous cell carcinoma of the vagina usually arises from this premalignant lesion
vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia
87
Lesions in the ______ _________ tend to spread to regional iliac nodes
upper vagina
88
Lesions in the _____ _____ of the vagina metastasize to the inguinal nodes
lower 2/3s
89
area of the cervix where the columnar epithelium abuts the squamous epithelium
transformation zone
90
susceptible to infections with HPV, the main cause of cervical cancer
transformation zone
91
replacement of the glandular epithelium by advancing squamous epithelium
squamous metaplasia
92
the squamocolumnar junction moves upwards into the endocervical canal with ____
time
93
Maturation of the cervical and vaginal squamous mucosa AND Formation of intracellular glycogen vacuoles in the squamous cells stimulated by
estrogen
94
provides a substrate for various endogenous vaginal aerobes and anaerobes (lactobacilli)
glycogen
95
produce lactic acid which maintains vaginal pH below 4.5
lactobacilli
96
at low pH, lactobacilli produce
bacteriotoxic hydrogen peroxide
97
Common benign exophytic growths that arise within the endocervical canal
endocervical polyp
98
may be the source of irregular vaginal “spotting” or bleeding that arouses suspicion of some more ominous lesion
endocervical polyp
99
Simple curettage or surgical excision is curative.
endocervical polyp
100
third most common cancer in women
cervical cancer
101
most important factor in the development of cervical cancer
high risk HPV
102
HPV subtype that accounts for almost 60% of cervical cancer cases
HPV 16
103
interfere with the activity of tumor suppressor proteins that regulate cell growth and survival
Viral proteins E6 and E7
104
Infections by gonococci, chlamydia, mycoplasmas, and HSV may produce significant acute or chronic cervicitis
STIs
105
associated with a productive HPV infection in cervix
LSIL
106
is LSIL treated like a premalignant lesion
no
107
language used to describe results of pap smear / cytology
LSIL, HSIL
108
language used to describe results of tissue biopsy / histopath
CIN
109
mild dysplasia is __________ in SIL classification, only low grade stage
LSIL
110
ten times more common than HSILs
LSILs
111
Progressive deregulation of the cell cycle by HPV produces this SIL
HSIL
112
most common cervical carcinoma histological subtype
squamous cell carcinoma
113
second most common cervical carcinoma histological subtype
adenocarcinoma
114
rare cervical carcinoma histological subtypes (2)
-adenosquamous -neuroendocrine carcinomas
115
advanced cervical carcinoma spreads as
direct extension to contiguous tissues
116
produces sex steroid hormones
ovary
117
phase between ovulation and period
luteal phase
118
day 1 of cycle with lowest level of estrogen
menstrual cycle begins
119
FSH stimulates ovaries to produce mature eggs by stimulating follicles (one follicle/egg) which produce estrogen which thickens endometrium
preparing for ovulation
120
estrogen levels continue to rise causing rise in LH. LH causes the dominant follicle to rupture and release the mature egg, which then enters the fallopian tube. The day of ________ will vary from cycle to cycle (Day 14 average)
ovulation
121
egg lives 24 hours/sperm live 3-4 days
after ovulation
122
egg lives 24 hours/sperm live 3-4 days
pregnancy
123
histologic appearance of the endometrium may be used to assess: (3)
- hormonal status - document ovulation - determine causes of endometrial bleeding
124
Most commonly stems from hormonal disturbances
dysfunctional uterine bleeding
125
most frequent cause of dysfunctional bleeding
anovulation
126
Results in excessive endometrial stimulation by estrogens that is unopposed by progesterone
anovulation
127
Time between ovulation and menstrual period
inadequate luteal phase
128
Clinically presents as infertility associated with either increased bleeding or amenorrhea
inadequate luteal phase
129
Inflammation is concerning in the ______________ (excluding the menstrual phase)
endometrium
130
Uncommon inflammation and limited to bacterial infections that arise after delivery or miscarriage
Acute Endometritis
131
this is an unexpected and frequently insignificant finding in the cervix
chronic inflammation
132
associated with chronic PID, IUD, TB, retained gestational tissue
chronic endometritis
133
there is a 3x increased risk of malignant transformation in this disorder
endometriosis
134
primary site of endometriosis
ovaries
135
these may be present on the ovaries in endometriosis
chocolate cysts
136
presence of endometrial tissue within the uterine wall
adenomyosis
137
adenomyosis appearance
trabeculated and nodular
138
these are usually sessile but can be pedunculated
endometrial polyps
139
nuclear atypia is an important histological classification for
endometrial hyperplasia
140
this tumor suppressor gene is mutated in approx. 20% of endometrial hyperplasias
PTEN
141
four categories of endometrial hyperplasia
-simple hyperplasia w/o atypia -complex hyperplasia w/o atypia -simple atypical hyperplasia -complex atypical hyperplasia
142
current WHO endometrial hyperplasia classification
non atypical hyperplasia and atypical hyperplasia
143
a large amount of women with diagnosed atypical hyperplasia are found to have ____________ when a hysterectomy is performed
carcinoma
143
EIN
atypical hyperplasia
144
most common invasive cancer of the female genital tract
endometrial carcinoma
145
type 1 endometrium carcinoma
endometroid
146
most common type of endometrial carcinoma
endometroid - type 1
147
endometrium staging is based primarily on
invasion
148
how does endometrioid carcinomas generally spread
by myometrial invasion followed by direct extension to adjacent structures/organs
149
type II carcinoma of the endometrium
serous, clear cell
150
carcinoma that typically arises in the setting of endometrial hyperplasia
type I endometriod carcinoma
151
carcinoma that typically arises in the setting of endometrial atrophy
type II serous, clear cell carcinoma
152
most common subtype of type II endometrial carcinoma
serous
153
type I tumors are ________ differentiated
well
154
type II tumors are _________ differentiated
poorly
155
mutations in this gene are present in at least 90% serous endometrial carcinoma
TP53
156
mutations in these genes were found in endometriod carcinoma (2)
PTEN, P1K3CA
157
the signaling pathway affected by mutations in endometriod carcinoma
P13K/AKT
158
malignant mixed mullerian tumors are also referred to as
carcinosarcomas
159
endometrial adenocarcinomas with a malignant mesenchymal component
Malignant mixed mullerian tumors
160
MMMTs are staged based on
size
161
high grade biphasic pattern - stromal and epithelial in this malignant tumor of endometrium
MMMT
162
endometrial stromal neoplasms admixed with benign glands
adenosarcomas
163
most common tumor in women
uterine leiomyoma
164
intramural leiomyoma
within the myometrium
165
subserosal leiomyoma
beneath the serosa
166
submucosal leiomyoma
beneath the mucosa
167
hemorrhagic infarction of a tumor
red degeneration
168
uncommon malignant neoplasm thought to arise from the myometrium or endometrial stromal precursor cells
leiomyosarcoma
169
these usually arise de novo
leiomyosarcoma
170
distinguish leiomyomas from leiomyosarcomas by observing (3)
-nuclear atypia, mitotic index, and tumor necrosis
171
leiomyosarcoma staging is based on (2)
size and invasion
172
endometrial carcinoma staging is based on (2)
myometrial invasion/extension
173
major causative organism in suppurative salpingitis
gonococcus
174
these often occur at fimbriated end of the tube or in the broad ligaments
paratubal cysts
175
other name for paratubal cysts
hydatids of Morgagni
176
these are often seen with tubal ligation
paratubal cysts
177
presents as benign subserosal nodules on the tube or sometimes mesosalpinx
adenomatoid tumor
178
primary adenocarcinoma of the fallopian tubes is
rare
179
primary inflammation of the ovary
oophoritis
180
mutation in this proto-oncogene is a consistent genetic alteration in mucinous tumors of the ovary
KRAS
181
originate from unruptured graafian follicles or in follicles that have ruptured and immediately sealed
follicle cysts
182
may be associated with increased estrogen production and endometrial abnormalities
follicle cysts
183
PCOS was formerly called
Stein-Leventhal syndrome
184
most primary ovarian neoplasms arise from ___________ epithelium
Mullerian
185
three major histologic types of ovarian epithelial tumors
-serous -mucinous -endometroid
186
malignant ovarian tumor with cystic component
cystadenocarcinoma
187
three ovarian epithelial proliferation classification
-benign -borderline -malignant
188
low grade tumors than often arise in association with borderline serous tumors or endometriosis
type 1 serous ovarian carcinomas
189
most often high grade serous carcinomas that arise from serous intraepithelial carcinoma
type 2 serous ovarian carcinomas
190
most common malignancy of the ovaries
serous carcinoma
191
cystic lesions containing serous fluid
serous tumors
192
70% of serous tumors are
benign or borderline
193
30% of serous tumors are
malignant
194
bilateral ovary involvement is common in these types of ovarian tumors
serous epithelial
195
appearance of serous ovarian tumors that have smooth glistening cyst wall with no epithelial thickening or with small papillary projections
benign
196
appearance of serous ovarian tumors that have an increased number of papillary projections
borderline
197
appearance of serous ovarian tumors that have larger areas of solid or papillary tumor mass, tumor irregularity, fixation/nodularity of capsule
malignant
198
two types of serous ovarian tumors that significantly involve ovary surface
borderline and malignant
199
intracystic papillations within fibrous walled cysts that project from the ovarian surface are found in these types of serous ovarian tumors
malignant
200
arise from in situ lesions in the fallopian tube fimbriae or from serous inclusion cysts within the ovary
high grade serous ovarian carcinoma
201
may arise in association with a serous borderline tumor and associated with spread to peritoneum
low grade serous ovarian carcinoma
202
even extra-ovarian involvement, slow progression, patients may survive for long periods
low grade serous ovarian carcinoma
203
widely metastatic throughout the abdomen at presentation, recurring borderline tumors
high grade serous ovarian carcinoma
204
the vast majority of mucinous ovarian tumors are (2)
benign or borderline
205
these tumors are rare before puberty and after menopause
mucinous ovarian tumors
206
3 different morphology for mucinous ovarian tumors
-rare surface involvement -unilateral -larger cystic mass, multiloculated
207
sticky, gelatinous fluid rich in glycoproteins
mucin
208
expansile invasion of confluent glandular growth is demonstrated by this type of ovarian carcinoma
mucinous carcinomas
209
condition of extensive mucinous ascites, cystic epithelial implants on the peritoneal surfaces, adhesions, and frequent involvement of ovaries (usually from extraovarian source - appendix)
pseudomyxoma peritonei
210
mucinous tumors (stage 1, invasive malignant) have a ______ 10 year survival rate
high
211
mucinous carcinomas that have spread beyond the ovary are usually
fatal
212
tumors marked by the presence of tubular glands resembling benign or malignant endometrium
endometrioid ovarian tumors
213
may arise in the setting of endometriosis and associated with areas of borderline tumor
endometrioid ovarian carcinoma
214
15-30% of ovarian endometrioid carcinomas are accompanied by
endometrial carcinoma
215
benign tumors that are usually small and multilocular and have simple papillary processes that do not become as complicated and branching as those found in cystadenomas
cystadenofibromas
216
bilateral involvement in endometrioid ovarian cancers often suggest
extension beyond genital tract
217
composed of large epithelial cells with abundant clear cytoplasm; can be solid or cystic grossly
clear cell ovarian carcinoma
218
microscopic appearance that resembles hypersecretory gestational endometrium
clear cell ovarian carcinoma
219
now though to be variants of endometrioid adenocarcinoma
clear cell ovarian carcinoma
220
transitional cell tumor (resemble urothelium) in the ovaries
Brenner tumor
221
most Brenner tumors are
benign
222
Brenner tumor with greater than 50% malignant transitional type epithelium are considered
transitional cell carcinomas of the ovary
223
90% of Brenner tumors are
unilateral
224
stroma of Brenner tumors
fibrous
225
if the brenner tumor stroma is composed of fibroblasts resembling theca cells, these may be
hormonally active
226
3 categories of teratoma
-mature (benign) -immature (malignant) -monodermal, specialized
227
cysts lined by skinlike structures
dermoid cysts
228
dermoid cysts usually found in women during active reproductive years
mature teratomas
229
these may be occasionally associated with clinically important paraneoplastic syndromes such as inflammatory limbic encephalitis
mature teratomas
230
resemble embryonal and immature fetal tissue, often neuroepithelium
immature teratomas
231
mature teratomas can have (4)
teeth, nails, hair, bone
232
composed entirely of mature thyroid tissue that may be functional and cause hyperthyroidism
struma ovarii
233
arises from intestinal tissue found in teratomas that may be functional and may cause carcinoid syndrome
ovarian carcinoid
234
most common monodermal/specialized teratomas (2)
struma ovarii, ovarian carcinoid
235
monodermal/specialized teratomas are often (uni/bi?)
unilateral
236
ovarian counterpart of testicular seminoma
dysgerminoma
237
all dysgerminomas are
malignant
238
glomerulus like structure composed of a central blood vessel enveloped by tumor cells within a space that is also lined by tumor cells
Schiller-Duval body
239
this is a characteristic histological feature of yolk sac tumors
Schiller-Duval body
240
second most common malignant germ cell tumor
yolk sac tumor
241
highly malignant tumor of primitive embryonal elements that is histologically like testicular version
embryonal carcinoma
242
a malignant tumor contained embryoid bodies
polyembryona
243
contain various combos of dysgerminoma, teratoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma
mixed germ cell tumor
244
triphasic elements of choriocarcinoma
-cytotrophoblast -intermediate trophoblast -multinucleated syncytiotrophoblast
245
histologically identical to the more common placental lesions
choriocarcinoma
246
most _____________ exist in combo with other germ cell tumors
choriocarcinomas
247
these bodies found in granulosa cell tumors
Call-Exner bodies
248
granulosa cell tumors have cells arranged in sheets punctuated by small follicle like structures which are
Call-Exner bodies
249
tumors arise in the ovarian stroma composed of fibroblasts
fibromas
250
tumors arise in the ovarian stroma composed of plump spindle cells with lipid droplets
thecomas
251
hormonally inactive sex cord stromal tumor
fibroma
252
these tumors are often functional and commonly produce masculinization or defeminization
sertoli-leydig cell tumor
253
characterized by bilateral metastases composed of mucin-producing signet ring cancer cells, often of gastric origin
Krukenberg tumors
254
most common extramullerian tumors that metastasize to the ovaries (2)
-breast -GI tract
255
most common metastatic tumors of the ovary are mullerian in origin (4)
-uterus -fallopian tube -opposite ovary -pelvic peritoneum
256
these are very sensitive to hypertension or any issues in perfusion
chorionic villi
257
carries oxygen-rich blood from the mother to the fetal inferior vena cava
umbilical vein
258
miscarriage or pregnancy loss before 20 weeks gestation
spontaneous abortion
259
most spontaneous abortions occur before
12 weeks
260
this is common in second trimester loss
ascending infections
261
implantation of the fetus in a site other than normal intrauterine location
ectopic pregnancy
262
most common site of an ectopic pregnancy
extrauterine fallopian tube
263
35-50% of patients with ectopic pregnancies have prior ______ that cause intraluminal scarring of the tube
PID
264
retroplacental hemorrhage of placenta and myometrium interface
abruptio placentae
265
monochorionic twin placenta with shunts that preferntially increase blood flow to one twin at expensive of second, causing one twin to be underperfused and the second fluid overloaded
twin-twin transfusion syndrome
266
placenta implants in the lower uterine segment/cervix
placenta previa
267
covers the internal cervical os and must be delivered via C section
complete placenta previa
268
caused by partial or complete absence of the decidua so the placental villi adheres directly to the myometrium which leads to failure of placental separation at birth
placenta accreta
269
common predisposing factors for placenta accreta
placenta previa/previous c section
270
placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall, past endometrium
placenta accreta
271
placenta attaches into the uterine muscle
placenta increta
272
placenta goes completely through the uterine wall
placenta percreta
273
two pathways of placental infections
ascending, hematogenous
274
most common placental infection
ascending bacterial infections
275
systemic syndrome characterized by widespread maternal endothelial dysfunction that presents during pregnancy
preeclampsia
276
presentation of preeclamspia (3)
-hypertension -edema -proteinuria
277
preeclampsia is more common in
primiparas
278
women pregnant for the first time
primiparas
279
women with severe preeclampsia develop microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
HELLP syndrome
280
gestational hypertension arises without
proteinuria
281
a spectrum of tumors and tumor like conditions characterized by proliferation of placental tissue that is either villous or trophoblastic
gestational trophoblastic disease
282
three major disorders of gestational trophoblastic disease
-hydatidiform mole -invasive mole/choriocarcinoma -placental site trophoblastic tumor (PSTT)
283
associated with an increased risk of persistent trophoblastic disease (invasive mole) or choriocarcinoma
hydatidiform mole
284
HCG levels greatly exceed those of a normal pregnancy of similar gestational age in this type of hydatidiform mole
complete hydatidiform mole
285
results from fertilization of an egg that lost female chromosomes, genetic material is entirely paternally derived
complete hydatidiform mole
286
moles that result from fertilization of an egg with two sperm
partial hydatidiform mole
287
karyotype of partial hydatidiform is
triploid or tetraploid
288
partial moles have an increased risk of persistent molar disease but are not associated with
choriocarcinoma
289
fetal tissues are typically present in this type of mole
partial hydatidiform mole
290
malignant neoplasm of trophoblastic cells derived from a previously normal or abnormal pregnancy (Ectopic)
gestational choriocarcinoma
291
moles that penetrate or even perforate the uterine wall, invasion of the myometrium and locally destructive
invasive hydatidiform mole
292
always associated with a persistently elevated serum HCG
invasive mole
293
hydropic villi can __________ to distant sites but do not grow in invasive moles
embolize
294
gestational trophoblastic disease that has hematogenous spread
choriocarcinoma
295
most common sites of metastasis of gestational choriocarcinoma (6)
lungs, vagina, brain, liver, bone, kidney
296
neoplastic proliferations of extravillous trophoblasts/intermediate trophoblasts
placental site trophoblastic tumor
297