Fcom Flashcards
1
Q
minimum height for AP
A
100ft or 5 sec after liftoff
2
Q
normal hyd pressure
A
3000 PSI
3
Q
max wiper speed
A
230 kt
4
Q
MAX TYRE SPEED
A
195 kt
5
Q
what do you do at touchdown in an overweight landing
A
max reverse and brake fan once stopped
6
Q
high speed protection: max bank
A
40°(positive static stability)
7
Q
PWS envelope
A
RA below 1800ft. at take off, inhibited above 100kt up to 50 ft.
During landing alerts are inhibited below 50 ft.
8
Q
what do you avoid doing on landing after a fuel leak?
A
selecting reversers
9
Q
actions for engine tail pipe fire
A
engine master off, dry crank.
Don’t press the fire pb
10
Q
Ptu activates when differential pressure between yellow and green reaches
A
500 psi Inhibited during first engine start, self.tests during second engine start
11
Q
GPWS MODE 1
A
excessive rate of descent
Sink RATE….. PULL UP
12
Q
GPWS MODE 2
A
excessive terrain closure rate
terrain terrain…… pull up
13
Q
GPWS MODE 3
A
altitude loss after take off
dont sink
14
Q
GPWS MODE 4
A
unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration
too low terrain….. too low gear/flaps
15
Q
GPWS MODE 5
A
descent below glideslope
glideslope
16
Q
AP disconnection in overspeed
A
VM0+15 or MM0+0.04
17
Q
engine start cycles limitations
A
3 starts attempts are one cycle
20 sec between cycles
15 min cooling after 4 failed cycles
Don’t run starter when N2 》20%
18
Q
minimum altitudes for AP in ILS and rnp app
A
160 ft ILS and 250 ft FIN APP
19
Q
minimum altitude for AP in ILS and
FINAL APP
A
160 ft ILS cat 1
250 ft final app, v/s or fpa
20
Q
Max altitude to assist engine start with
APU bleed
A
20000 ft
21
Q
In a flap or slat locked failure,
overspeed and VFE are computed out of?
A
VFE and VFE NEXT are computed out of
flap lever position
VLS and overspeed out of actual surface position
22
Q
when does the system deliver high flow for the packs?
A
In single pack operations and when APU is supplying bleed air
23
Q
Order of hyd system powering spoilers, inboard to outboard
A
G Y B Y G
24
Q
Ailerons are controlled by (computer and hyd)
A
Elac 1 primarily and G/B hyd
25
Elevators are controlled by what (computers and hyd)
Left elev: B/G
Right elev Y/B
Primarily by elac2. Then elac 1, then SECs
26
The THS is controlled by which computer and hyd?
G/Y and Elac 2.
Elac 1 takes over in case of failure, followed by sec 2 and sec1
27
How many start attempts consist of 1 cycle? How much do you need to wait between cycles?
3 start attempts. 20 second wait between successive cycles. After 4 failed cycles you need 15 min waiting
28
When does the DFDR records?
-5 min after first electric power up, or when GND CTL pushed
-Otherwise After 1st engine start
-In flight always
-5 min after 2nd engine shut down
29
What generates amber cautions? And what red warnings?
SDAC
FWC
30
Fuel temp limitations
+ 55 deg
-43 deg
31
Why is TCAS blue sometimes not enough to comply with a climb RA?
Because it is limited to VLS-5 and Vmax.
To override select AP/FD off and fly the green up to V alpha max
32
What are the 3 levels of failure?
Level 1 requires only crew monitoring, no procedure required
Level 2 it's amber caution, with single chime
Level 3 is master warning, with CRC
33
How long does DFDR stores data for?
25 h
34
Do we have load factor protection in altn law?
Yes
35
How is roll rate in altn law?
It is like direct law. It's 30 deg/sec (25 with slats), and to limit it only roll spoiler 4 and 5 are used
36
When is reactive WS operative? What powers it?
3 sec after liftoff to 1300 ft
1300 ft RA to 50 ft
It's a fac function
37
How is GS MINI computed
MANAGED TGT SPD= VAPP+ (CURRENT HEADWIND-TWR HEADWIND COMPONENT)
38
When does red autoland light flash
Below 200 RA and:
RA discrepancy of more than 15 ft RA
Loc > 1/4 above 15 ft RA
G/S > 1 above 100 ft RA
Last AP disengages
Long flare or untimely flare
39
When can you use apu bleed after engine fire pb was pushed?
If engine 2 fire pb was pushed you can use apu bleed for packs if xbleed is shut.
If engine 1 fire pb was pushed you can't use apu bleed
40
What is the issue with ADR 1+3 fault?
Gravity gear extension because safety valves are stuck closed
41
Describe what happens if you pull the sidestick all the way back
If you keep pulling you can exceed alpha prot (top of black and amber strip) and reach V alpha max. In between alpha prot and alpha max alpha floor will kick in, regardless of autothrust arming condition. If you release sidestick, speed will go back to alpha prot. High aoa protection itself activates when current aoa goes above alpha prot
42
When in high aoa protection or pitch attitude protection what is the maximum bank?
45 deg
43
In high speed protection, what is maximum bank in a NEO?
20 degrees, instead of 40 deg of ceo. Positive spiral static stability is still maintained
44
How is green dot calculated?
Below 20000 is 2 x weight (metric tons) +85.
Above 20000 add 1 kt per 1000 ft
45
How are V2 and Vref calculated?
V2 is 1.13 VS1G
VREF is 1.23 VS1G
46
What is VREF?
It is VS config full x 1.23. It is displayed on mcdu if landing is planned in conf full (VLS config full).
Vapp is VLS (displayed on mcdu) + wind correction
47
When do you have Nav accuracy high?
When EPU (Estimated position uncertainty) is less than RNP
48
When do we have GPS Primary?
When in IRS/GPS mode, GPS primary status combines:
-an accuracy criterion (nav accuracy high)
-an integrity criterion, so the capability to detect a failure and warn about it.
When GPS is primary, Nav accuracy is always high
49
What is REC MAX ALT?
Recommended max alt is lowest of:
0.3 g buffet margin
Level flight with max climb thr
Able to maintain 300 ft/min clb
Above green dot and below MMO.
0.2 G buffet is also computed and will be used to limit crz alt entries
50
Why is max bank 67 deg in normal law?
Because you need 2.5 g for a level turn
51
Why in hsp max bank is 40 deg (20 in a neo?
To avoid going into a spiral dive
52
Conditions and application of ice shedding on gnd
To be performed when oat is 3 deg or less or when engine vib occurs.
CEO: 30 sec at 70% at 30 min interval
Neo: 5 sec at 50% at 60 min interval.
Check to be performed before take off (advise atc). If a/C rolls forward carry on with TO
53
What is alert height?
It's the height above the runway (100 ft) above which a CAT III approach would be discontinued if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parte of the automatic landing system, or in the relevant ground equipment
54
What is difference between cat 3 single and cat 3 dual?
Cat 3 single means the A/C is fail passive (cat 3 rvr175). A single failure will lead to AP disconnection without any significant out of trim condition.
Cat 3 dual means that A/C is fail operational. In case of single failure approach will continue as fail passive
55
Minimum AP altitude in circling app
500 ft
56
Safety valve setting
8.6 psi
57
What is A/thr? What are its modes?
It's a Flight Guidance function. It can be in speed/mach or in thrust mode
58
Can you autoland in overweight?
No. With A319 you can up to 69t in exceptional circumstances
59
What is the speed for windmill relight?
.78 or 300 kt
60
Where do you find limitations for xwind in a narrow runway?
Fcom PRO SP 60. Dry is the same, from wet downwards they differ from normal runway
61
Minimum AP height for a manual landing in Cat 2 or 3
80 ft
62
What is the SRS speed target in OE?
V2 up to V2 + 15, using as a base the value detected at the go around mode engagement
63
Minimum SRS V/s
120 ft/min
64
Output of main generators
90 KVA of 3 phase 115/200 V 400 Hz power
65
Output of emergency generator
5 KVA of 3 phase 115/200 V 400 Hz power
66
Output of static inverter
DC power from Battery 1 into 1 KVA of single phase 115 V 400 Hz Ac power, that goes into AC ESS
67
When does red arrow on glareshield comes on
It comes on in front of crew losing authority
68
When does green CAPT or F/O light comes on?
They both flash if both pilots move sidesticks without taking priority.
When a pilot has taken priority with the pb and the other sidestick is not neutral,
the light in front of the flight crew with priority lights up
69
What is VLS
Lowest selectable speed. A/thr will not let you go below that speed. In clean config, it is 1.28 VS.
VLS increases when speedbrakes are extended
70
When do you need to switch the PTU off?
If OVHT, LO LVL or Low Air Pressure is detected in one system. You switch it off because otherwise you may overheat the ptu and you may also lose the other system
71
Can you set Nav back up on rmp 3?
No. You use it only for comms
72
Setting of safety valves
8.6 or -1 psi
73
Operation of RAM AIR pb
If pushed on, and delta p is less than 1 psi, the system drives outflow valve to 50% if under automatic control. In manual mode it doesn't move
74
What does ditching pb close?
Outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet,
Avionics vent inlet and extract valve, pack flow control valve
75
What happens in the smoke config of avionics ventilation?
If both blower and extract are ovrd, air cond system supplies cooling air, that is then exhausted overboard. Blower fan stops.
76
Max alt to assist engine start for apu?
20000ft
77
Apu for air conditioning limitations
Single pack 22500 ft
2 packs 15000 ft
78
Apu restart limitat (emer elec)
25000 ft
79
Apu start limits
After 3 consecutive start attempts, wait 60 min
80
Turb penetration speed
BELOW 200
Ceo: 250
320 neo: 260
321 neo: 275
ABOVE 200
Ceo: 275/.76
320 neo: 280/.76
321neo : 305/0.76
81
Srs limits
Minimum 120 ft/min. Max 18 deg (22.5 in WS)
V2 +10 normal TO. Memorized speed at engine out condition detection limited by V2+15
Go around: memorized speed at GA engagement limited by Vapp and VLS + 25 or VLS + 15 engine out
82
What causes auto trim to freeze?
RA below 50 (100 for A321)
G force <0.5
HSP
Manual trim order
83
Tcas in conf3 or full?
Perform a normal go around. But still make sure to stay out of the red section of vertical speed
84
What is a windshear caution? And warning?
Caution is aural "monitor radar display"
Warning is Windshear ahead or Go around windshear ahead
85
What is the minimun Visibility for take off, if rvr not reported?
400 m
86
What happens in a wing or pylon leak?
Bleed valve on related side closes
Fault light comes on
X bleed valve closes
Apu bleed valve closes (left leak)
87
When can you consider EIS DMC switching?
When invalid data is displayed on part of DUs. Refer to QRH
88
What is the normal DMC configuration?
Dmc 1 supplies PFD/ND1 and ECAMS.
DMC 2 supplies pfd/nd2
89
When do FD disappear? (And when do they reappear?)
Bank 45 (40)
Pitch +25 (+22)
Pitch -13 (-10)
