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The laboratory of perpetual help is:
Tertiary laboratory
Capability of primary lab except:
Routine Chemistry
Microbiology culture and sensitivity for aerobe and anaerobe:
Hospital-based Tertiary Laboratory
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a leader:
Does things right
Consists of the detailed day to day operations needed to meet the immediate needs of the laboratory:
Tactical Planning
Most error in lab occurs in:
A. Pre-analytic
B. Analytic
C. Post-analytic
A. Pre-analytic
This includes specimen processing:
Analytic
Competition from other local laboratories are example of:
Threats
Use of modern technology and equipment:
Strength
The laboratory of AFP medical center is an example of:
Government-owned tertiary lab
All scope of clinical lab except:
None of the above
Service capability of primary lab:
Qualitative platelet count
- Which of the following is true:
A. Micrbiology aerobic and anearobic C&S hospital based only
B. Micrbiology aerobic and anearobic C&S hospital based and nonhospital based
C. Both
D. Neither
A. Micrbiology aerobic and anearobic C&S hospital based only
B. Micrbiology aerobic and anearobic C&S hospital based and nonhospital based
C. Both
Which is not a purpose of the laboratory:
Dictate patient management
Secondary lab KOH is done in hospital base only:
False
After the results, electronic copy signature is acceptable in accordance in E commerce law:
True or False
True
Pre analytic error during post collection except:
Inadequate patient preparation
Refers to all complex steps that must take place before a specimen can be analyzed:
A. Pre-analytic
B. Analytic
C. Post-analytic
Pre-analytic
Must take into consideration multiple factors and variables that may affect the succeeding steps:
A. Pre-analytic
B. Analytic
C. Post-analytic
Pre-analytic
Screening process…:
A. Pre-analytic
B. Analytic
C. Post-analytic
Analytic
Manual or automated:
A. Pre-analytic
B. Analytic
C. Post-analytic
Analytical
Final phase of the laboratory process:
A. Pre-analytic
B. Analytic
C. Post-analytic
Post-analytical
Keeping of records:
A. Pre-analytic
B. Analytic
C. Post-analytic
Post-analytic
30 y/o patient with headache, fatigue, pallor, tachycardia… decreased haemoglobin, hematocrit, iron:
Microcytic, hypochromic
- Haptoglobin in hemolytic anemia:
Increase
Decrease
No Change
DECREASE
INDIRECT BILIRUBIN in hemolytic anemia:
Increase
Decrease
No Change
INCREASE
Reticulocyte count in hemolytic anemia:
Increase
Decrease
No Change
INCREASE
RDW in hemolytic anemia:
Increase
Decrease
No Change
INCREASE
Erythroid precursors from bone marrow in hemolytic anmeia:
Increase
Decrease
No Change
INCREASE
A patient present with DIC was recently diagnosed and tested positive for micro coagulation testing. What does the D-dimer measure?
Cleaved crosslink
A 45 y.o. man was diagnosed with primary hypoaldosteronism. Which of the lab result is most consistent with the diagnosis?
Increase or Decrease of Na K sereum HCO3 Urine Na Urine K
decrease Na
increase K
decrease serum HCO3 increase urine Na
decrease urine K
Man undergoes elective sigmoid resection.
ph ↓ pCO2 ↓ Bicarbonate ↓ Potassium ↑ BUN ↑ Creatinine ↑
Diagnosis?
A. Excessive sodium intake B. Fluid deficit C. Acute renal failure D. Surgical resection of both ureters E. Fistula between ureter and colon
C. Acute renal failure
70 y.o. man undergoes electrolyte sigmoid resection for diverticulitis. On the 2nd post-operative day his average urine output is only around 35-45mL/hr. IVF rate increase to 100mL/hr days after his urinary output is 50-55mL/hr. Lab study reveals the following: ph 7.25 pCO2 30 HCO3 50 K 5.0 BUN 85mg/dL Creatinine 4.1 Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?
A. Excessive sodium intake B. Fluid deficit C. Acute renal failure D. Surgical resection of both ureters E. Fistula between ureter and colon
C. Acute renal failure
34. A 60 yr old man is admitted to the hospital with a 2 week history of progressive lethargy and obtundation. Lab results are: Na 105 K 4.0 Plasma osmolality 22 Urine osmolality 604 Urine sodium 78
What is the most likely diagnosis?
SIADH
Low sodium in plasma and urine; high urine osmolality:
SIADH
Substance that is absorbed but not secreted is administered to the patient until steady state plasma level of 0.1 mg/dL. Second urine specimen is 60 ml and the administered substance is 10 ml.
What is the GFR?
100 ml
Chart is given, which is primary hyperthyroidism:
Low TSH
High T4
- Respiratory Failure secondary to poliomyelitis and the respirator was set on high:
Normal slightly increase (pO), Markedly decrease (pCO), Decrease (ph)
A 60-year-old diabetic man notes bone pain, especially in his hands, for the past 6 months. Laboratory shows the following results: Sodium: Normal Potassium: Normal CO2: Normal Glucose: Elevated Creatinine: Elevated Calcium: Elevated Phosphorus: Elevated Total Protein: Normal Albumin: Normal
Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely to have?
Parathyroid hyperplasia
- Select the letter that best depicts primary hypothyroidism:
High TSH, Low T4
riggers for histamine release are the following except:
A. IgE mediated mast cell
B. Physical injury
C. Anaphylotoxins
D. Cell adhesion molecules
D. Cell adhesion molecules
The following are important component in acute inflammation, except:
A. Vasodilation
B. Emigration of leukocytes
C. Release of chemical mediators
D. NOTA
D. NOTA
Activated by antigen-antibody complex:
Classical Pathway
Central convergence point for all pathways:
C3
C4
C5
C6
C3
To facilitate communication between cells, to assist in up-regulation or down-regulation of the immune response:
Cytokines
This complement activation pathway appears to be important in early defense against pathogenic microorganims:
A. Classical Pathway
B. Alternative Pathway
C. MBL Pathway
D. NOTA
B. Alternative Pathway
True of complement system, except:
A. Promote inflammation and host defense
B. Microorganism identification
C. Unregulated tissue damage is a possible complication
D. Not necessary to measures the serum complement level to track disease activity
D. Not necessary to measures the serum complement level to track disease activity
In Classical pathway, antigen-antibody complex sequentially binds and activate the following component except:
C3
C4
C5
C6
C3
Complement decreased in SLE and low levels in active disease:
C3
C4
Both
Both C3 and C4
Functions of complement system, except: A. To promote host defense B. To promote clearance of apoptotic debris C. To regulate immune response D. NOTA
D. NOTA
Complex glycoprotein that bind living tissues together, mediate cell migration during embryogenesis, wound healing and inflammatory response:
Adhesion molecules
Cell mediators that involves calcium:
Cadherins
Cancer serum tumor markers CA-19-9 and CA125 are epitopes that represent this type of CAM:
Mucin
The simplest functional assay in the classical pathway ch50 measures total hemolytic complement activity.
True or False
TRUE
The protein C5 is the central convergence point of the three activated complement pathways:
True or False
FALSE
- A patient with gram negative septicemia and pyogenic infection often have deficient C3 or components of alternative pathway.
TRUE
Complement plays a key role in the glomerular damage in many cases of glomerulonephritis.
TRUE
The kinin generating system is another inflammatory response pathway present in plasma that controls the generation of peptides important in the inflammatory response.
TRUE
Spontaneous bleeding in skin and mucosa such as petechia, echymosis is usually secondary to: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Platelet defect C. Liver disease D. Both A and B
D. Both A and B
The final common pathway of coagulation involves:
Formation of Thrombin
A defect in the aggregation of platelets is/are secondary to:
A. vWF deficiency
B. GP1b deficiency
C. GPIIb/IIIa deficiency
D. A and B are correct
C. GPIIb/IIIa deficiency-glanzman
A defect in platelet adhesion maybe secondary to:
A. vWF deficiency
B. GP1b deficiency
C. GPIIb/IIIa deficiency
D. A and B are correct
D. A and B are correct
The screening test for the diagnosis for coagulation problem are:
Bleeding time
PT
PTT
AOTA
All of the above (Bleeding time, PT, PTT)
Undetectable K:
A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor IX
D. AOTA
1972-vit k factors
B. Factor V
The most common inherited bleeding disorder in humans:
Von Willebrand
A deficiency or inhibition of one or more factors VII, X, V, II is suggested by:
A. prolonged ThrombinTime
B. prolonged PT
C. prolonged aPTT
D. decrease fibrinogen
B. prolonged PT -extrinsic
Deficiency or defect in factors II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII and fibrinogen?
A. prolonged ThrombinTime
B. prolonged PT
C. prolonged aPTT
D. decrease fibrinogen
Prolongation of aPTT -intrinsic
The following clotting factors are produced by the liver except: A. Fibrinogen B. Prothombin C. vWF D. Christmas factor
C. vWF
Vacutainer for coagulation assay: color
Blue top tube
The vacutainer tube for CBC is:
color
Purple top tube
The following are Vitamin K dependent except:
Factor II Factor V Factor VII Factor IX Factor X
Factor V
Deficiency or mutation in coagulation proteins or factor that leads to thrombophilia, except:
Factor VII
Which of the following are true about DIC?
A. DIC is a severe form of consumptive coagulopathy
B. Systemic activation of hemostasis leads to widespread intravascular fibrin deposition with associated depletion of prohemostatic and anticoagulant factors
C. With parallel secondary fibrinolysis, potentially leading to a wide range of adverse outcomes, including thrombotic occlusion of small/ mid-sized vessels, organ dysfunction/failure, and/or bleeding.
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
Triggers disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC):
A. Septicemia
B. Cancer
C. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
True of severe Hemophilia A and B:
All of the above
The following statements about Aspirin is FALSE:
Aspirin acetylated inhibition bind to cyclooxygenase 2-tama to so hindi ito yun sagot
Which of the following does not contribute to clot formation? A. Calcium B. Phospholipid C. Heparin D. Thrombin
C. Heparin-anticougulant
Major antagonist of Vitamin K:
Warfarin
Defect in platelet-platelet interaction (disorders of aggregation):
A. Von willebrand disease (defect or defeciency in vwf)
B. Bernard-soulier syndrome (defect or defeciency in gp1b)
C. Congenital afibrinogenemia (defeciency in plasma fibrinogen)
D. Storage pool deficiency
glanzman -lahat ng choices adhesion problem maliban sa C
C. Congenital afibrinogenemia (defeciency in plasma fibrinogen)
The following is true of prothrombin time:
A. Prolonged PT is caused by deficiency of Factor VII, Factor X, Factor IX, II and I
B. INR is calculated as INR=(PT measured)/(PT mean)ISI
C. PT is more sensitive than aPTT
D. All are correct
D. All are correct
Most effective test for DIC:
D-Dimer test
Parasitologic easy-to-do test:
Direct Wet Mount
Most involves ingestion except:
Strongyloides
Not a characteristic of nematodes:
Incomplete digestive tract
Cellulose tape exam:
Enterobius
Causes rectal prolapse:
T. trichiura
Tissue biopsy reveals encysted larvae:
Trichina worm
What parasite causes human cysticercosis?
T. solium
Maltese cross formation:
Babeiosis
Soon after returning from a trip to Costa Rica, a 41-year-old woman develops recurrent chills and high fever that recur every 48h. Examination of her peripheral blood reveals red granules (Schüffner’s dots) in enlarged, young erythrocytes. Which of the following organisms is most likely to have produced her signs and symptoms?
P. ovale
Responsible for bladder cancer and has apical spine:
Schistosoma hematobium
This amoeba causes intestinal ulcers, liver and lung abscesses:
E. histolytica
A visitor from overseas was hospitalized due to suspected tuberculosis. The laboratory received a bloody sputum sample with orange brown flecks. What is the suspected organism?
Paragonimus westermani
Causes fatal meningoencephalitis:
Naegleria fowleri
Visceral larva migrans:
Toxoplasma canis
Bronchial AIDS silver methenamine:
A. Stercoralis B. Gondii C. Carinii D. Bancrofti E. Parvum
C. Carinii
Thru tick bites and blood transfusions except:
A. Babesia
B. Trypanosoma
C. Leishmanosis
D. AOTA
C. Leishmanosis -sand flies
Demonstrates the characteristic “falling leaf” motility of trophozoites:
- 21.
Giardia lamblia
Quartan Fever:
P. falciparum
P. ovale
P. malariae
P. vivax
P. malariae
James dot pigmentation:
P. falciparum
P. ovale
P. malariae
P. vivax
P. Ovale
Malignant (Tertian) Malaria:
P. falciparum
P. ovale
P. malariae
P. vivax
P. falciparum
Infect duffy blood group:
P. falciparum
P. ovale
P. malariae
P. vivax
P. vivax
New reported case. 1st seen in primates:
P. knowlesi
Scavenging of free radicals:
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
Vitamin K
Vitamin E
Hydroxylation of collagen:
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
Vitamin K
Vitamin C
Myelinization of spinal tracts:
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
Vitamin K
Vitamin B12
DNA metabolism / Uric acid production:
Molybdenum
Metallothionein:
Chromium Cobalt Folate Manganese Molybdenum Selenium Zinc
Zinc
Hyperglycemia/Hyperlipidemia:
Chromium Cobalt Folate Manganese Molybdenum Selenium Zinc
Chromium
Keshan Syndrome/cardiomyopathy:
Chromium Cobalt Folate Manganese Molybdenum Selenium Zinc
KS-Sel
Selenium
Pancreas:
Chromium Cobalt Folate Manganese Molybdenum Selenium Zinc
Pa Manga
Manganese
Neural tube defects:
Chromium Cobalt Folate Manganese Molybdenum Selenium Zinc
Neural-Fo
Folate
