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Aerodynamics & Aircraft Flashcards

1
Q

Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?

A

Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing delaying airflow separation.

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2
Q

The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the

A

lift at low speeds

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3
Q

You decided to deploy leading edge slats at low speed and high angle of attack. The purpose of the slats is to

A

delay airflow separation on the upper part of the wing

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4
Q

At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet occur?

A

A speed greater than that for L/Dmax

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5
Q

Field elevation: 2500 ft
Altimeter setting: 29.40
Ambient Temperature: +50F
Weight: 75,000
Flap position: 20
Runway slope: +1%
Wind component: 10 HW
Ice Protection: Both

A

V1 125 knots
VR 127 knots
V2 131 knots

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6
Q

Field elevation: 600 ft
Altimeter setting: 30.50
Ambient Temperature: +80F
Weight: 85,000
Flap position: 20
Runway slope: -1.5%
Wind component: 10 TW
Ice Protection: None

A

V1 127.5 knots
VR 133.7 knots
V2 139.0 knots

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7
Q

Field elevation: 4200 ft
Altimeter setting: 1020mb
Ambient Temperature: +0C
Weight: 90,000
Flap position: 20
Runway slope: +0%
Wind component: 15 HW
Ice Protection: Both

A

V1 136.8 knots
VR 141.8 knots
V2 143.0 knots

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8
Q

Field elevation: 2100 ft
Altimeter setting: 10.35mb
Ambient Temperature: +20C
Weight: 65,000
Flap position: 20
Runway slope: -2%
Wind component: 20 HW
Ice Protection: None

A

V1 109.6 knots
VR 112.7 knots
V2 121.5 knots

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9
Q

What is ground distance covered during en route climb for operating conditions W2

A

79.4 NM

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10
Q

What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for operating conditions W2

A

83,775

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11
Q

What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for operating conditions W4

A

86,260

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12
Q

What is the takeoff EPR for operating conditions R-1

A

2.035

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13
Q

What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for operating conditions V2

A

69 NM

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14
Q

What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for operating conditions V-5

A

61 NM

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15
Q

What is the trip time for operating conditions X-3

A

4 hours

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16
Q

What is the trip time for operating conditions X-4

A

5 hours 45 minutes

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17
Q

What is the trip time for operating conditions X-5

A

2 hours 55 minutes

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18
Q

What is the trip time corrected for wind under operating conditions Z-1

A

51.9 minutes

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19
Q

What is the trip time corrected for wind under operating conditions Z-2

A

1 hour 46 minutes

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20
Q

What is the trip time corrected for wind under operating conditions Z-4

A

50.7 minutes

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21
Q

What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under operating conditions O-4

A

223 knots and 1.33 EPR

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22
Q

What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under operating conditions O-5

A

218 knots and 1.27 EPR

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23
Q

What is the approximated fuel consumed when holding under operating conditions O-5

A

2400 pounds

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24
Q

How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 16,000 pounds (using 2350 pounds/min)

Initial weight 175,000 lb
Zero Fuel Weight 138,000 lb

A

9 minutes

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25
Q

What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under the given conditions

Engine anti-ice ON
Wing anti-ice OFF
Weight at failure 100,000 lbs
ISA temperature ISA
Air conditioning OFF

A

19,400 feet

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26
Q

What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under the given conditions

Engine anti-ice ON
Wing anti-ice ON
Weight at failure 90,000 lbs
ISA temperature -10C
Air conditioning OFF

A

21,600 feet

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27
Q

What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under operating conditions D-4

A

24,400 feet

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28
Q

What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under operating conditions D-5

A

9,600 feet

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29
Q

How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping

A

Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown

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30
Q

What happens to stall speed as the aircraft gains altitude?

A

Increases

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31
Q

An airplane will always stall

A

at the same angle of attack regardless of other factors

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32
Q

An airplane stall warning device must sense

A

angle of attack

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33
Q

Weight, bank angle, airspeed and load factor have

A

no effect on the stall angle of attack

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34
Q

The pitching down of the nose of an airplane during extension of Fowler flaps is

A

normal if the elevator is not used to compensate

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35
Q

The lift coefficient must be maximum at

A

the airplane’s stall speed

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36
Q

Compared to flaps on a straight winged airplane, swept wing flaps are

A

less effective

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37
Q

Propeller driven airplanes can develop more lift at slower airspeed with power on because the

A

propellers create greater dynamic over-wing forces downstream

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38
Q

Upon landing, the thrust reversers

A

Should be deployed as soon as the nose wheel is in firm contact with the runway

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39
Q

At the aft CG limit the horizontal stabilizer and elevator

A

must develop less down force to balance the decreased forward loading

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40
Q

During takeoff, how do you handle an emergency when an engine fire indication occurs at speeds between V1 and VR

A

Continue the takeoff as briefed and treat as an in-flight emergency

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41
Q

Shock induced separation of air flow occurring symmetrically near the wing root in an airplane is hazardous because

A

The center of pressure moves aft

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42
Q

You are rolling out after touchdown and decide you really need to abort your landing, and takeoff. Your airplane is at 99 knots and your engines have spooled down to 65% idle. You need a V2 of 145 to safely lift off and climb. The airplane will require 13 seconds to accelerate after the engines spool up to takeoff thrust, which requires 7 seconds. How much runway will you require for a safe landing abort and takeoff from your decision point? (use an average of 123 knots ground speed)

A

4152 feet

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43
Q

You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR part 25 certified jet and see an engine oil pressure caution light after passing V1. You should

A

Continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the light as an in-flight emergency

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44
Q

In an area of low pressure, aircraft performance decreases because

A

less dense air reduces lift

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45
Q

Vortex generators are designed to

A

delay or prevent shock wave induced boundary layer separation in transonic flight

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46
Q

The most important factor affecting the specific range of a turbojet airplane is

A

altitude

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47
Q

At what airspeed will an increase in pitch attitude cause a jet airplane to climb while the forces along the flight path remain balanced

A

An airspeed above Vs

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48
Q

What happens to KCAS and TAS stalling airspeeds as altitude increases

A

KCAS remains the same, TAS increases

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49
Q

Takeoff with ice, snow, or frost is hazardous because

A

a stall could occur prior to stall warning

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50
Q

Turbine engines generally have fuel heaters because

A

particles of suspended water would freeze in the fuel lines

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51
Q

What is the most effective braking method on a contaminated runway

A

Wheel braking and reverse thrust

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52
Q

In normal cruise speed range, the propulsive efficiency of a turboprop

A

decreases as speed increases

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53
Q

On some jet transport airplanes there are two sets of ailerons. You would expect the outboard ailerons to control the airplane under what circumstance

A

High climb attitude and low airspeed

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54
Q

As the angle of attack increases, the boundary layer separation point

A

moves forward of the wing

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55
Q

Which is a stall characteristic of a T-tail jet airplane

A

The nose of the airplane noticeably pitches up

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56
Q

Which is a stall characteristic of a T-tail jet airplane

A

There may be no noticeable buffet before stall

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57
Q

Deploying spoilers upon landing

A

increases braking effectiveness and decreases lift

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58
Q

Precise roll control using a rudder on a transport category airplane

A

is difficult and therefore not recommended

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59
Q

During takeoff roll with runway remaining, you receive a master caution/warning light after Vr. What action should you take?

A

Continue the takeoff

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60
Q

An airplane loaded with the center of gravity at the forward CG limit will

A

be very stable in pitch

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61
Q

If you are at a high density altitude airport, and the DP notes a higher than normal climb gradient, then you may need to

A

limit takeoff weight

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62
Q

High density altitude operations are conducive to

A

decreased thrust

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63
Q

On a transport category aircraft, large aggressive rudder inputs or rapid rudder reversals could lead to

A

loads that exceed the structural design limits of the vertical stabilizer and associated airframe components

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64
Q

On a T-tail airplane, which control surface feature reduces over controlling the airplane during ground effect

A

Anti Servo trim tab

65
Q

At the forward CG limit the horizontal stabilizer and elevator

A

must develop more down force to balance the increased forward loading

66
Q

Sweep back wing design on turbojet airplanes

A

delays drag rise to that typical of slower speeds

67
Q

The purpose of leading edge slats is to

A

delay airflow separation at high angles of attack and slow speeds

68
Q

When entering a constant airspeed, level turn, why must the angle of attack be increased

A

Part of the vertical lift vector has been diverted to a horizontal lift vector

69
Q

How are wingtip vortices proportionately related to speed, weight, and wingspan

A

Directly to weight, indirectly to speed and wingspan

70
Q

Landing at a high density altitude airport, what will happen to your airspeed

A

True airspeed increases and indicated airspeed remains the same

71
Q

What happens when landing at a high density altitude airport

A

The landing roll increases

72
Q

Which would make recovery from a stall progressively more difficult

A

The center of gravity moving aft

73
Q

After takeoff, you encounter a stall and the wings roll more than 30 degrees. What are the correct recovery actions

A

Reduce AOA, roll wings level, and increase thrust

74
Q

Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability are characteristics of

A

an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit

75
Q

What is a purpose of flight spoilers

A

provide aid for roll control

76
Q

What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding for 30 minutes under operating conditions O-4

A

2,860 pounds

77
Q

What is the fuel used to the top of climb for operating conditions W-4

A

1,738 pounds

78
Q

What are V1 and VR speedsField elevation: 1,710 feet
Altimeter setting: 29.60
Ambient Temperature: 10C
Weight: 80,000
Flap position: 20
Runway slope: 0%
Wind component: calm
Ice Protection: Engine Ice Only

A

V1 126 knots
Vr 130 knots

79
Q

What is the purpose of a stick pusher

A

To automatically move the controls forward to inhibit a stall

80
Q

Allowing an airplane to exceed MMO will result in

A

loss of aileron/elevator control surface authority

81
Q

During high altitude operations, increased G loading caused by maneuvering may

A

lower the aerodynamic ceiling for a given weight

82
Q

Some airplanes are equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons. They are used to

A

help with control at slower speeds

83
Q

Which is true regarding balance trim tabs in flight

A

Coupled to the control surface to make them easier

84
Q

Slats are used to improve handling characteristics

A

during takeoff and landing

85
Q

What device can be used to reduce nose-down pitching movement produced by trailing edge flaps and increase the chamber of the wings

A

Leading edge flaps

86
Q

If an engine failure occurs in a turbojet aircraft after V1, you should

A

continue the takeoff

87
Q

On some jet transport airplanes there are two sets of ailerons. Under what circumstances are the inboard ailerons used for primary roll control

A

During high speed operation

88
Q

Upon landing, ground spoilers

A

increase drag, transfer weight to the wheels, improve braking, and decrease lift

89
Q

In non-maneuvering high-speed flight, increased G-loading caused by atmospheric turbulence reduces low-speed stall buffet margin and

A

can occur with little or no warning

90
Q

What are V1 and V2 speeds?
Field elevation: 4,00 ft
Altimeter setting: 29.92
Ambient Temperature: 20C
Weight: 90,000
Flap position: 20
Runway slope: 0%
Wind component: 15 knot headwind
Ice Protection: off

A

V1 138 knots
VR 143 knots

91
Q

What are V1 and VR speeds?
Field elevation: 1,00 ft
Altimeter setting: 29.92
Ambient Temperature: 0C
Weight: 70,000
Flap position: 20
Runway slope: 1% Downhill
Wind component: 10 knot headwind
Ice Protection: Engine Ice Only

A

V1 114 knots
VR 117 knots

92
Q

Which is a stall characteristic of a T-tail jet airplane

A

The tail will be effective into the beginning of the stall

93
Q

Given the following conditions, what are the takeoff V speeds?
Weight: 150,000 lb
Flaps: 10
Field Pressure altitude: 2,000 ft
Runway slope: 0%
Temp: 38 C
Wind: 10 KTS Headwind
Runway condition: Dry

A

V1 132 kts
VR 133 kts
V2 136 kts

94
Q

At which speed does the captain decide to continue or to reject the takeoff?

A

V1

95
Q

What happens to stall speed when an airplane’s centrifugal force is increased?

A

It increases

96
Q

The critical angle of attack

A

remains the same when load factor decreases

97
Q

Given the following conditions, what are the takeoff V speeds?
Weight: 160,000 lb
Flaps: 15
Field Pressure altitude: 2,000 ft
Runway slope: 0%
Temp: 27 C
Wind: 10 KTS Headwind
Runway condition: Dry

A

V1 133 kts
VR 133 kts
V2 138 kts

98
Q

How would an aft CG affect stall speed?

A

Stall speed decrease

99
Q

What condition makes a stall detection system unreliable?

A

Icing conditions

100
Q

Which is true when operating an airplane at speeds below (L/D)Max?

A

Pitch for airspeed in the climb

101
Q

When flying in the vicinity of thunderstorms, at what speed should a pilot fly to reduce the risk of structural damage due to turbulence?

A

Design maneuvering speed

102
Q

What can be expected when airspeed is allowed to exceed critical Mach by 5-10%?

A

Sharp increase in drag and reduced flight control effectiveness

103
Q

To avoid Mach tuck and buzz,

A

fly below Mmo/Vmo

104
Q

At what speed should a jet fly to obtain the maximum range condition?

A

At the airplane’s maximum lift/drag ratio, (L/D)Max

105
Q

In a given configuration, and upon obtaining the maximum range condition of an airplane, when does the (L/D)Max occur?

A

At a particular AOA and lift coefficient that is unaffected by weight or altitude

106
Q

Aft CG and neutral load on the tail will cause

A

the airplane to be less stable

107
Q

Maintaining altitude in a level turn, what does the increased angle of attack affect on the aircraft?

A

It brings the vertical component of lift equal to the aircraft’s weight

108
Q

What happens to airspeed as altitude increases and thrust decreases?

A

True airspeed increases to maintain the same calibrated airspeed

109
Q

What are maneuverability considerations when operating jet airplanes at high altitudes?

A

When there is a small envelope between the low speed buffet and Mmo, this may prevent proper maneuvering capabilities

110
Q

What must the pilot be aware of when the airspeed is below (L/D)Max?

A

Large inputs in power or reducing AOA may be necessary to accelerate

111
Q

What factors would increase indicated stall speed?

A

Increase in bank angle while trying to maintain altitude

112
Q

What will be the effect on drag when operating an airplane at an angle of attack (AOA) that is less than what is required for (L/D)Max?

A

Total drag will increase

113
Q

How is an aircraft’s stall speed affected by a forward CG?

A

Stall speed is higher

114
Q

As an airplane becomes lighter due to fuel burn, what would a pilot do to maintain maximum range?

A

Airspeed and power must be adjusted to obtain (L/D)Max

115
Q

In a constant altitude, coordinated turn, which factor causes an increased load factor?

A

Centrifugal force

116
Q

What CG characteristic will provide the aircraft with the highest stability?

A

Aircraft loaded to the forward limit

117
Q

If the aircraft being operated has a maximum zero fuel structural weight limitation,

A

only fuel can be added above this weight limitation

118
Q

How does a propeller governor protect the engine from over-speed?

A

Increases the propeller blade angle

119
Q

Upon discovering a flap failure, performing a no-flap approach and landing can increase landing by

A

50 percent

120
Q

After takeoff, what is the minimum altitude to retract flaps?

A

400 feet AGL

121
Q

You are flying a light twin into Huston Executive, and you have been vectored on a heading of 360 for landing on runway 36 with winds 270 at 10 knots. You deploy flaps and discover a flap asymmetry as the right wing flaps remains retracted. You should

A

request runway 18, fly a normal traffic pattern, and use a higher than normal approach speed

122
Q

If the centrifugal force in a turn is greater than the horizontal component of lift, this is a

A

skidding turn

123
Q

To prevent damage to starter components, pilots should avoid continuous operation of the engine starter for longer than

A

30 seconds

124
Q

When flying an aircraft with a propeller governor, when you start to climb, the governor

A

reduces blade angle just enough to maintain RPM

125
Q

What is the pitch attitude of an airplane in the traffic pattern with its flaps up, as compared to an airplane with its flaps extended?

A

Nose is higher

126
Q

What is critical to heavy aircraft and high-altitude operation that increases the likelihood of Mach buffet?

A

Increased AOA

127
Q

What effect will the use of spoilers for roll control have on an aircraft?

A

It eliminates adverse yaw

128
Q

In a single engine airplane without an autopilot or wing leveler, what should be the first step in a stall recovery

A

Reduce pitch

129
Q

In a turbo propeller-powered airplane, in a nose dive, the propeller governor maintains propeller speed and protects against an over-speed by

A

increasing propeller blade angle

130
Q

When executing a go-around, what is the first step?

A

Add power

131
Q

You are in a light twin aircraft with a published Vmc of 90 knots. If the pilot does not bank toward the operative engine and remains wings level after an engine failure, Vmc could be

A

105 knots

132
Q

If your clean, 1G stalling airspeeds is 50 knots, what is your stalling airspeeds in a level 60 degree bank turn?

A

71 knots

133
Q

In a single-engine situation, a light-twin airplane with gear and flaps extended on final approach

A

is committed to land on the intended runway

134
Q

Why is it important not to exceed the airplane’s published MMO airspeed?

A

To prevent structural damage

135
Q

During a cold engine start on a cold morning, you should observe

A

a slow increase in oil temperature

136
Q

A pilot determines during preflight planning that the aircraft full flap landing distance on today’s flight will be 3,000 feet. While flying the approach at the destination airport, it becomes evident that the flaps are inoperative. If the aircraft POH does not specify a no-flap landing distance, how long could the landing distance be without flaps?

A

4,500 feet

137
Q

When decreasing airspeed and maintaining altitude, what is the most efficient way to increase drag coefficient?

A

Extend flaps and slats

138
Q

When flying a single engine final approach, what glidepath should you maintain

A

Normal 3 degree

139
Q

One advantage of a wing with a rounded leading edge is that the flow separation begins at the

A

trailing edge and moves forward

140
Q

What is the potential outcome if there is continued use of the autopilot in icing conditions?

A

When design limits are reached, the autopilot may suddenly disconnect

141
Q

What aerodynamic effects may occur if the pilot exceeds VMO/MMO?

A

Violent rudder oscillations

142
Q

Your airplane has a stall speed of 50 knots at 1 G. How many G’s are required to increase the stall speed to 100 knots?

A

4

143
Q

When partial flaps are recommend for short-field takeoffs in multi engine airplanes, there may be a tendency to

A

become airborne prior to Vmc plus 5 knots

144
Q

Why should the pilot use rudder control to align the airplane’s longitudinal axis with the runway during the flare?

A

To avoid sideward contact of the wheels with the runway

145
Q

In the absence of a manufacturer recommend speed, while flaying a small, multi engine aircraft, what speed should you fly on short final until landing is assured?

A

Vyse

146
Q

What effect do slotted flaps have on takeoff?

A

Force air from underneath the wing over the flap to delay flow separation

147
Q

What is a possible cause of a compressor stall?

A

imbalance between the inlet velocity and compressor rotational speed

148
Q

Aircraft stall speed increases in proportion to the square root of the

A

load factor

149
Q

What are indications of an impeding stall in an airplane?

A

Kinesthesia and aural alerts from the aircraft systems

150
Q

A large transport airplane at high altitude increases its chance of experience high speed Mach buffet when it is

A

near maximum allowable weight

151
Q

In a multi engine airplane with one engine inoperative, what is the minimum airspeed to maintain in the traffic pattern?

A

Vyse

152
Q

What force on the outer wing causes overbanking tendency during a turn?

A

Higher airspeed makes more lift

153
Q

When will there be an increased chance of experiencing Mach buffet?

A

At an increased G loading due to turns or turbulence

154
Q

Which CG change will increase stall speed?

A

CG shifted forward

155
Q

For a given calibrated airspeed (CAS), what happens as altitude increases and temperature decreases?

A

True airspeed increases

156
Q

If a multiengine airplane loses an engine after takeoff, what speed should be maintained?

A

Vyse

157
Q

Your aircraft is loaded so that as you burn fuel, the center of gravity moves aft. This will likely cause the longitudinal stability of the aircraft to

A

become less stable

158
Q

What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for a brake related weight of 100,000 pounds, cruise pressure altitude of 35,000 feet, airport elevation of 6,000 feet, and a temp of ISA +10?

A

96,700 pounds

ATP (4 decks)

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