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A FNP Boards Leik - Crowe > fast fact leik > Flashcards

fast fact leik Flashcards

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Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

Uterine involution is when the

A

uterus contracts and shinrks in size until it returns to its prepreganancy state - process takes 6 weeks

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2
Q

A Navajo woman has an appointment for a follow-up visit, but she does not show up for the appointment. The most common cause for Navajo patients to skip health visits and follow-up visits is

A

lack of transportation

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3
Q

Sensitivity is defined as the

A

ability of a test to detect a person who has the disease

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4
Q

specificity is defined as the ability of a test to detect a person who is

A

healthy or without the disease

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5
Q

cohort study does what

A

follows a group of people who share some common characterstics to observe the development of disease over time.

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6
Q

trauma to kiesselbachs plexus will result in an

A

anterior nose bleed

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7
Q

Alpha thalassemia is more common among

A

Southeast asians (filipinos)

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8
Q

Beta thalassemia is more common in

A

mediterranean people

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9
Q

Diabetic retinopathy: shows

A

neorvascularaiaztion , cotton wool spots, micro aneurysms

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10
Q

HTN retinopathy shows

A

AV nicking, silver and copper wire arterioles

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11
Q

pencillin

A

amoxicillin, pencillin VK

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12
Q

Macrolides are

A

erythromycin, azithromycin (Z-pak) , clarithromycin (biaxin)

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13
Q

cephalosporins

A

1st generation Keflex
2 nd is cefaclor, ceftin, cefzi
3rd rocephin, supra, omnicef

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14
Q

quinolones

A

cipro and ofloxacin

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15
Q

quinolones with gram positive coverage are

A

levofloxacin (levaquin), moxiflocacin (avelox)

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16
Q

Sulfa meds

A

trimethoprim - sulfamethoxazole (bactrim, septra), nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)

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17
Q

Tetracyclines are

A

tetracycline, doxy, minocycline

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18
Q

Cox-2 inhibitor

A

celebrex

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19
Q

Category B drugs are allowed for pregnant or lactating women.

A

example: For pain relief, pick acetaminophen (Tylenol) instead of NSAIDs such as ibuprofen (Advil) or naproxen (Aleve, Anaprox). Avoid nitrofurantoin and sulfa drugs during the third trimester (these increase risk of hyperbilirubinemia).

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20
Q

The preferred treatment for cutaneous anthrax is

A

ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally twice a day for 60 days or 8 weeks. If the patient is allergic to ciprofloxacin, use doxycycline 100 mg twice a day. Cutaneous anthrax is not contagious; it comes from touching fur or animal skins that are contaminated with anthrax spores.

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21
Q

The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends that breastfed infants should be started on

A

Vitamin D during the first few days of life, then at age 4 mothsn

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22
Q

at age 6 months a child should be able to

A

sit w/o support, roll over from font to back, then from back to front, transfer object from hand to hand, use raking, grasp and babble

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23
Q

Leukocoria (white color) is noted on one eye while checking for the red reflex. Rule out

A

retinoblastoma of the eye, which is a malignant tumor of the retina.

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24
Q

If a small child expresses a desire to marry a parent of the opposite sex, the child is in the

A

oedipal stage (Freud) The child’s age is about 5 to 6 years (preschool to kindergarten).

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25
Q

When performing the Mini-Mental State Exam, when the NP is asking about “proverbs,” the nurse is assessing the patient’s ability to understand

A

abstract concepts

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26
Q

hemoglobin
Males
Females

A

M - 13.0-17.5
Female 12.0-16

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27
Q

Hematocrit
M
F

A

Males - 40-50 %
Females - 36- 45%

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28
Q

MCV

A

80-100 fl

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29
Q

RDW . 14.5

A
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30
Q

platelet count

A

<150,000

31
Q

total WBC

A

4,500- 11,000

32
Q

neutrophils

A

555 - 77 % increase means bacterial infection

33
Q

bands form (immature WBC

A

.5% severe bacterail infection - also called shift to the left

34
Q

eosinophils

A

> 3% increased means allergies or parasitic disease , cancer

35
Q

TSH levels

A

> 5.0 hypothyroidism
<0.4 hyperthyroidism

36
Q

PSA

A

<4.0 BPH, prostate cancer

37
Q

Ferritin <15 mcg

A

iron def anemia

38
Q

ESR, sed rate

A

Men 0-22
women 0 - 29
elevated means Giant cell arteritis, RA, lupus

39
Q

potassium 3.5 - 5.5

A
40
Q

Bacterial vaginosis PH normal is

A

3.5 -4.5

41
Q

According to the IDSA and the ATS treatment guidelines, outpatient treatment of CAP in healthy patients (no comorbidities) involves the use of

A

macrolides (azithromycin, clarithromycin, or erythromycin).

42
Q

most common disease causing the most dealth overall is

A

heart disease

43
Q

cancer with the highest mortality

A

lung cancer

44
Q

most common cause of deaths in adolescents is

A

MVA

45
Q

most common cancer in females is

A

breast cancer

46
Q

most common cancer in males is

A

prostate

47
Q

most commoncancer cancer overall is

A

skin cancer

48
Q

most common type of skin cancer is

A

basal cell

49
Q

skin cancer with the highest mortality is

A

melanoma

50
Q

most common type of gynecological cancer is

A

uterine cancer

51
Q

If there is a case scenario of an older woman who complains of vague abdominal/pelvic symptoms (stomach bloating, low-back ache, constipation) and is found to have a palpable ovary during the bimanual exam, rule out

A

ovarian cancer

52
Q

Always rule out ________in a postmenopausal woman who has a palpable ovary.

A

ovarian cancer

53
Q

Breast cancer screening

A

Baseline mammogram at age 50 years

Screen every 2 years until age 74 years (biennial)

After age 75 years (insufficient evidence)

54
Q

Cervical cancer

A

Baseline Pap smear/cytology at age 21 years (do not screen younger)

Screen every 3 years until age 65 years; at age 30–65 years, another option is to screen every 5 years using hrHPV testing alone or in combination with cytology (cotesting).

55
Q

Lung cancer

A

Aged 55–80 years with 30 pack-year history of smoking or quit smoking up to 15 years previously

Annual screening with LDCT

56
Q

Prostate cancer

A

Aged 55–69 years, PSA-based screening should be individualized; ≥70 years, against prostate cancer screening.

57
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

One-time screening (men aged 65–75 years) for cigarette smokers or those who have quit.

Screening test is ultrasound of abdomen.

58
Q

Colorectal cancer

A

Baseline screening at age 50 years

Use high-sensitivity fecal occult blood test (yearly) or sigmoidoscopy (every 5 years) or colonoscopy (every 10 years) from age 50 to 75 years; aged 76–85 years, individualize.

59
Q

Tanner stage 2 in girls is

A

brest bud and areola start to develop

60
Q

tanner stage 3 in girls

A

brest ctoninues to grow and nipples/areola (one mound, no separation 0

61
Q

tanner stage 4 in girls

A

Nipples and areola become elevated from the breast (a secondary mound).

62
Q

BMI of what is considered overweight

A

25 to 29.9

63
Q

Obesity is BMI over

A

30

64
Q

Treatment of anaphylaxis (in primary care):

A

If only one clinician is present: Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1,000 dilution 0.3 to 0.5 mg intramuscularly stat, and then call 911. May repeat dose within 5 minutes in case of poor response.

65
Q

The most common triggers for anaphylaxis in children

A

food

66
Q

most common triggers of anaphylaxis in adults is

A

insect stings, meds

67
Q

what is the first line treatment for AOM and actue sinusitis in children

A

amoxicillin

68
Q

If penicillin allergic, an alternative is

A

azithromycin (Z-Pack) and clarithromycin (Biaxin) BID.

69
Q

The mitral area, sometimes called the cardiac apex, is the optimal location to hear the

A

S3

70
Q

SSRIs are also first-line treatment for

A

OCD, generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), panic disorder, social anxiety disorder (extreme shyness), PTSD, and premenstrual mood disorder

71
Q

Anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine (Tegretol), are also used for

A

chronic pain and trigeminal neuralgia.

72
Q
A
73
Q

CAGE Screening Tool (Two or More Positive Answers Is Suggestive of Alcoholism)

A

C: Do you feel the need to cut down?

A: Are you annoyed when your friends/spouse comment about your drinking?

G: Do you feel guilty about your drinking?

E: Do you need to drink early in the morning (eye-opener)?

A FNP Boards Leik - Crowe (4 decks)

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