Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

COAS > Fcom > Flashcards

Fcom Flashcards

1
Q

minimum height for AP

A

100ft or 5 sec after liftoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

normal hyd pressure

A

3000 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

max wiper speed

A

230 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MAX TYRE SPEED

A

195 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what do you do at touchdown in an overweight landing

A

max reverse and brake fan once stopped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

high speed protection: max bank

A

40°(positive static stability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PWS envelope

A

RA below 1800ft. at take off, inhibited above 100kt up to 50 ft.
During landing alerts are inhibited below 50 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what do you avoid doing on landing after a fuel leak?

A

selecting reversers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

actions for engine tail pipe fire

A

engine master off, dry crank.
Don’t press the fire pb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ptu activates when differential pressure between yellow and green reaches

A

500 psi Inhibited during first engine start, self.tests during second engine start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

GPWS MODE 1

A

excessive rate of descent
Sink RATE….. PULL UP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

GPWS MODE 2

A

excessive terrain closure rate
terrain terrain…… pull up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

GPWS MODE 3

A

altitude loss after take off
dont sink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

GPWS MODE 4

A

unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration
too low terrain….. too low gear/flaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GPWS MODE 5

A

descent below glideslope
glideslope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

AP disconnection in overspeed

A

VM0+15 or MM0+0.04

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

engine start cycles limitations

A

3 starts attempts are one cycle
20 sec between cycles
15 min cooling after 4 failed cycles
Don’t run starter when N2 》20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

minimum altitudes for AP in ILS and rnp app

A

160 ft ILS and 250 ft FIN APP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

minimum altitude for AP in ILS and
FINAL APP

A

160 ft ILS cat 1
250 ft final app, v/s or fpa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Max altitude to assist engine start with
APU bleed

A

20000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In a flap or slat locked failure,
overspeed and VFE are computed out of?

A

VFE and VFE NEXT are computed out of
flap lever position
VLS and overspeed out of actual surface position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when does the system deliver high flow for the packs?

A

In single pack operations and when APU is supplying bleed air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Order of hyd system powering spoilers, inboard to outboard

A

G Y B Y G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ailerons are controlled by (computer and hyd)

A

Elac 1 primarily and G/B hyd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Elevators are controlled by what (computers and hyd)

A

Left elev: B/G
Right elev Y/B
Primarily by elac2. Then elac 1, then SECs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The THS is controlled by which computer and hyd?

A

G/Y and Elac 2.
Elac 1 takes over in case of failure, followed by sec 2 and sec1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many start attempts consist of 1 cycle? How much do you need to wait between cycles?

A

3 start attempts. 20 second wait between successive cycles. After 4 failed cycles you need 15 min waiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When does the DFDR records?

A

-5 min after first electric power up, or when GND CTL pushed
-Otherwise After 1st engine start
-In flight always
-5 min after 2nd engine shut down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What generates amber cautions? And what red warnings?

A

SDAC
FWC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Fuel temp limitations

A

+ 55 deg
-43 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why is TCAS blue sometimes not enough to comply with a climb RA?

A

Because it is limited to VLS-5 and Vmax.
To override select AP/FD off and fly the green up to V alpha max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 3 levels of failure?

A

Level 1 requires only crew monitoring, no procedure required
Level 2 it’s amber caution, with single chime
Level 3 is master warning, with CRC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How long does DFDR stores data for?

A

25 h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Do we have load factor protection in altn law?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is roll rate in altn law?

A

It is like direct law. It’s 30 deg/sec (25 with slats), and to limit it only roll spoiler 4 and 5 are used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When is reactive WS operative? What powers it?

A

3 sec after liftoff to 1300 ft
1300 ft RA to 50 ft
It’s a fac function

37
Q

How is GS MINI computed

A

MANAGED TGT SPD= VAPP+ (CURRENT HEADWIND-TWR HEADWIND COMPONENT)

38
Q

When does red autoland light flash

A

Below 200 RA and:
RA discrepancy of more than 15 ft RA
Loc > 1/4 above 15 ft RA
G/S > 1 above 100 ft RA
Last AP disengages
Long flare or untimely flare

39
Q

When can you use apu bleed after engine fire pb was pushed?

A

If engine 2 fire pb was pushed you can use apu bleed for packs if xbleed is shut.
If engine 1 fire pb was pushed you can’t use apu bleed

40
Q

What is the issue with ADR 1+3 fault?

A

Gravity gear extension because safety valves are stuck closed

41
Q

Describe what happens if you pull the sidestick all the way back

A

If you keep pulling you can exceed alpha prot (top of black and amber strip) and reach V alpha max. In between alpha prot and alpha max alpha floor will kick in, regardless of autothrust arming condition. If you release sidestick, speed will go back to alpha prot. High aoa protection itself activates when current aoa goes above alpha prot

42
Q

When in high aoa protection or pitch attitude protection what is the maximum bank?

A

45 deg

43
Q

In high speed protection, what is maximum bank in a NEO?

A

20 degrees, instead of 40 deg of ceo. Positive spiral static stability is still maintained

44
Q

How is green dot calculated?

A

Below 20000 is 2 x weight (metric tons) +85.
Above 20000 add 1 kt per 1000 ft

45
Q

How are V2 and Vref calculated?

A

V2 is 1.13 VS1G
VREF is 1.23 VS1G

46
Q

What is VREF?

A

It is VS config full x 1.23. It is displayed on mcdu if landing is planned in conf full (VLS config full).
Vapp is VLS (displayed on mcdu) + wind correction

47
Q

When do you have Nav accuracy high?

A

When EPU (Estimated position uncertainty) is less than RNP

48
Q

When do we have GPS Primary?

A

When in IRS/GPS mode, GPS primary status combines:
-an accuracy criterion (nav accuracy high)
-an integrity criterion, so the capability to detect a failure and warn about it.

When GPS is primary, Nav accuracy is always high

49
Q

What is REC MAX ALT?

A

Recommended max alt is lowest of:
0.3 g buffet margin
Level flight with max climb thr
Able to maintain 300 ft/min clb
Above green dot and below MMO.

0.2 G buffet is also computed and will be used to limit crz alt entries

50
Q

Why is max bank 67 deg in normal law?

A

Because you need 2.5 g for a level turn

51
Q

Why in hsp max bank is 40 deg (20 in a neo?

A

To avoid going into a spiral dive

52
Q

Conditions and application of ice shedding on gnd

A

To be performed when oat is 3 deg or less or when engine vib occurs.
CEO: 30 sec at 70% at 30 min interval
Neo: 5 sec at 50% at 60 min interval.
Check to be performed before take off (advise atc). If a/C rolls forward carry on with TO

53
Q

What is alert height?

A

It’s the height above the runway (100 ft) above which a CAT III approach would be discontinued if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parte of the automatic landing system, or in the relevant ground equipment

54
Q

What is difference between cat 3 single and cat 3 dual?

A

Cat 3 single means the A/C is fail passive (cat 3 rvr175). A single failure will lead to AP disconnection without any significant out of trim condition.
Cat 3 dual means that A/C is fail operational. In case of single failure approach will continue as fail passive

55
Q

Minimum AP altitude in circling app

A

500 ft

56
Q

Safety valve setting

A

8.6 psi

57
Q

What is A/thr? What are its modes?

A

It’s a Flight Guidance function. It can be in speed/mach or in thrust mode

58
Q

Can you autoland in overweight?

A

No. With A319 you can up to 69t in exceptional circumstances

59
Q

What is the speed for windmill relight?

A

.78 or 300 kt

60
Q

Where do you find limitations for xwind in a narrow runway?

A

Fcom PRO SP 60. Dry is the same, from wet downwards they differ from normal runway

61
Q

Minimum AP height for a manual landing in Cat 2 or 3

A

80 ft

62
Q

What is the SRS speed target in OE?

A

V2 up to V2 + 15, using as a base the value detected at the go around mode engagement

63
Q

Minimum SRS V/s

A

120 ft/min

64
Q

Output of main generators

A

90 KVA of 3 phase 115/200 V 400 Hz power

65
Q

Output of emergency generator

A

5 KVA of 3 phase 115/200 V 400 Hz power

66
Q

Output of static inverter

A

DC power from Battery 1 into 1 KVA of single phase 115 V 400 Hz Ac power, that goes into AC ESS

67
Q

When does red arrow on glareshield comes on

A

It comes on in front of crew losing authority

68
Q

When does green CAPT or F/O light comes on?

A

They both flash if both pilots move sidesticks without taking priority.
When a pilot has taken priority with the pb and the other sidestick is not neutral,
the light in front of the flight crew with priority lights up

69
Q

What is VLS

A

Lowest selectable speed. A/thr will not let you go below that speed. In clean config, it is 1.28 VS.
VLS increases when speedbrakes are extended

70
Q

When do you need to switch the PTU off?

A

If OVHT, LO LVL or Low Air Pressure is detected in one system. You switch it off because otherwise you may overheat the ptu and you may also lose the other system

71
Q

Can you set Nav back up on rmp 3?

A

No. You use it only for comms

72
Q

Setting of safety valves

A

8.6 or -1 psi

73
Q

Operation of RAM AIR pb

A

If pushed on, and delta p is less than 1 psi, the system drives outflow valve to 50% if under automatic control. In manual mode it doesn’t move

74
Q

What does ditching pb close?

A

Outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet,
Avionics vent inlet and extract valve, pack flow control valve

75
Q

What happens in the smoke config of avionics ventilation?

A

If both blower and extract are ovrd, air cond system supplies cooling air, that is then exhausted overboard. Blower fan stops.

76
Q

Max alt to assist engine start for apu?

A

20000ft

77
Q

Apu for air conditioning limitations

A

Single pack 22500 ft
2 packs 15000 ft

78
Q

Apu restart limitat (emer elec)

A

25000 ft

79
Q

Apu start limits

A

After 3 consecutive start attempts, wait 60 min

80
Q

Turb penetration speed

A

BELOW 200
Ceo: 250
320 neo: 260
321 neo: 275
ABOVE 200
Ceo: 275/.76
320 neo: 280/.76
321neo : 305/0.76

81
Q

Srs limits

A

Minimum 120 ft/min. Max 18 deg (22.5 in WS)
V2 +10 normal TO. Memorized speed at engine out condition detection limited by V2+15
Go around: memorized speed at GA engagement limited by Vapp and VLS + 25 or VLS + 15 engine out

82
Q

What causes auto trim to freeze?

A

RA below 50 (100 for A321)
G force <0.5
HSP
Manual trim order

83
Q

Tcas in conf3 or full?

A

Perform a normal go around. But still make sure to stay out of the red section of vertical speed

84
Q

What is a windshear caution? And warning?

A

Caution is aural “monitor radar display”
Warning is Windshear ahead or Go around windshear ahead

85
Q

What is the minimun Visibility for take off, if rvr not reported?

A

400 m

86
Q

What happens in a wing or pylon leak?

A

Bleed valve on related side closes
Fault light comes on
X bleed valve closes
Apu bleed valve closes (left leak)

87
Q

When can you consider EIS DMC switching?

A

When invalid data is displayed on part of DUs. Refer to QRH

88
Q

What is the normal DMC configuration?

A

Dmc 1 supplies PFD/ND1 and ECAMS.
DMC 2 supplies pfd/nd2

89
Q

When do FD disappear? (And when do they reappear?)

A

Bank 45 (40)
Pitch +25 (+22)
Pitch -13 (-10)

COAS (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions