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farm 2 > farm pq 2022 > Flashcards

farm pq 2022 Flashcards

1
Q

which anaesthesia technique results in scoliosis

A: distal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
B: proximal paravertebral nerve block
C: inverted L paralumbar anaesthesia
D: Epidural anaesthesia

A

B: proximal paravertebral nerve block

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2
Q

which of these statements is true for xylazine in cattle?

A: horses are 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than cattle
B: a cow is as sensitive as a horse
C: cattle are 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than horses
D: none of the above is true

A

C: cattle are 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than horses

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3
Q

what are the benefits of combinding lidocaine with xylazine during epidural anaesthesia?

A: response delayed 1 to 2 hours
B: excellent anaesthesia in a smaller area
C: no sedation along with the anaesthesia
D: none of the above

A

D: none of the above

Response delayed 15-20 minutes
Prolonged excellent anesthesia in a larger area
Mild sedation along with the anaesthesia

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4
Q

next to which vertebrae should lidocain be injected in case of distal paralumbar anaesthesia?

A: L1, L2, L3
B: L1, L2, L4
C: L2, L3, L4
D: L2, L3, L5

A

B: L1, L2, L4

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5
Q

what causes scoliosis during proximal paravertebral anaesthesia?

A: anaesthesia of m. latissimus dorsi
B: loss of muscle tone in the abdomen
C: incorrectly administered injection
D: anaesthesia of m. longissimus dorsi

A

D: anaesthesia of m. longissimus dorsi

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6
Q

which statement is NOT true about TIVA in cattle?

A: preferred to regional/ local anaesthesia because it is easy to administer due to large, easily accessible veins
B: high chance of regurgitation calls for 24 hours of fasting
C: few drugs are permitted to use in production animals
D: the dose is influenced by the metabolic state of the animal

A

A??

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7
Q

in what position would a C- section or a rumenotomy be performed in cattle most cases?

A: in lateral recumbency using right flank approach
B: in standing restraint using right flank approach
C: in lateral recumbency using left flank approach
D: in standing restraint using left flank approach

A

D: in standing restraint using left flank approach

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8
Q

what is the general incision technique for c- section in a cow?

A: skin and subskin –>
internal oblique muscle –>
external oblique muscle –>
transverse muscle –>
peritoneum –> abdominal cavity

B: skin and subskin –>
external oblique muscle –>
internal oblique muscle —>
transverse muscle –>
peritoneum –> abdominal cavity

C: skin and subskin –>
transverse muscle –>
internal oblique muscle –>
external oblique muscle–>
peritoneum –> abdominal cavity

D: skin and subskin –>
transverse muscle –>
external oblique muscle –>
internal oblique muscle–>
peritoneum –> abdominal cavity

A

B: skin and subskin –>
external oblique muscle –>
internal oblique muscle —>
transverse muscle –>
peritoneum –> abdominal cavity

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9
Q

the presence of the fetus is?

A: the size of the fetus
B: the ratio between the maternal and the fetal pelvical diameter
C: the presentation, the position and the posture of the fetus
D: the vital signs of the fetus

A

C: the presentation, the position and the posture of the fetus

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10
Q

normal presentation in ruminants is:

A: ventral oblique presentation
B: ventral back
C: longitudinal anterior
D: harms presentation

A

C: longitudinal anterior

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11
Q

the overall prognosis of abnormal presentation :

A: in horse good, in cattle guarded
B: in cattle good, in horses guarded
C: in every species its good
D: in every species its guarded or bad

A

D: in every species its guarded or bad

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12
Q

the position of the fetus is:

A: the situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus
B: the longitudinal axis of the dam to the fetus
C: the maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
D: the fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity

A

B: the longitudinal axis of the dam to the fetus

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13
Q

the posture of the fetus is normal if :

A: extended before parturition
B: extended at parturition
C: flexed ar parturition
D: always flexed

A

B: extended at parturition

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14
Q

abnormal posture of the bovine fetus:

A: ventral abdominal
B: dorsal abdominal
C: oblique abdominal
D: unilateral hip flexion

A

D: unilateral hip flexion

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15
Q

choose the CORRECT statement from the following, concerning to uterine torsion of the cow

A: precervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation
B: postcervical torsion can be palpated with vaginal palption
C: precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
D: by manulal palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion

A

C: precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation

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16
Q

prognosis of the displacement of the pregnant uterus:

A: good
B: moderate
C: guarded
D: poor

A

B: moderate

17
Q

what is the consequence of abomasal displacement?

A: metabolic acidosis
B: hyperchloraemia
C: hypokalaemia
D: paradox alkaluria

A

C: hypokalaemia

18
Q

clinical signs of acute rumen acidosis

A: occasionally kussmaul type dyspnoe
B: tachycardia
C: nystagmus
D: exsiccosis

A

A: occasionally kussmaul type dyspnoe

19
Q

the ruminal pH in case of subclinical ruminal acidosis:

A: 2,2 -3,3
B: 3,3- 4,4
C: 4,4 - 5,5
D: 5,5 - 6,5

A

C: 4,4 - 5,5

20
Q

during ruminal fermentation carbohydrates degrade into :

A: volatile fatty acids
B: ketone bodies
C: long chain fatty acids
D: fats

A

A: volatile fatty acids

21
Q

nutrition for recovering the pH in the rumen :

A: easily fermentable carbohydrates in large amount
B: sugars (e.g Molasses) feeding
C: hays with good quality fibers
D: extrahated soybean- seed

A

A: easily fermentable carbohydrates in large amount

22
Q

what is TRUE for free gas bloat ?

A: overfeeding of alfalfa hay can easily cause it
B: at ruminal tubing only small amount of frothy content can be obtained
C: the diagnostic tubing is a treatment option as well
D: prognosis is poor

A

C: the diagnostic tubing is a treatment option as well

23
Q

which treatment would you use in case of froathy bloat?

A: ruminal tubing, anti foaming agent, lineseed, hay
B: ruminal tubing, 5 liter 10% vinegar drinking
C: feed restriction for 3 days
D: no treatment, euthanasia

A

A: ruminal tubing, anti foaming agent, lineseed, hay

24
Q

what is the optimal pH range of the rumen ?

A: 7,0- 7,5
B: 5,5- 6,3
C: 7,2- 8,0
D: 6,3- 7,1

A

D: 6,3- 7,1

25
Q

which clinical parameter is useful for early detection of disease at the herd level?

A: feces condition
B: milk production
C: depression
D: loss of appetite

A

B: milk production

26
Q

diagnosis of subclinical ketosis:

A: measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
B: RQUICKI calculated index calculation
C: insuline measurement from peripheral blood
D: non esterified fatty acid (NEFA) measurement from peripheral blood

A

A: measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood

27
Q

we do NOT use this in the treatment of clinical ketosis:

A: gluconeoplastic materials
B: glucose
C: glucocorticoids
D: gamithromycine

A

D: gamithromycine

28
Q

what is the medication that is NOT advised for ewes in case of pregnancy toxaemia?

A: dextrose, because it cannot enter to gluconeogenesis
B: glucocorticoids because it can induce abortion
C: B1 vitamin, because it can damage fetal development
D: hay, because it causes obstruction in the colon

A

..

29
Q

this peripheral blood can be used for the measurment of beta hydroxy butyrate

A: only arterial blood in closed blood collection system
B: only blood from the jugular vein is applicable
C: blood collected from the tail vein is suitable
D: peripheral blood is not applicable, central vein must be used

A

C: blood collected from the tail vein is suitable

30
Q

the treatment of clinical hypocalcaemia

A: Calcium gluconate iv
B: Calcium phosphate p.os
C: Calcium sulphate iv.
D: Calcium nitrate iv.

A

A: Calcium gluconate iv

31
Q

in the treatment of milk fever the administration of calcium compounds is advised in the following route

A: per os
B: intraperitoneally
C: subcutaneously
D: intravenously

A

D: intravenously

SLOWLY

32
Q

subclinical hypocalcaemia

A: causes downer cow syndrome
B: not causing downer cow
C: increases the occurence of some peripartal diseases
D: can negatively effect the amount of milk in the whole lactation

A

B: not causing downer cow

33
Q

which of the following is NOT a cause of acute haemorrhagic anaemia in ruminants?

A: traumatic haematomas
B: severe bleeding
C: coccidiosis
D: DIC

A

C: coccidiosis

34
Q

which of the following infectious diseases does NOT cause haemolytic anaemia in ruminants?

A: haemoncosis
B: babesiosis
C: theileriosis
D: anaplasmosis

A

A: haemoncosis

35
Q

which of the following is a congenital heart disease?

A: endocarditis
B: cardiac arrhytmias
C: reticulopericarditis
D: fallot- tetralogy

A

D: fallot- tetralogy

36
Q

which of the following is NOT part of the pathogenesis of diarrhea

A: endotoxins
B: decreased peristaltic movement in the bowels
C: osmotic effect
D: enteritis

A

B: decreased peristaltic movement in the bowels ?

37
Q

which of the following is NOT part of the pathogenesis of diarrhea?

A: extrarenal uraemia
B: dehydration
C: loss of electrolytes
D: metabolic alkalosis

A

D: metabolic alkalosis

38
Q

which of the following is TRUE for paratuberculosis (Johne´s disease)

A: chronic progression
B: disease of calves
C: suddenly worsening clinical condition
D: caused by corynebacterium paratuberculosis

A

A: chronic progression

farm 2 (4 decks)

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