FCCO SOP Flashcards
When will an aircrew members AIRF turn red?
A) critical flight information has not been reviewed
B) non-critical flight information has not been reviewed by the 10th of the month
C) monthly or quarterly review is overdue
1) Failure to meet academic training requirements within 10 days of missed training.
2) ALSE expiration date has been reached.
3) No or expired DD 2992 on file.
Concerning aviation medicine, all aircrew members will review what to Army Regulations (AR)?
AR 40-8 and AR 40-501
Concerning the aeromedical program: ACM’s are individually responsible to complete the annual _________________________________.
A(an) ___________________ is required on assignment to the CAB.
A) Flight Duty Medical Exam (FDME)
B) new duty up-slip
What must aircrew members do after seeing any healthcare provider (civilian or military) other than a CAB FS or APA?
They must notify and be cleared by their assigned FS or APA prior to performing flight duties
The ATP authority for supported/attached ACMs is the _____________________________. Deviations will be at the discretion of the __________.
A) commander of the supporting unit
B) BN CDR
The 30-day extension authority is the ______________________.
ATP Commander
Supported RCMs assigned to operational positions outside of the Brigade can be designated FAC _. Exceptions will be authorized by the _____________.
A) 3
B) BDE CDR
NOTE: ACMs with less than 3 years in their initial operational assignments will have FAC designation administered IAW TC 3-04.11
Company/Troop RCMs will be designated FAC _. BN and BDE RCMs will be designated FAC _.
A) 1
B) 2
What tasks must go on the CTL (DA Form 7120-1)
Optional tasks must be listed on the 7120-1 with authorized modes and evaluation requirements, regardless of iterations. Mandatory tasks from the MTL in 2000/3000/4000/5000/6000 series must be listed if more than 1 iteration is required.
What regulations will aircrew selection be made IAW?
AR 95-1, TC 3-04.11, and the ATM. Additionally, all duties will be clearly designated on the DA Form 7120 by the ATP Commander.
In order to be a PC, the aircrew member must be…
A) Be certified in each crew station in which required to perform duties by an IP/SP
B) Be designated in writing on the DA Form 7120 by the ATP commander.
C) Complete the requirements of the PIC program in this SOP.
Who will select flight crews? Who will assist in the selection process?
A) Members of the chain of command, not below platoon leader level will select flight crews.
B) Unit instructors and safety officers will assist in the selection process.
All flights, D/N/NVG should have ____________________________________________________________________. When not available, ________________ may authorize day or IFR training flights without an NRCM but should include a third aviator to assist with airspace surveillance and clearing the aircraft. _____________________________________________________ meet the third crewmember requirement. FIs/SIs or IPs/SPs conducting NRCM training/evaluations may occupy a forward-facing passenger seat.
A) at least one NRCM in a crew station that is qualified and current in all mode(s) and task(s) to be performed
B) ATP Commanders
C) Non-rated crewmember flight instructors (FIs)/SIs or instructor pilots (IPs)/SPs conducting NRCM readiness level (RL) progression/evaluations
A minimum crew of 4 is required for what tasks? Who may serve as a fourth crew member and under what conditions?
A) When multi-ship operations utilizing combat free cruise formations are briefed or required.
B) When in-flight formation changes are briefed or anticipated.
C) During mission external load operations (minimum required for training is three ACMs), water bucket operations, hoist operations, or fast rope insertion and extraction system (FRIES)/special patrol insertion and extraction system (SPIES) operations.
D) Medical evacuation (MEDEVAC).
E) NOE (< 25’ AHO) (all mode of flights).
F) Contour (> 25’- 80’ AGL) (NVD only).
G) Moderate or greater (dust/snow/obscuration) DVE landings to an unimproved surface (all modes of flight).
For training and qualification, the SP/IP/SI/FI/unit trainer-evaluator (UT/E) may serve as the fourth crewmember or A qualified and task current aviator may be substituted for the additional NRCM when one is not available, but only as a last resort. An SI/FI conducting training/evaluation and the NRCM receiving training or evaluation meet the minimum crew requirement for internal unit sling-load training.
For H60 aircrews, mixing of WP or Green NVGs does not increase the risk. But what should be done?
It should be mentioned to the briefing officer, during the mission approval process
Individuals undergoing ___________, ______________, or ________________ training will be designated RL3.
qualification, refresher, or deficiency
IAW each MDS ATM, all ACMs will have a minimum of _________ of emergency procedure training annually that will be conducted in the simulator
3 hours
Crewmembers designated RL2 train in the mission and additional tasks _______________________. RCM designated RL2 may fly with a PC and perform all tasks in each mode of flight ______________________ _____________________________________. NRCM designated RL 2 may fly with ___________________________ ____________________________________.
A) selected by the commander
B) as authorized on the CTL previously evaluated as “S” (satisfactory) by an IP/SP
C) a RL 1 flight engineer (FE)/crew chief (CE) and perform all tasks in each mode of flight as authorized on the CTL previously evaluated as “S” (satisfactory) by an IP/SP/FI/SI
What are the requirements for someone to be designated RL1 after transferring from another unit?
There are two ways:
A) They must have arrived from a similar unit where they had been performing all the 2000/3000 tasks assigned by that unit, and had Commander’s Evaluation / records review and LAO upon arrival.
B) They may be progressed to RL1 after demonstrating proficiency during a PFE in which all 2000 series tasks are evaluated.
After either method, the commander will complete the Commander’s Task List DA Form 7120-R (CTL), prorating the hours and iterations for the remainder of the semi-annual period. The DA Form 7120-R will contain all continuation training requirements.
RL1 crew members must complete what in regards to their CTL every annual and semi annual period?
RL1 crewmembers must complete all flight hours, task iterations, flight evaluations, and any other requirements the commander lists on the CTL. Crewmembers will be evaluated from each crew station they are authorized to fly in accordance with the ATM and CTL.
Can aided and unaided aircraft be mixed in the same formation?
No unless it is needed in an urban environment
What is the SOP internal lighting configuration?
A) Instrument lighting should be adjusted to the lowest usable intensity that will allow unaided viewing.
B) Map lights should be positioned to provide additional lighting on those areas that are not adequately illuminated.
C) Armor plates and glare shields should be extended to reduce internal glare and minimize detection.
What is supplemental lighting? What may it consist of? Do all of these devices meet the flashlight requirement of IAW AR 95-1?
A) Supplemental lighting is defined as additional interior lighting.
B) It may consist of “lip lights”, “finger lights”, flashlights with filters and other similar devices.
C) Lip lights and finger lights do not fulfill the flashlight requirement IAW AR 95-1.
Can you use non-NVG compatible lights in the aircraft?
Non-NVG compatible lights and flashlights with red or white light will only in the cargo/passenger compartments at the discretion of the PC. Red and white lights may be used during ground operations.
ACMs will fly a minimum of _______ unaided night flight per semi-annual period. Not recommended below ___________ except for takeoff and landing. NVG qualified ACM’s should have NVG readily available during night unaided training
A) 1 hour
B) 200’AHO
DVE landings, using WP with position lights bright and/or anti-collision lights “ON”, is identified as a potential hazard. To mitigate this…..
ACMs should consider turning position lights from bright to low(dim) and lower anti-collision light “OFF” (as applicable), prior to landing in DVE conditions. Pilots will weigh the risk based on other aircraft in the flight/area. After completion of the task/DVE training, aircraft light will be set based on local procedures and AR 95-1.
For no-notice evaluations, ACMs will be notified no earlier than ________ and no later than _______ prior to the flight evaluation.
A) 24 hours
B) 1 hour
Each crewmember will receive, at a minimum, ______________ no-notice evaluation per year, preferably _______________________. These evaluations may be given in what three formats?
A) one
B) outside of their APART period
C) Oral, written, or hands-on
What is the increased recovery deck height for any tasks that require the aircraft to be established in an autorotative descent (i.e. RPM Check – Power on)?
1000ft AGL
Night MTFs are not routine. Who is the approval authority for night MTFs and what is the limitation put in place for RED illumination conditions?
A) First O-5 in the chain of command
B) Will remain inside the traffic pattern
What two MTF tasks increase the risk to HIGH at night?
Vibes check and auto RPM check
What is the minimum uniform for ground runs (ie. Engine start but no taxi/take-off)?
Flight uniform, flight helmet, and gloves
For single pilot maintenance groung run operations (main engine starts), what is the requirement?
A) A qualified technical observer must occupy the other crew station (access to flight controls)
B) MTP will brief NRCM utilizing the “maintenance ground run with non-rated occupant brief” located in the annex of this SOP
Who is a “qualified technical observer” concerning MX ground run operations?
Technical observers are NRCMs who are integrated into the unit ATP. NRCMs who are authorized to occupy a crew station with access to the flight controls during ground runs will have “NRCM authorized to perform duties as a technical observer in a crew station with access to flight controls during ground run operations” on their DA Form 7120-3
Who are authorized to operate the APU regardless of seat designation unless otherwise restricted by the commander?
RL1 and RL2 aviators
What are the IFR training minimums and guidelines?
A) A minimum of 3 hours semi-annually of Hood, Weather, or SFTS “W” time is required for each aviator, of which 1.5 hours will be flown in the aircraft.
B) Crews are encouraged to end on-post and SFTS missions with an IIMC recovery.
C) Units are encouraged to execute formation IIMC breakup/recovery procedures in training.
What flights must include detailed IIMC procedures? What must those briefs include?
A) All Multi Ship Briefs must include detailed IIMC procedures utilizing the considerations below.
B) The brief will include, type of IIMC break up (unrestrictive, restrictive) base altitudes for route segments, recover airfield/LZ, associated frequency, and approach to be flown. Additionally, aircrews will incorporate the policies and procedures IAW the FC APG
Anytime the visibility and/or ceiling approach minimum briefed weather conditions, the PC or AMC will consider what options?
A) reversing course
B) altering the route to clearer conditions
C) landing at the nearest suitable area
D) initiating an IFR flight plan
E) or aborting the mission
What are some considerations when developing the IIMC plan?
A) Aircraft performance and rate of climb limitations. Account for all types of aircraft in the flight, status of De-Ice equipment, ETFs, etc.
B) Obstacles when determining base heading (Terrain, Enemy, PAAs, EAs, etc.).
C) Number of aircraft, formation type and break-up procedure to provide aircraft separation.
D) Recovery facilities and IFR infrastructure available, NAVAIDs, RADAR, etc.
E) Communications procedures during the emergency.
What is an unrestrictive IIMC break up plan?
An unrestrictive break up plan is used when there is sufficient room to spread aircraft laterally and separation is achieved by:
A) Heading change of +/-10deg X chalk position to the clear side
B) +/- 500 feet stack up or down
What is a restrictive IIMC break up plan?
A restrictive IIMC break up plan is used when terrain does not allow aircraft to separate to the left or right so they must deconflict by airspeed:
A) -10 KIAS for subsequent chalks
B) +/- 500 feet stack up or down
In the event that a multi ship formation encounters IFR conditions and one or more aircraft goes IIMC, who makes the call and squawks 7700?
The lead IIMC aircraft
What are the recovery procedures for a flight when more than one aircraft goes IIMC?
A) Aircraft control and disciplined procedures are the priority in the initial stage of IIMC. Once all IIMC aircraft have arrived at their assigned altitude and/or airspeed (speed separation type recovery) they will check-in with flight lead with call sign, altitude, airspeed and fuel state in chalk order. “1-2, is 6500’, at 100 kts. with 1+20 of fuel”
B) Once the flight has vertical separation, flight lead will prioritize and coordinate aircraft moving to the recovery airfield or LZ. All other aircraft maintain radio discipline and follow ATC and Flight lead/ AMC instructions. If published procedures are available, the flight proceeds IAW those procedures. If published procedures are not available, lead makes the initial request to ATC for recovery.
FMAA can be delegated down to the Platoon Leader level if what conditions are met?
A) Scheduled flight is occurring within the platoon leaders same company ATP.
B) The flight remains within the local flight area.
C) The platoon leader has completed MBO/FMAA academics.
D) The AC for the flight is an instructor operator.
If a crew member changes after the mission approval process has been conducted, what must be done? What about if it is the PC or AMC?
A) If a crew member changes after mission approval has been conducted PC’s, AC’s, AMCs will notify the MBO and assess the risk. If the risk has increased, re-approval is required.
B) If the PC or AMC has changed, the RCOP will be re-briefed and approved.
What is the normal command and risk level relationship?
A) First General Officer in the chain of command: Extremely High Risk Missions.
B) Brigade Commander High Risk Missions.
C) BN Commander: Moderate Risk Missions.
D) Company/Troop Commander: Low Risk Missions.
E) Platoon Leaders: Ground run maintenance operational checks (MOC) and APU operations or IAW para 2-19(3) above.
If VOCO approval is received for a mission, how must it be annotated?
A) If an approval authority cannot be physically present to sign the R-COP, then the term “VOCO” will be entered in the appropriate block, with an entry made in the mission log that a VOCO was received for the mission.
B) Enter the rank, name, and command authority level of the VOCO approval, along with the date-time group.
What must Aircrew Members complete prior to their first flight after getting stationed at a new unit?
A) AIRF “green”
B) ACM will receive a new duty DD 2992, all signatures required
C) Copies of the DD 2992 will be given to BN/SQ flight operations and CO/TRP standardization
D) ACMs CTL will be initiated and signed by both the commander and the crewmember
E) ACM will receive ALSE brief and equipment
F) Aircrew Orientation Course (AOC). All ACMs assigned or attached to 4th CAB must complete a Fort Carson AOC, prior to RL1. If the ACM is assigned while deployed, the AOC is not required until redeployment to home-station.
Crew members will ensure that their ALSE is turned into the shop NLT __________ prior to it’s expiration
5 days
How frequently should ALSS Training be conducted?
Semi annually or as needed and directed by the units ASO and ALSO as part of the unit’s academic training plan.
When seated in a crew seat, the seat belts will be utilized, not a personal restraint harness (ie. Monkey-tail) unless the mission requires that it be worn. What are such missions?
Slings, Enroute casualty care, speed-balls, hoist, Bambi buckets, rappelling, etc.
When issued, where will the blood chit and combat gauze be placed?
In the left side of flight vest inside the medic pallet
What do full mission profile flights (FMP) mean?
Full mission profile (FMP) missions will be conducted in full body armor. Commanders should consider body armor for all non-FMP flights. Crewmembers must learn to configure their equipment to meet their mission. Crewmember should also qualify with their assigned weapon utilizing their flight equipment.
What is a HIRTA? What are aviators supposed to do concerning them?
A) A HIRTA is a High Intensity Radio Transmission Area.
B) 1) Receive a HIRTA brief from the BN S2 during in-processing. Comply with HIRTA procedures specified in this SOP.
2)Comply with this section of the SOP and local regulatory requirements when suspected EMI is encountered during flight and report such encounters to the commander and Aviation Safety Officer.
What rule of thumb will be used when positive identification of a target is not confirmed.
A) Inform the next higher chain of command.
B) Verify present position, target position, and navigation accuracy (ask questions).
C) Have second aircraft attempt to identify and confirm target.
D) Engage only if the tactical situation is critical to friendly elements directly threatened.
What will all landing plan diagrams include?
A) No-fire areas
B) Friendly troop locations
C) Weapons engagement fans.
These control measures must consider the location of friendly forces and planned landing formation.
What are the weather requirements for a CRBN Flight Evaluation?
Flight evaluations will only be conducted in VMC protective equipment may be worn provided the wet bulb temperature is below 75 deg F.
What is the minimum equipment required for a CBRN evaluation?
The protective mask is the minimum equipment required for training/evaluation; however, MOPP 4 is authorized provided all appropriate aviation approved clothing is worn under the CBRN equipment.
Are you allowed to perform simulated EPs in the aircraft during a CBRN evaluation?
No
Are you allowed to conduct dual pilot CBRN operations for training?
No
Prior to unit deployment to areas where the weather and terrain are significantly different than that in the local flying area, commanders must implement what measures? What about before a deployment?
A) Commanders must implement well organized training programs that provide the appropriate training for participating flight crews.
B) Academic, SFTS (T-BOS, TFPS, LCT, etc.), and flight training should be conducted prior to deployment.
