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FC32 Quiz Flashcards

Fully understand cold weather ops, low visibility ops & engine start operations

1
Q

1.After engine start, one of the engine generator OFF lights remains illuminated without any corresponding EICAS message. What should the crew do?
a.It is not normal. Inform ground engineer and seek maintenance assistance.
b.The switch may be loose and one reset is allowed.
c.Call for the [] ELEC GEN OFF __ checklist followed by Minimum Equipment List.

A

a.It is not normal. Inform ground engineer and seek maintenance assistance.

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2
Q

2.During engines start, no light up was observed.
a.Alert the engineer and ATC for a crossbreed start.
b.Recall action, accomplish checklist. No Dispatch.
c.Alert the engineer for Manual Override start of the Left Engine.

A

b.Recall action, accomplish checklist. No Dispatch.

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3
Q
  1. During ground start, AUTOSTART monitors which of the following and will correct the start automatically?
    a.No EGT rise.
    b.Loss of both starters per engine.
    c.Hot start.
    d.All of the above.
    e.Only (a) and (c).
A

e.Only (a) and (c).

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4
Q
  1. What are the ground and inflight start EGT limits?
    a.700 °C and 825 °C.
    b.750 °C and 825 °C.
    c.700 °C and 900 °C
A

c.700 °C and 900 °C

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5
Q
  1. When starting engine on ground with APU unserviceable, how many sources of ground power is/are required?
    a.Minimum One.
    b.Minimum Two.
    c.All Three.
A

b.Minimum Two.

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6
Q
  1. When the APU is inoperative, after starting one engine on ground power, how is the start on the second engine done?
    a.Normal Start.
    b.Ground Power Assist.
    c.Cross-bleed Start.
A

a.Normal Start.

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7
Q
  1. The autostart system will not make a 2nd attempt for?
    a.No N1 Rotation.
    b.Hot Start.
    c.Hung Start.
A

a.No N1 Rotation.

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8
Q
  1. Which electrical power is the preferred for engine starts ?
    a.Battery.
    b.APU.
    c.External Power.
A

b.APU.

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9
Q
  1. Under what circumstances is thin frost acceptable?
    a.Only if it is only the fuselage of the aircraft.
    b.Only on the upper surfaces of the flight controls.
    c.Only on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear.
    d.Anywhere other than the lower wing surfaces.
A

c.Only on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear.

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10
Q
  1. In icing condition, when should crew select the engine anti-ice to on?
    a.Engine Anti-Ice is only available inflight.
    b.Soon after the respective engine is RUNNING.
    c.The Engine Anti-Ice is already selected to AUTO, thus no further action is required.
    d. Only when the precipitation is moderate to heavy.
A

b.Soon after the respective engine is RUNNING.

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11
Q
  1. Before takeoff, when should a contamination check be accomplished?
    a.Prior to pushback.
    b.Within 5 minutes prior to takeoff.
    c.1 minute prior to engaging TOGA.
A

b.Within 5 minutes prior to takeoff.

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12
Q
  1. Under what condition/s should a takeoff be preceded by a static engine run-up?
    a.When OAT is 3ºC or below.
    b.When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3ºC or below.
    c.When OAT is between 3ºC and 10ºC and engine anti-ice is required.
A

b.When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3ºC or below.

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13
Q
  1. Takeoff is not allowed when:
    a.When ice formation and snow build up is seen on the wings.
    b.Within hold-over time with visible moisture.
    c.In freezing rain or fog, heavy snow, hail or ice pellets.
    d.All of the above.
    e.Only (a) and (c).
A

e.Only (a) and (c).

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14
Q
  1. When the aircraft is de-iced/anti-iced at a remote bay just prior to takeoff, CAAS requires the Commander to record the following in the Technical Log.
    a.Type of fluid used
    b.Fluid/water ratio
    c.Start time of final fluid application
    d.All of the above
A

d.All of the above

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15
Q
  1. Where is the “Adverse Weather – Cold Weather Operations” chapter located?
    a.FSI
    b.SIA OPERATIONS MANUAL
    c.BOEING 787 FCOM Volume 1
A

c.BOEING 787 FCOM Volume 1

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16
Q
  1. An airport runway glideslope is published as 3.3 degrees. What are the considerations for an AUTOLAND?
    a.AUTOLAND is NOT allowed for glideslope angles greater than 3.25 degrees.
    b.Limited to CAT 1 conditions only.
    c.No limits since AUTOLAND limits are enhanced on the B787-10.
A

a.AUTOLAND is NOT allowed for glideslope angles greater than 3.25 degrees.

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17
Q
  1. During a CAT II approach, the autobrakes unlatched and was unable to engage further. What should the crew do?
    a.Continue the approach since AUTOLAND can be continued without AUTOBRAKES in a CAT II approach.
    b.Discontinue the approach since AUTOBRAKES are necessary for any Low Vis approach.
    c.Add 50 ft to the DH and recalculate the landing distance for AUTOBRAKES inoperative.
A

a.Continue the approach since AUTOLAND can be continued without AUTOBRAKES in a CAT II approach.

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18
Q

3.During a CAT III approach the autopilot disengages below the ALERT HEIGHT.
a.The landing may be completed if suitable visual reference is established.
b.Discontinue the approach since AUTOLAND is not possible.
c.Re-engage the AUTOPILOT and continue the approach..

A

b.Discontinue the approach since AUTOLAND is not possible.

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19
Q
  1. During a CAT III approach and below ALERT HEIGHT, an engine failed with no change to AUTOLAND status. What should be the crew response?
    a.PM calls out “ENGINE FAILURE” and PF shall execute a go-around.
    b.PM continues to monitor the AUTOLAND status and PF continues with the landing in AUTOLAND mode.
    c.PF disconnects the AUTOPILOT and executes a manual landing after establishing distinct runway visual cues.
    d.PM should be assertive with the support process and insist the PF execute a go-around.
A

b.PM continues to monitor the AUTOLAND status and PF continues with the landing in AUTOLAND mode.

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20
Q
  1. Destination airport declares low visibility operations in place due to reducing visibility. In addition, the ATIS states that PAPI are on test.
    a.Delay the approach until weather improves to CAT I condition or divert to an alternate airport.
    b.Limited to CAT II operations only.
    c.PAPI or VASI are not required for Low Vis Ops.
    d.Inform ATC to ensure the PAPI are working before commencing a Low Vis approach.
A

c.PAPI or VASI are not required for Low Vis Ops.

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21
Q
  1. The Runway Visual Range reported for the landing runway is 250 m for all three zones. Which is the most suitable approach category for this condition?
    a.Only CAT III approach.
    b.Either CAT II or CAT III approach.
    c.Either CAT I, II or III approach.
A

a.Only CAT III approach.

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22
Q

7.CAT II/III approaches shall not commence beyond the outer marker if the controlling RVR falls below the landing minima.
a. All 3 RVR Zones (TDZ, Mid & Rollout).
b. Only the TDZ RVR. The rollout RVR is only an advisory.
c. Both the TDZ and Mid RVR. The rollout RVR is only an advisory.

A

a. All 3 RVR Zones (TDZ, Mid & Rollout).

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23
Q

1.After engines are started, EICAS message [] ENG START CUTOUT L, R annunciates.
a.The respective engine start valve is stuck in the open position.
b.The start switch failed to return to NORM position.
c.A fault is detected in the starter motor.
d.Bleed air has failed to maintain the duct pressure.

A

b.The start switch failed to return to NORM position.

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24
Q
  1. During engine start, ground crew alerts you of tailpipe fire.
    a.Abort the start and call for [] FIRE ENG L, R checklist.
    b.Allow the engine start to continue and see if the fire extinguishes.
    c.Call for the Fire Eng Tailpipe L, R checklist.
    d.Carry out the [] FIRE ENG L, R checklist by recall.
A

c.Call for the Fire Eng Tailpipe L, R checklist.

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25
Q
  1. During engine start, the following anomaly should be recorded in the technical log.
    a.The cause of the first unsuccessful start even if the second start was successful.
    b.For a Hot Start, the peak EGT.
    c.For Hung/Stalled Start, the presence of tailwind and N2 RPM where the engine stagnates.
    d.All of the above.
A

d.All of the above.

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26
Q
  1. When should the crew announce “engine running”?
    a.After 5 minutes of initiating the Start.
    b.When the red EGT start limit indication disappears from both EGT gauges.
    c.When the green idle target indication lines disappear & the green indication “RUNNING” appear momentarily.
A

c.When the green idle target indication lines disappear & the green indication “RUNNING” appear momentarily.

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27
Q
  1. An engine start is aborted by recall, for the following:
    a.When the ground crew alerts the crew of tailpipe fire.
    b.When EICAS message [] ENG AUTOSTART L, R appears.
    c.When the first start was unsuccessful and no EICAS message was annunciated.
A

b.When EICAS message [] ENG AUTOSTART L, R appears.

28
Q
  1. The autostart system will make a maximum of ? start attempts if a Hot Start or Hung Start is detected?
    a.1
    b.2
    c.3
A

b.2

29
Q
  1. Does the EEC limit the number of engine start attempts?
    a.There is no limit.
    b.No limit on the number of ground starts and limited to two starts inflight.
    c.Two starts using AUTOSTART on ground and no limit for inflight start.
    d.Limited to two starts for ground and inflight starts.
A

c.Two starts using AUTOSTART on ground and no limit for inflight start.

30
Q
  1. Do not attempt to start both engines at the same time if OAT is above?
    a.There is no limit.
    b.Above 35 degree C.
    c.Above 40 degree C.
A

c.Above 40 degree C.

31
Q
  1. When does Holdover Time (HOT) begins?
    a. When the initial application of the de-icing/anti-icing commences.
    b. After the final application of the de-icing/anti-icing completed.
    c. When the final application of the de-icing/anti-icing commences.
A

c. When the final application of the de-icing/anti-icing commences.

32
Q
  1. Icing conditions on ground is deemed to exist when OAT is below 10°C, with precipitation present or …..
    a.Windy or gusty condition.
    b.Ice, snow, slush or standing water present on ramps, taxiway and runway.
    c.Setting higher than normal idle power.
A

b.Ice, snow, slush or standing water present on ramps, taxiway and runway.

33
Q
  1. Can Assumed Temperature Method (Reduced Thrust) be used for Takeoff after de-icing & anti-icing has been carried out?
    a.Yes.
    b.No.
    c.Only after the crew ensure the aircraft is clean of contaminants.
A

b.No.

34
Q
  1. An approach and landing was successfully accomplished in icing condition. The runway and taxiways are covered in snow and slush, mixed with mud. What should be considered in such circumstances?
    a.Vacate the runway expeditiously and taxi quickly to ensure minimum exposure time.
    b.After exiting the runway, request for towing assistance.
    c.Taxi carefully and be aware of skid during turns. Delay the flap retraction until visual inspection are done by the ground engineer.
A

c.Taxi carefully and be aware of skid during turns. Delay the flap retraction until visual inspection are done by the ground engineer.

35
Q
  1. The Commander’s responsibility to ensure compliance with the “clean aircraft” concept prior to takeoff includes the following:
    a.Pre-flight external visual checks and post De-/Anti-Icing checks.
    b.Before Takeoff contamination check.
    c.Both of the above.
A

c.Both of the above.

36
Q
  1. When is an “altitude correction due to cold temperature” NOT required ?
    a.Under radar vectors by ATC.
    b.When maintaining ATC assigned Flight Level.
    c.When the airport reported temperature is above 0 °C or the airport temperature is at or above the minimum published temperature required for the procedure being flown.
    d.All of the Above.
A

d.All of the Above.

37
Q
  1. For an undiluted Type IV fluid, the maximum Holdover Time at -10°C with moderate snow is:
    a.2h 45min.
    b.2h 20min.
    c.1h 10min.

(there is an image for this, refer to slides)

A

c.1h 10min.

38
Q
  1. CAT II/III approaches shall not commence if the controlling RVR falls below the landing minima. For CAT II approach, which zone RVRs are required?
    a. TDZ and Rollout RVR.
    b. Only the TDZ RVR. The Rollout RVR is only an advisory.
    c. Both the TDZ and Mid RVR. The Rollout RVR is only an advisory.
A

b. Only the TDZ RVR. The Rollout RVR is only an advisory.

39
Q
  1. During pre-flight the crew noticed that the AUTOLAND recency for the aircraft has lapsed. What crew actions are required?
    a.Report to the engineer and annotate in the e-Logbook.
    b.Check the e-Logbook for any outstanding unresolved defects pertaining to Autoland. If there are no defect, conduct an Autoland in CAT I or better condition and annotate in the e-Logbook ‘AUTOLAND PERFORMED SUCCESSFULLY’.
    c.Report in the Voyage Record and continue to operate a Low Vis approach at the destination airport.
A

b.Check the e-Logbook for any outstanding unresolved defects pertaining to Autoland. If there are no defect, conduct an Autoland in CAT I or better condition and annotate in the e-Logbook ‘AUTOLAND PERFORMED SUCCESSFULLY’.

40
Q
  1. A successful AUTOLAND must be accomplished at least once in the preceding ?? days for the aircraft to be operational in actual CAT II conditions.
    a.38 days.
    b.30 days
    c.28 days.
A

c.28 days.

41
Q
  1. When the runway centreline lights transition to continuous red, how much of the runway length is left?
    a.900 m / 3,000 ft.
    b.600 m / 2,000 ft.
    c.300 m / 1,000 ft.
A

c.300 m / 1,000 ft.

42
Q
  1. During a CAT II approach, the AUTOLAND status annunciation (ASA) changed from LAND 3 to LAND 2 while descending below 1000 ft AAL. Can the approach be continued?
    a.No. The approach has to be discontinued.
    b.Indicates a possible deterioration that would affect the autoland. Autopilot must be disconnected when visual cues are available for a manual landing.
    c.Yes. The approach can be continued.
A

c.Yes. The approach can be continued.

43
Q
  1. Where is the aircraft system requirement list for CAT II/III approaches found?.
    a.OPS TCC.
    b.BOEING 787 FCOM Volume 1.
    c.B787 SQ INFORMATION (SQI).
A

c.B787 SQ INFORMATION (SQI).

44
Q
  1. During approach and below 1000 ft AAL, a go-around must be initiated when …
    a.One of the front display unit blanks.
    b.When the AUTOLAND status annunciation changes from LAND 3 to LAND 2 in CAT IIIA approach.
    c.The rate of descent exceeds 1000 ft per min.
A

c.The rate of descent exceeds 1000 ft per min.

45
Q

1.Autostart system does not take corrective action (i.e. attempts a 2nd Start) for the following Non-Normal start conditions:
a.Hot Start & Hung Start
b.No EGT & Compressor Stall
c.No Oil Pressure

A

c.No Oil Pressure

46
Q
  1. Where can the Aborted Engine Start L, R checklist be found?
    a.BOEING 787 FCOM Volume 1 – Supplementary Procedures.
    b.BOEING 787 FCOM Volume 2 – Chapter 7 – Engines, APU.
    c.Electronic Checklist.
A

c.Electronic Checklist.

47
Q
  1. The aircraft is parked at remote bay. With the APU inoperative but external power is available.
    a.Start both engines simultaneously at the bay.
    b.Start one engine at the bay and after pushback, request for ATC approval to cross-bleed start the second engine.
    c.Start one engine at the bay. After start, the engine generator is adequate to supply electrical power to start the second engine.
A

c.Start one engine at the bay. After start, the engine generator is adequate to supply electrical power to start the second engine.

48
Q
  1. During an engine start on the ground, when does the autostart sequence begin?
    a.Soon after start selector is rotated to START and Fuel Control Switch is positioned to RUN.
    b.Soon after the engine reaches max motoring.
    c.Autostart is triggered by the Fuel Control Switch.
    d.Autostart is triggered only when all engine parameters are within limit.
A

a.Soon after start selector is rotated to START and Fuel Control Switch is positioned to RUN.

49
Q
  1. When is simultaneous engine start allowed?
    a.APU is running & both APU starter generators are operational.
    b.Only FWD L & R External Power is selected ON.
    c.Both FWD L & R and AFT External Power are selected ON.
A

a.APU is running & both APU starter generators are operational.

50
Q
  1. With APU inoperative and all three External Power are available.
    a.Starting the Right engine first is preferred to reduce load-shedding.
    b.Simultaneous engine start is preferred.
    c.Left engine should be started first.
A

a.Starting the Right engine first is preferred to reduce load-shedding.

51
Q
  1. During engine start, EICAS message [] ENG STARTERS L appears. After aborting the start on the left engine, what is next course of action?
    a.Inform the ground engineer and request ATC approval for a cross-bleed start.
    b.Inform ground engineer and ATC to return to the parking bay for maintenance. No Dispatch.
    c.Inform the ground engineer to prepare for a Manual Override start for the Left Engine.
A

b.Inform ground engineer and ATC to return to the parking bay for maintenance. No Dispatch.

52
Q
  1. After Start procedure. The PF shall wait for “__________” lights to extinguish before shutting down APU?
    a.FUEL PUMPS PRESSURE lights.
    b.GEN CTRL OFF lights.
    c.HYDRAULIC PRESSURE FAULT lights.
A

b.GEN CTRL OFF lights.

53
Q
  1. The aircraft lower wing surface has a light coating of frost. What is the maximum thickness (of contamination) allowed for takeoff?
    a.1/8 inch (3mm).
    b.1/8 mm.
    c.1/8 cm.
A

a.1/8 inch (3mm).

54
Q
  1. Where is the complete list of De-Icing fluid & guidance on Holdover Time (HOT) found?
    a.BOEING 787 FCOM Volume 1.
    b.QRH.
    c.FSI.
A

c.FSI.

55
Q
  1. Under what circumstances is takeoff not allowed?
    a.Within the Holdover Times and in icing conditions.
    b.When all critical surfaces are clean of frost, ice or snow.
    c.In freezing rain, heavy snow or when in conditions of hail or ice/snow pellets.
A

c.In freezing rain, heavy snow or when in conditions of hail or ice/snow pellets.

56
Q
  1. When does the Holdover Time (HOT) begin?
    a.When the Post De-/anti-icing Check has been completed.
    b.When the application of the fluid is complete.
    c. When the final application of the fluid commences.
A

c. When the final application of the fluid commences.

57
Q
  1. After engine start, crew noticed that the oil temperature is 35°C. Can the takeoff be accomplished?
    a.It is in the normal range and thus takeoff is allowed.
    b.If there is no EICAS annunciation, it is allowed.
    c.Oil temperature must be above the AMBER range or above 50°C for takeoff.
A

c.Oil temperature must be above the AMBER range or above 50°C for takeoff.

58
Q
  1. Due to icing condition, crew selects engine anti-ice to ON after engine start. However, the EAI did not appear on the N1 gauge. What action should be taken, if any?
    a.Verify with ground crew that the area behind the aircraft is clear, then increase thrust to no more than 10% above IDLE until EAI appears.
    b.Engine Anti-Ice is rendered faulty and requires rectification by engineering
    c.Increase thrust to 55 % N1 for 20 seconds for the EAI to appear.
A

a.Verify with ground crew that the area behind the aircraft is clear, then increase thrust to no more than 10% above IDLE until EAI appears.

59
Q
  1. The complete station list of de-icing/anti-icing fluids can be found in the FSI. However, what should the crew do when the Type IV fluid cannot be positively determined?
    a.Insist on the details and examine the components of the fluid to determine the type.
    b.Offload cargo by 10 % to ensure a safety buffer.
    c.Use the holdover time indicated for SAE Type IV fluids.
A

c.Use the holdover time indicated for SAE Type IV fluids.

60
Q
  1. After landing & vacating the runway, the PM informs ATC that the aircraft is clear of runway when …
    a.The taxiway centerline lights alternate green and yellow.
    b.Advised by ground control.
    c.Clear of the active runway and ILS critical/sensitive area.
A

c.Clear of the active runway and ILS critical/sensitive area.

61
Q
  1. Where is the complete list of company’s CAT II/III approved airports located?
    a.BOEING FCOM Volume 1.
    b.FSI.
    c.B787 SQ INFORMATION (SQI).
    d.MEL.
A

c.B787 SQ INFORMATION (SQI).

62
Q
  1. A low visibility takeoff is defined as … ?
    a.A takeoff when the Runway Visual Range (RVR) is less than 400 m.
    b.A takeoff when the Runway Visual Range (RVR) is less than 800 m.
    c.A takeoff when the Runway Visual Range (RVR) is more than 400 m.
A

a.A takeoff when the Runway Visual Range (RVR) is less than 400 m.

63
Q
  1. During a CAT II/III approach, if visual references are lost after touchdown:
    a.A go-around should be attempted provided the thrust reversers are not activated.
    b.A go-around should not be attempted. The rollout should be continued with the autopilot in ROLLOUT mode.
A

b.A go-around should not be attempted. The rollout should be continued with the autopilot in ROLLOUT mode.

64
Q
  1. Only pilots who have completed Low Visibility Operations training are permitted to takeoff when the RVR is less than 400 m.
    a.The Company’s minima of 150 m regardless of the published minima in the Jeppesen Airport charts.
    b.The higher of the Company’s minima of 150 m or the published minima in the Jeppesen Airport charts.
    c.The higher of the Company’s minima of 200 m or the published minima in the Jeppesen Airport charts.
A

b.The higher of the Company’s minima of 150 m or the published minima in the Jeppesen Airport charts.

65
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are correct?
    a.For those approved airports that do not publish the minima, the Company’s minima shall be used.
    b.For those approved airports that do publish the minima, the higher of the Company’s minima or the published minima shall be used.
    c.Both (a) & (b)
A

c.Both (a) & (b)

66
Q
  1. During a low vis approach, ATC reports braking action as poor in the rollout zone of the runway. Is there any concern for the crew?
    a.Select the AUTOBRAKES to MAX and continue the approach.
    b.No CAT III approach allowed.
    c.Recalculate the landing distance to determine whether stopping can be assured within the first two thirds of the runway.
    d.No landing or takeoff is permitted when any zone of the runway braking action is reported is reported to be poor.
A

d.No landing or takeoff is permitted when any zone of the runway braking action is reported is reported to be poor.

SIA - Personal (6 decks)

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