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FAR's Flashcards

1
Q

At what minimum speed during takeoff, following failure of the critical engine at VEF, can the pilot continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance?

A

V1

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2
Q

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

A

3 statue miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal

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3
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility and cloud clearance for a flight under VFR in Class E airspace above 10,000 feet?

A

5 miles, 1,000 feet above, 1000 feet below, and 1 statute miles horizontal

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4
Q

V2 speed is

A

takeoff safety speed

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5
Q

What is an area identified by the term “stopway”?

A

An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff

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6
Q

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to

A

36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period

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7
Q

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

A

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action

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8
Q

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane when one of its engine is inoperative?

A

The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR

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9
Q

While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fail which course of action should the pilot in command follow?

A

Advise ATC immediately

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10
Q

When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

A

When priority has been given

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11
Q

While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?

A

The route filed in the flight plan

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12
Q

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 knots

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13
Q

Information obtained from flight data and cockpit Voice Recorders shall be used only for determining

A

possible causes of accidents or incidents

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14
Q

What are the minimum requirements for the line check required of each pilot in command authorized for IFR air taxi operations? The line check shall be given over

A

a civil airway or an approved off-airway route, or a portion of either of them, in one type of airplane the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and landings at one or more representative airports

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15
Q

What is the runway distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered transport category airplane for landing on Rwy 6 (dry) at the destination airport?

A

9,100 feet

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16
Q

What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?

A

115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway

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17
Q

For 14 CFR part 121 operations, which rule applies to the use of the cockpit Voice recorder erasure feature?

A

Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased

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18
Q

If a turbine-engine-powered, pressured airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?

A

FL 250

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19
Q

Which document includes descriptions of the required crew member functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?

A

Certificate holder’s manual

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20
Q

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?

A

Seven

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21
Q

A crew member who has served as second in command on a particular type airplane (eg., B-737-800), may severe as pilot in command upon completing which training program

A

Upgrade training

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22
Q

The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the pilot in command in a two-pilot Crew for a flag air carrier is

A

32 hours

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23
Q

If the seat belt sign will be turned off during flight, which announcement must be made?

A

Passengers should keep their seat belts fastened while seated

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24
Q

You are the PIC of a twin turbojet airplane operating under 14 CFR 121 when you shut down an engine to prevent possible damage. You

A

must land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time where a safe landing can be made

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25
Q

Who is responsible for the diversion of a flight at a 14 CFR part 121 air carrier conducting supplemental operations?

A

the pilot in command and Director of operations

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26
Q

The pilot in command operating under 14 CFR part 121 has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck

A

in the interest of safety while exercising emergency authority

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27
Q

What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane under 14 CFR part 121 rules?

A

1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating

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28
Q

Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport

A

when the flight arrives

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29
Q

A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is

A

1915Z

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30
Q

If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates where the flight may continue en route?

A

Certificate holder’s approved MEL manual

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31
Q

Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?

A

When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach

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32
Q

According to 14 CFR part 121, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect safety of flight?

A

An aircraft dispatcher

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33
Q

Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?

A

Aircraft dispatcher

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34
Q

Below what altitude, expect when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited?

A

10,000 feet

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35
Q

The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-727 while operating under Part 121. Flying the approach with the Flight Director, what are the minimums for the ILS RWY 9L approach at PHL for this PIC?

A

313/50

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36
Q

The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under FAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 9L at PHL with the autopilot engaged?

A

313/5,000 RVR

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37
Q

What is meant by a sterile cockpit?

A

Not engaging in any activity below 10,000 feet MSL and at cruise altitude (whichever is lower) other than what is required for the safety of flight

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38
Q

The second in command of an aircraft in flag or supplemental operations requiring three or more pilots only must hold

A

an ATP certificate, type rating, and first class medical

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39
Q

If there is inoperative equipment on the aircraft, what document should you reference to determine if the aircraft can be flown?

A

Certificate holder’s MEL manual

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40
Q

How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crew members? It is

A

not considered to be part of the a rest period

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41
Q

For passengers operations under 14 CFR 121, a pilot in command may extend flight duty time prior to departure due to unforeseen circumstances by as much as

A

2 hours

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42
Q

Effective CRM reinforcement depends on

A

usable feedback

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43
Q

An SIC with less than 100 flight hours in this type airplane is assigned to fly with a PIC who is not a check airman. The SIC is not allowed to make the

A

landing if the braking action is less than good

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44
Q

Which of the following equipment does 14 CFR part 121 require when you are flying over uninhabited terrain?

A

Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices

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45
Q

What is an area identified by the term “stopway”?

A

An area beyond the takeoff runway, at least as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane, designated for use in decelerating during an aborted takeoff

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46
Q

If unforeseen circumstances arose after takeoff, the flight duty period by be extended by as much as

A

necessary to land at the destination or alternate airport

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47
Q

What requirement must be met if cargo is carried in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?

A

The cargo bin may not be installed in a position that blocks, or restricts the use of, any aisles in the passenger compartment

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48
Q

What are the landing minimums, per 14 CFR 121 Regulations, for a PIC who has 40 hours PIC time in type and no previous PIC experience, executing the straight-in ILS RWY 25L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor airport (PHX)?

A

1426 - 1

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49
Q

While on a required rest period for a 14 CFR part 121 carrier, when may you accept your next duty assignment?

A

Only after the end of your required rest period

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50
Q

No certificate holder may schedule and no flight crew member may accept an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flight crew member is given a rest period of

A

at least 10 consecutive hours immediately before beginning the reserve or flight duty period measured from the time the flight crew member is released from duty

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51
Q

Under 14 CFR 121, the second in command of an aircraft in domestic operation must hold

A

an airline transport pilot certificate with an appropriate airplane type rating for the airplane being flown

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52
Q

What is the minimum rest period required before a flight or reserve duty period?

A

10 consecutive hours rest

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53
Q

Under 14 CFR 121, a required flight crew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a one calendar month period?

A

100

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54
Q

You are the PIC of a turbojet airplane. You have just shut down an engine to prevent further damage. According to 14 CFR 121.565, under what conditions may you continue to your destination airport, even if suitable landing airports are closer?

A

If your airplane is equipped with three or more engines

55
Q

The second in command of an aircraft in supplemental operations under 14 CFR 121 must hold

A

an airline transport pilot certificate with an appropriate aircraft type rating and a first class medical

56
Q

After a night flight, you notice that the left side recognition light on the fuel tip tank is inoperative. Who places that in the maintenance log books?

A

Pilot in Command

57
Q

According to 14 CFR part 121, when may you depart IFR with your weather radar equipment inoperative?

A

When thunderstorms are not forecast along the route

58
Q

You are flying the ACY LOC RWY 13 approach and ATIS reports the MALSR inop. What is the required landing visibility for your category D aircraft (no MEL items)?

A

5000 RVR

59
Q

The second in command of an aircraft in commercial operation under 14 CFR 121 must hold

A

an airline transport pilot certificate with an appropriate aircraft type rating

60
Q

According to 14 CFR part 121, what is the maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in a two-pilot flag operation in any given 12-calendar-month period?

A

1,000

61
Q

As an SIC, you have less than 100 hours in your assigned airplane type and are scheduled to fly with a PIC who is not a check airman. Based on 14 CFR part 121, you may not perform

A

the landing if the runway to be used has snow on its surface

62
Q

Under 14 CFR part 121, in addition to the PIC, who is responsible for operational control?

A

Director of operations

63
Q

During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?

A

That ATC facility manager within 48 hours, if requested

64
Q

According to 14 CFR part 117, is deadhead transportation part of the duty rest requirements?

A

No, deadhead is considered duty time until the flight has arrived

65
Q

There is a luggage bin in the passenger compartment with a missing weight limit placard. You should

A

not use the bin until the correct information label is conspicuously displayed

66
Q

When the fasten seatbelts sign is turned off in flight, when should the announcement for passengers to remain seated be made?

A

Immediately before or after the signs are turned off

67
Q

Under 14 CFR part 121, what flight equipment must the pilot in command ensure is aboard before each flight?

A

Appropriate aeronautical charts

68
Q

According to 14 CFR part 121, under which circumstance must a survival kit be available to each occupant of the aircraft?

A

When operating over an uninhabited area

69
Q

If you are a pilot operating a large, turning-powered aircraft in Class C airspace, on an instrument approach with vertical guidance, you

A

must fly at or above the glide path between the final approach fix and the DA/DH

70
Q

In addition to other requirements, a pilot can takeoff from a domestic airport not on the operating specifications if the weather is better than

A

the prescribed takeoff minimums, or in absence of any takeoff minimums, 800-2, 900- 1/2, or 1,000-1

71
Q

Which scenario requires immediate notification to the national transportation safety board (NTSB)?

A

Evacuation of the aircraft utilizing the emergency egress system

72
Q

Each certificate holder’s operations specifications must include

A

authorizations and limitations for each type of operation

73
Q

As required under part 121, a dispatcher must specifically authorize each domestic air carrier flight expect when

A

an airplane lands at an intermediate airport and remains there for not more than one hour

74
Q

During an IFR flight in controlled airspace, your GPS becomes inoperative.

A

You must advise ATC as soon as practical

75
Q

A pilot in a Part 121 aircraft is flying the ILS RWY 27R into Oakland (OAK). The PIC has 85 hours in the aircraft and no other Part 121 flight time. Flying the approach with a flight director, what minimums are required for the approach?

A

307/5000

76
Q

You are descending from FL 410 to FL 350, and you did not notice that you had incorrectly set the autopilot. You descend below your level-off altitude by 400 feet before correcting. What do you do?

A

You will have to report to the Administrator as a deviation of more than 300 feet has occurred

77
Q

When operating a domestic flight under 14 CFR part 121, what determines the minimum weather required to list an airport as an alternate in the dispatch release?

A

Certificate holder’s operations specifications for the airport

78
Q

Under 14 CFR part 121, suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices are required when the aircraft is

A

operating over an uninhabited area

79
Q

Per 14 CFR part 121, as a member of a 3 pilot flight crew, you can not accept an extension to your flight duty period if the duty period will exceed

A

13 hours

80
Q

Which type of transponder is required for operation in class A airspace?

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) out transponder operating on 1090 MHz

81
Q

You are departing an airport located in Class B airspace. An ADS-B transponder is required

A

due to the airspace designation of the airport

82
Q

An SIC with less than 100 flight hours in this type airplane is assigned to fly with a PIC who is not a check airman. Under what conditions would the SIC not be allowed to takeoff or land the airplane?

A

Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport

83
Q

What is the minimum visibility required for takeoff on the MIDWAY SEVEN departure from RWY 04L in a twin-engine airplane at MDW operating part 121?

A

1 statue mile

84
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, which location would require ADS-B while flying at 8,000 feet MSL? The position labeled

A

7

85
Q

Which ADS-B out is required in Class A airspace?

A

Extended squitter (ES)

86
Q

Making a fraudulent report or record is grounds for

A

suspension of all certificates held

87
Q

When can a pilot exceed holdover time?

A

If a pre takeoff contamination check has been performed within 5 minutes before the beginning of the takeoff

88
Q

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 76 with 40 passengers aboard?

A

Two

89
Q

Which of these are permissible in an aircraft not equipped with ADS-B reporting equipment?

A

Within Class C airspace having made an authorization request at least 1 hour before the flight and approved

90
Q

Under what conditions must a domestic flight under 14 CFR Part 121 list an alternative airport in the dispatch release?

A

Within 1 hour prior to 1 hour after ETA, if ceilings are forecast less than 2,000 feet

91
Q

For operations under 14 CFR part 121, the captain decides to leave the flight deck as the pilot flying, and the aircraft is in cruise flight above FL 410. As the first officer, you will be the sole operator of the pressurized aircraft.

A

Before the captain leaves his or her flight station, don your mask

92
Q

Below 10,000 feet, except in cruise flight, crew members may

A

discuss anything required for the safe operation of the aircraft

93
Q

What is the required number of flight attendants on-board a 120-passenger jet airplane with 102 passengers aboard?

A

Three

94
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility and cloud clearance for a flight under VFR in Class E airspace below 10,000 feet?

A

3 statue miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal

95
Q

Which airspace requires ADS-B with extended squitter?

A

Class A

96
Q

What action requires a report to be filed with the FAA no later than 60 days after the action?

A

A conviction for driving while intoxicated

97
Q

While conducting a Category I approach using an approach lighting system to continue below DA/DH, which lights must be distinctly visible and identifiable in order to operate below 100 feet above touchdown zone elevation?

A

Red terminating bars or the red side row bars

98
Q

What is the required number of flight attendants on-board a 50-passenger jet airplane with 39 passengers aboard?

A

One

99
Q

Since GPS navigation signals can be jammed, interfered with, or spoofed (failed), what should pilots do when noticing erratic or deteriorating GPS performance?

A

Report the malfunction by radio immediately to the controlling ATC facility

100
Q

Under 14 CFR part 121, how many hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity must be afforded to a crew member?

A

8 hours

101
Q

What are the lowest weather alternate minimums for a part 121 PIC with less than 100 hours

A

300 - 1

102
Q

To guard against GPS interference or spoofing navigational errors, pilots should maintain positional awareness by

A

tuning and monitoring legacy, convectional ground-based navigational aids

103
Q

If the PIC of an airplane has not served 100 hours as PIC in Part 121 operations in the type of airplane being flown, the MDA or DA/DH and visibility landing minimums in the certificate holders’s operations specifications for regular, provisila, or refueling airports are increased by

A

100 feet and 1/2 SM

104
Q

When must an alternate airport be listed for departure?

A

When weather conditions are below the landing minimums for the takeoff airport

105
Q

A flight crew member in Part 121 operations must be transported to another location as a passenger. This time

A

is counted as flight duty time since it is required by the carrier

106
Q

For passenger operations, part 121, transportation of a flight crew member as a passenger is considered

A

duty time if transportation was required by the company

107
Q

In accordance with 14 CFR part 91, what malfunctions shall be reported ASAP to ATC when in IFR conditions?

A

Navigational, approach, or communication equipment

108
Q

You are flying as PIC under CFR part 121. After declaring an emergency with ATC, and deviating from an ATC clearance, a report must be filed to the administrator by

A

The PIC within 10 days of returning to home base

109
Q

Which scenario requires immediate notification of NTSB?

A

A malfunction resulted in the loss of more than half of the onboard electronic flight instrument displays

110
Q

In part 121 operations, the PIC is required to carry to the destination the

A

flight plan

111
Q

When ATC issues a course deviation for severe weather, how far can you deviate?

A

You must maintain altitude and deviate within the given clearance restrictions

112
Q

In case of GPS interference or spoofing navigational errors, pilots should

A

fly VOR MON and follow procedures in the chart supplement

113
Q

You are the PIC of a twin turbojet airplane operating under 14 CFR 121 when you shut down an engine to prevent possible damage. You

A

must land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time where a safe landing can be made

114
Q

Pilots should be concerned about FDC NOTAMs because they

A

are regulatory in nature

115
Q

You have been hired as SIC for a B-777. Your employer is providing you a type rating for the aircraft. Due to a maintenance issue, the practical test is scheduled partially in an approved flight simulator and partially in an aircraft. What is the minimum medical certificate you must hold?

A

Third-class

116
Q

What is the required number of flight attendants on-board a 100-passenger jet airplane with 66 passengers aboard?

A

2

117
Q

According to 14 CFR part 121, persons who have been approved for access to the flight deck, but are not certified employees, must

A

have a seat available for their use in the passenger compartment

118
Q

When is the approach time to notify passengers of restrictions regarding use of Personal Electronic Devices (PEDs)?

A

As part of the departure briefing or on a passenger safety information card

119
Q

In accordance with 14 CFR part 61, if a flight instructor has already taught 7.5 hours in a flight simulator today, what is the remaining amount they may teach within a 24-consecutive-hour period?

A

0.5 hours

120
Q

Which safety equipment is required for extended over-water operations?

A

Enough life rafts to carry all occupants

121
Q

To operate IFR in controlled airspace, a pilot must

A

file an IFR flight plan and receive an ATC clearance

122
Q

Per 14 CFR part 91, what are the correct weather minimums for takeoff under IFR conditions if minimums are not published for an airport?

A

Aircraft with more than two engines: 1/2 statue mile

123
Q

Pilots are prohibited from

A

pointing out local monuments during taxi

124
Q

Under 14 CFR part 121, while operating a B-777, the cockpit Voice recorder

A

must be operated during preflight from the start of the before starting engines checklist until completion of the post-fight checklist

125
Q

Under 14 CFR 121, the PIC of an aircraft must hold

A

an airline transport pilot certificate and a first class medical

126
Q

According to 14 CFR part 91, if an aircraft has an approved MEL, the deferred time must be

A

noted and reported to maintenance

127
Q

You have just climbed out from the airport while on an IFR flight plan and have lost communications. What altitude should you maintain?

A

The highest of the following altitudes: last assigned, minimum altitude for IFR operations, the altitude ATC has advised you may expect in an expected further clearance

128
Q

You are being radar vectored in IMC to an ILS approach and lose radio contact with ATC on the radar downwind. You should

A

proceed to the fix you were being vectored to and execute the approach

129
Q

Under 14 CFR part 121, what must the PIC do if the SIC leaves his flight Controls at FL 430?

A

Don his oxygen mask

130
Q

Under 14 CFR part 121, responsibility for operational control is held by the

A

air carrier

131
Q

According to 14 CFR part 121, what information shall a dispatcher provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier while enroute?

A

Low altitude wind shear along the route

132
Q

During preflight inspection, you notice a clear, thin layer of ice over the wings. What should you do?

A

Ensure that all ice is removed prior to takeoff

133
Q

You have been hired as SIC for a B-777. Your employer is providing you a type rating for the aircraft. Your initial training and checkride will be in a full motion simulator. What is the minimum medical certificate you must hold?

A

No medical is required

ATP (4 decks)

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