fast fact leik

Question 1

Uterine involution is when the

Answer 1

uterus contracts and shinrks in size until it returns to its prepreganancy state - process takes 6 weeks

Question 2

A Navajo woman has an appointment for a follow-up visit, but she does not show up for the appointment. The most common cause for Navajo patients to skip health visits and follow-up visits is

Answer 2

lack of transportation

Question 3

Sensitivity is defined as the

Answer 3

ability of a test to detect a person who has the disease

Question 4

specificity is defined as the ability of a test to detect a person who is

Answer 4

healthy or without the disease

Question 5

cohort study does what

Answer 5

follows a group of people who share some common characterstics to observe the development of disease over time.

Question 6

trauma to kiesselbachs plexus will result in an

Answer 6

anterior nose bleed

Question 7

Alpha thalassemia is more common among

Answer 7

Southeast asians (filipinos)

Question 8

Beta thalassemia is more common in

Answer 8

mediterranean people

Question 9

Diabetic retinopathy: shows

Answer 9

neorvascularaiaztion , cotton wool spots, micro aneurysms

Question 10

HTN retinopathy shows

Answer 10

AV nicking, silver and copper wire arterioles

Question 11

pencillin

Answer 11

amoxicillin, pencillin VK

Question 12

Macrolides are

Answer 12

erythromycin, azithromycin (Z-pak) , clarithromycin (biaxin)

Question 13

cephalosporins

Answer 13

1st generation Keflex
2 nd is cefaclor, ceftin, cefzi
3rd rocephin, supra, omnicef

Question 14

quinolones

Answer 14

cipro and ofloxacin

Question 15

quinolones with gram positive coverage are

Answer 15

levofloxacin (levaquin), moxiflocacin (avelox)

Question 16

Sulfa meds

Answer 16

trimethoprim - sulfamethoxazole (bactrim, septra), nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)

Question 17

Tetracyclines are

Answer 17

tetracycline, doxy, minocycline

Question 18

Cox-2 inhibitor

Answer 18

celebrex

Question 19

Category B drugs are allowed for pregnant or lactating women.

Answer 19

example: For pain relief, pick acetaminophen (Tylenol) instead of NSAIDs such as ibuprofen (Advil) or naproxen (Aleve, Anaprox). Avoid nitrofurantoin and sulfa drugs during the third trimester (these increase risk of hyperbilirubinemia).

Question 20

The preferred treatment for cutaneous anthrax is

Answer 20

ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally twice a day for 60 days or 8 weeks. If the patient is allergic to ciprofloxacin, use doxycycline 100 mg twice a day. Cutaneous anthrax is not contagious; it comes from touching fur or animal skins that are contaminated with anthrax spores.

Question 21

The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends that breastfed infants should be started on

Answer 21

Vitamin D during the first few days of life, then at age 4 mothsn

Question 22

at age 6 months a child should be able to

Answer 22

sit w/o support, roll over from font to back, then from back to front, transfer object from hand to hand, use raking, grasp and babble

Question 23

Leukocoria (white color) is noted on one eye while checking for the red reflex. Rule out

Answer 23

retinoblastoma of the eye, which is a malignant tumor of the retina.

Question 24

If a small child expresses a desire to marry a parent of the opposite sex, the child is in the

Answer 24

oedipal stage (Freud) The child’s age is about 5 to 6 years (preschool to kindergarten).

Question 25

When performing the Mini-Mental State Exam, when the NP is asking about “proverbs,” the nurse is assessing the patient’s ability to understand

Answer 25

abstract concepts

Question 26

hemoglobin Males Females

Answer 26

M - 13.0-17.5 Female 12.0-16

Question 27

Hematocrit M F

Answer 27

Males - 40-50 % Females - 36- 45%

Question 28

MCV

Answer 28

80-100 fl

Question 29

RDW . 14.5

Question 30

platelet count

Answer 30

<150,000

Question 31

total WBC

Answer 31

4,500- 11,000

Question 32

neutrophils

Answer 32

555 - 77 % increase means bacterial infection

Question 33

bands form (immature WBC

Answer 33

.5% severe bacterail infection - also called shift to the left

Question 34

eosinophils

Answer 34

>3% increased means allergies or parasitic disease , cancer

Question 35

TSH levels

Answer 35

>5.0 hypothyroidism <0.4 hyperthyroidism

Question 36

PSA

Answer 36

<4.0 BPH, prostate cancer

Question 37

Ferritin <15 mcg

Answer 37

iron def anemia

Question 38

ESR, sed rate

Answer 38

Men 0-22 women 0 - 29 elevated means Giant cell arteritis, RA, lupus

Question 39

potassium 3.5 - 5.5

Question 40

Bacterial vaginosis PH normal is

Answer 40

3.5 -4.5

Question 41

According to the IDSA and the ATS treatment guidelines, outpatient treatment of CAP in healthy patients (no comorbidities) involves the use of

Answer 41

macrolides (azithromycin, clarithromycin, or erythromycin).

Question 42

most common disease causing the most dealth overall is

Answer 42

heart disease

Question 43

cancer with the highest mortality

Answer 43

lung cancer

Question 44

most common cause of deaths in adolescents is

Answer 44

MVA

Question 45

most common cancer in females is

Answer 45

breast cancer

Question 46

most common cancer in males is

Answer 46

prostate

Question 47

most commoncancer cancer overall is

Answer 47

skin cancer

Question 48

most common type of skin cancer is

Answer 48

basal cell

Question 49

skin cancer with the highest mortality is

Answer 49

melanoma

Question 50

most common type of gynecological cancer is

Answer 50

uterine cancer

Question 51

If there is a case scenario of an older woman who complains of vague abdominal/pelvic symptoms (stomach bloating, low-back ache, constipation) and is found to have a palpable ovary during the bimanual exam, rule out

Answer 51

ovarian cancer

Question 52

Always rule out ________in a postmenopausal woman who has a palpable ovary.

Answer 52

ovarian cancer

Question 53

Breast cancer screening

Answer 53

Baseline mammogram at age 50 years Screen every 2 years until age 74 years (biennial) After age 75 years (insufficient evidence)

Question 54

Cervical cancer

Answer 54

Baseline Pap smear/cytology at age 21 years (do not screen younger) Screen every 3 years until age 65 years; at age 30–65 years, another option is to screen every 5 years using hrHPV testing alone or in combination with cytology (cotesting).

Question 55

Lung cancer

Answer 55

Aged 55–80 years with 30 pack-year history of smoking or quit smoking up to 15 years previously Annual screening with LDCT

Question 56

Prostate cancer

Answer 56

Aged 55–69 years, PSA-based screening should be individualized; ≥70 years, against prostate cancer screening.

Question 57

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

Answer 57

One-time screening (men aged 65–75 years) for cigarette smokers or those who have quit. Screening test is ultrasound of abdomen.

Question 58

Colorectal cancer

Answer 58

Baseline screening at age 50 years Use high-sensitivity fecal occult blood test (yearly) or sigmoidoscopy (every 5 years) or colonoscopy (every 10 years) from age 50 to 75 years; aged 76–85 years, individualize.

Question 59

Tanner stage 2 in girls is

Answer 59

brest bud and areola start to develop

Question 60

tanner stage 3 in girls

Answer 60

brest ctoninues to grow and nipples/areola (one mound, no separation 0

Question 61

tanner stage 4 in girls

Answer 61

Nipples and areola become elevated from the breast (a secondary mound).

Question 62

BMI of what is considered overweight

Answer 62

25 to 29.9

Question 63

Obesity is BMI over

Answer 63

30

Question 64

Treatment of anaphylaxis (in primary care):

Answer 64

If only one clinician is present: Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1,000 dilution 0.3 to 0.5 mg intramuscularly stat, and then call 911. May repeat dose within 5 minutes in case of poor response.

Question 65

The most common triggers for anaphylaxis in children

Answer 65

food

Question 66

most common triggers of anaphylaxis in adults is

Answer 66

insect stings, meds

Question 67

what is the first line treatment for AOM and actue sinusitis in children

Answer 67

amoxicillin

Question 68

If penicillin allergic, an alternative is

Answer 68

azithromycin (Z-Pack) and clarithromycin (Biaxin) BID.

Question 69

The mitral area, sometimes called the cardiac apex, is the optimal location to hear the

Answer 69

S3

Question 70

SSRIs are also first-line treatment for

Answer 70

OCD, generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), panic disorder, social anxiety disorder (extreme shyness), PTSD, and premenstrual mood disorder

Question 71

Anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine (Tegretol), are also used for

Answer 71

chronic pain and trigeminal neuralgia.

Question 73

CAGE Screening Tool (Two or More Positive Answers Is Suggestive of Alcoholism)

Answer 73

C: Do you feel the need to cut down? A: Are you annoyed when your friends/spouse comment about your drinking? G: Do you feel guilty about your drinking? E: Do you need to drink early in the morning (eye-opener)?