FAM TEST DECK Flashcards

1
Q

What are the Captain’s duties outside flight?

A

Has authority during tow/pushback, oversees safety at outstations, ensures aircraft is secured.
(Ref: 4.8.3 Captains)

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2
Q

Who has operational control and what is the role of the COEG?

A

PIC has initial control. The COEG (includes HOFO, IOC Manager, etc.) takes control in critical events.
(Ref: 2.2.4 Operational Control)

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3
Q

What precipitation or changes affect fuel planning?

A

–SHRA or DZ = wet runway. BCMG: use start if worsening, end if improving. PROB 30/40 ignored if fully inside TAF3.
(Ref: 16.6.3 Relevant Weather Conditions)

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4
Q

What actions are required after the secure checklist?

A

Open vents, dim lights, set speaker up, and FLT interphone selected.
(Ref: 21.81 Post Flight Procedures)

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5
Q

When is Medlink contacted for inflight medical emergencies?

A

If cabin crew would call ambulance, contact Medlink. They handle via online doctors and kits. Diversions to CAT A/B only.
(Ref: 22.11 Inflight Medical Emergencies)

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6
Q

What drift rate and G/S require techlog entry for IRS?

A

Drift > 3nm/hr or ground speed > 15 kt.
(Ref: 21.80 IRS Accuracy Check)

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7
Q

What are the protocols for onboard doctors?

A

Must be authorized by Medlink. Offloaded next sector unless cleared. Access to flight deck requires IOC and duty security approval.
(Ref: 22.11 Inflight Medical Emergencies)

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8
Q

When must ATS be available for EDTO alternates?

A

Not required in Australia. Outside Australia: must be available within 30 minutes.
(Ref: 14.4.1 Air Traffic Services)

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9
Q

What is the Captain responsible for before departure?

A

Check MELs, aircraft serviceability, fuel, performance, documentation, compliance with procedures, and crew fitness.
(Ref: 4.8.3 Captains)

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10
Q

How long can duty managers delay a flight for pax or cargo without escalation?

A

Up to 10 minutes. After that, they must contact Ops Control.
(Ref: 17.6.6 Delay Awaiting pax or Cargo)

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11
Q

What are the conditions for animals (non-service dogs) in the cabin?

A

In a small container. Must not affect others or aircraft safety.
(Ref: 17.3.5 Non-Dangerous Animals in Cabin)

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12
Q

When must prolonged flight in icing conditions be reported?

A

If in Moderate or Severe icing: log in techlog and submit RRM via Intelex.
(Ref: 3.2.5.8 Flight in Icing Conditions)

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13
Q

What are holding fuel requirements?

A

Calculated at FL200. 60 min for INTER TS. ATC holding only if NOTAM requires.
(Ref: 16.3.18 Holding Fuel)

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14
Q

What is the APU policy when passengers are on board?

A

Do not exceed 20 mins without fresh air. Cabin temp 10–27°C. Shut down/reduce load where possible.
(Ref: 21.22 APU Management)

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15
Q

What is required following an aircraft accident?

A

Medical examination is required to determine psychological or medical involvement and injury.
(Ref: 5.7 Aircraft Accidents)

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16
Q

How should PAs be handled during customer delays at the airport?

A

PIC should deliver them. Maintain high profile and engage with customers in lounge.
(Ref: 18.26 Passenger Announcements)

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17
Q

Should a belly landing be attempted over gear-down landings?

A

No, land on available gear. Belly landing on paved surface is safer than soft. (Ref: 22.16 Landings)

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18
Q

What topics must be covered in the preflight briefing with cabin crew?

A

Taxi time, flight time, details, weather, PA, life rafts/beacons, unserviceabilities, WORD.
(Ref: 18.4 Pre Flight Briefing with Cabin Crew)

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19
Q

When is CAV 01/02 required?

A

Severe turbulence or shear: 700kg for go-around (unless INTER/Alternate already loaded).
(Ref: 16.12 Approved Fuel Variations)

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20
Q

What actions is the PIC authorized to take for safety before and during flight?

A

The PIC can restrain, seize, remove or detain persons or items as necessary, including using reasonable force.
(Ref: 4.1 Command Authority)

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21
Q

What must be done after deciding to divert during EDTO?

A

Contact company as soon as practicable.
(Ref: 14.6.8 Company Communications)

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22
Q

What is required for inflight flight path management?

A

Monitor conditions to ensure safe arrival. Use all info including IOC. Advise IOC early if diverting.
(Ref: 21.2.1 Flight Path Management)

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23
Q

When is fuel tankering not permitted?

A

If performance is compromised (e.g., contamination, slippery wet forecast, displaced threshold). Needs 300m buffer.
(Ref: 16.9.6 Fuel Tankering)

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24
Q

When can flight crew act as door primary?

A

If supernumerary, briefed, in uniform, and IOC is aware.
(Ref: 18.3 Flight Crew Acting as Door Primary)

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25
Q

What are Pilot Reports used for and when must they be submitted?

A

For safety hazards, ATSB, DG, loading, or even non-safety issues. If ATSB-reportable, submit within 24 hours and notify Duty Captain or Fleet Safety Captain ASAP.
(Ref: 3.2.2.1 Safety Reports)

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26
Q

What weather criteria must EDTO alternates meet?

A

ADTO forecast ceiling/vis. Crosswind < 1-engine-inop limits. Disregard <PROB40.
(Ref: 14.5.5 EDTO Alternate Weather Assessment)

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27
Q

What must be done before diverting to an enroute or destination alternate?

A

Contact IOC. They’ll advise on crew duty, traffic, engineering, and pax facilities.
(Ref: 16.10.5 Diversion to Enroute or Destination Alternate)

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28
Q

Where can ground lighting requirements be found and what if no NOTAM exists?

A

In QRH and FAM. If no NOTAM, use default ALS length.
(Ref: 21.64.7 Ground Facilities and Lighting Requirements)

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29
Q

What is expected of employees under the Safety Reporting Policy?

A

Report all occurrences and near misses immediately, contribute to safety improvement, avoid violations, and report errors under Just Culture.
(Ref: 3.2.1 Safety Reporting Policy)

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30
Q

When must seat belts be worn by crew and passengers?

A

Below 1000 ft T/O or landing, instrument approach, turbulence if warranted, PIC discretion.
(Ref: 18.28 Seat Belt Policy)

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31
Q

When must a regulator be given access to the aircraft?

A

Only if they show proper identification. Without ID, access can be refused.
(Ref: 2.3 Supervision by Regulator)

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32
Q

What is required additional fuel?

A

Mandatory fuel upload. Must offload payload if needed to meet requirement.
(Ref: 16.3.26 Required Additional Fuel)

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33
Q

When must an altitude deviation be reported?

A

If deviation is 300 feet or more.
(Ref: 3.2.5.2 Assigned Altitude Deviation Reports)

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34
Q

What must be done when a passenger or crew member is unwell?

A

Patch checklist mostly completed and given to PIC. PIC fills flight details and uses form to contact MedLink.
(Ref: 18.43 Passenger or Crew Illness)

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35
Q

What are the AV/CAV fuel requirements for Wellington and Queenstown?

A

Wellington: 700kg (30–44kt) or alternate to NZCH/NZAA (>44kt). Queenstown: full alternate + 1400kg.
(Ref: 16.12 Approved Fuel Variations)

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36
Q

What does ‘Preferred or Recommended’ mean in manuals?

A

It should be treated as company policy. Deviation requires prior briefing, good CRM, and written justification in the interest of aircraft and personnel safety.
(Ref: 1.1 Purpose of Manual Suite)

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37
Q

When is RNP-AR recommended?

A

RNP-AR is recommended unless lower ILS minima is required.
(Ref: 21.17 RNP-AR)

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38
Q

What are the actions after engine failure during flight?

A

Notify ATC. Return to departure unless weather/closer airport preferred. Max takeoff thrust = 5 mins, note in techlog if exceeded.
(Ref: 22.7.2 Engine Failure During Flight)

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39
Q

Who is responsible for flight crew uniform dress standards?

A

Captains are now responsible. Concerns should be reported via Intelex.
(Ref: 4.18 Flight Crew Uniform Dress Standards)

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40
Q

What must be disclosed regarding fatigue?

A

Any condition that could impair ability to fly must be reported to the company.
(Ref: 6.1.3 Reporting and Disclosure to Company)

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41
Q

What should the PIC do during a ground delay?

A

PA every 15 min, liaise with CSM. Flight crew should engage business class.
(Ref: 18.27.2 Ground Delays)

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42
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

If OEI minima not met within 30 min after departure. Must be Cat A/B/C within 60 min or 400 nm, or 180 min/1200 nm with EDTO.
(Ref: 16.7.1 Takeoff Alternate)

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43
Q

What are the restrictions on electronic devices for flight crew?

A

No entertainment use. No recording below 10,000 ft. Ops use only. No non-operational iPad apps on duty.
(Ref: 21.14.1 Portable Electronic Devices on Flight Deck)

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44
Q

When can non-essential paperwork be completed on the flight deck?

A

Not until top of climb, including ETA or techlog.
(Ref: 21.47 Flight Deck Documentation)

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45
Q

What is the MOR and when can it be reduced?

A

Minimum for preflight. Can be reduced if using two DPAs, recalculated inflight.
(Ref: 16.3.19 Minimum Operational Requirement)

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46
Q

What checks are required before EDTO entry point?

A

TWINS: Two-way comms, Weather, Inflight fuel, NOTAMs, Significant systems.
(Ref: 14.6.2 EDTO Entry Point)

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47
Q

Who can issue Incident Control Directions and when must they be followed?

A

Issued in response to security incident. ATC may issue on behalf of DOIT. Follow unless safety is compromised.
(Ref: 20.22 Incident and Compliance Control Directions)

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48
Q

What must be done if deviating due to weather without clearance?

A

Declare PAN. Broadcast on center and guard. All lights on. Submit Intelex.
(Ref: 21.59 Weather Deviation Procedures)

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49
Q

When does the PIC have authority over crew?

A

During operational duty (report to customs exit). Overnight: PIC over flight crew, CSM over cabin crew.
(Ref: 4.3 Crew Management)

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50
Q

What are examples of when a Security Report is required?

A

Flight deck door issues, passenger restraint, PIC breach, or screening problems. Submit within 24 hours and notify Duty Captain/Security Controller.
(Ref: 3.2.2.1 Safety Reports)

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51
Q

How should RFF comms be handled?

A

Separate frequency. Inform ATC first. Use after aircraft stopped. (Ref: 22.20 Communication with Airport Fire Services)

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52
Q

What is the role of Fleet Safety in Qantas?

A

Fleet Safety operates independently on behalf of Qantas Safety, providing oversight and disseminating safety information through SINs, FSOs, Yammer, etc.
(Ref: 3.1.1 Safety Departments)

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53
Q

What is the PIC’s duty for confirming crew attendance?

A

The PIC must check attendance and request replacements no later than 5 minutes after sign-on.
(Ref: 6.3.5 Reporting for Duty at Airport)

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54
Q

What are TCAS radio calls?

A

‘TCAS RA’ and ‘Clear of conflict, returning to…’ (Ref: 22.13 TCAS)

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55
Q

What are the requirements to accept a Visual Departure by Day under IFR?

A

VMC below MVA/MSA, maintain heading from ATC, 500ft above OCTA, visual obstacle clearance.
(Ref: 21.10.2 IFR Flight Plans)

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56
Q

What are the rules for infant and child travel?

A

Infant >7 days or with clearance. 2–11 is child. 2–4 (domestic) or 2–5 (international) must be accompanied.
(Ref: 18.18 Carriage of Infants and Children)

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57
Q

What are Ramp Checks and what should pilots do?

A

Unannounced regulator checks pre/post flight. Pilots must complete a Pilot Report titled ‘Ramp Check’.
(Ref: 3.2.5.9 Ramp Checks)

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58
Q

What does Trip Fuel now encompass compared to Flight Fuel?

A

Trip Fuel now covers the entire route from takeoff to landing, including SID, STAR, and approach fuel, whereas Flight Fuel only covers takeoff to 1500 ft.
(Ref: 16.3.30 Trip Fuel)

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59
Q

What documents must be carried onboard?

A

Mostly on iPad. Hard copies: Certs & Docs folder, crew licenses, QRH, and (for international) pax list.
(Ref: 7.4.1 Documents to be Carried On Board)

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60
Q

When must vertical path be intercepted?

A

By FAF for instrument approaches, by 1000 ft RA if no instrument approach.
(Ref: 21.68 Interception of Nominated Vertical Approach Path)

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61
Q

How do you signal non-routine internal door opening?

A

Two knocks, response knock, then thumbs up.
(Ref: 18.24 Doors)

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62
Q

What are standard fuel figures for feet-specific planning?

A

Approach: 300kg, Taxi: 190kg, FRF: 1200kg, Holding: 60 min for INTER TS, Min EOD: 2700kg or 70/80 mins.
(Ref: 16.11 Feet Specific Information)

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63
Q

What are the responsibilities of the PIC?

A

Ensure safety of aircraft, passengers, cargo, mail, and crew. Govern all decisions by company policy.
(Ref: 2.2.2 Pilot in Command)

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64
Q

What is the standard climb speed below 10,000 ft?

A

250 knots.
(Ref: 21.48 Standard Climb Speeds)

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65
Q

What do you do if a door problem can’t be resolved without handle movement?

A

Return to gate and call engineers. Don’t open or rearm the door.
(Ref: 18.24 Doors)

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66
Q

What is the role of the Duty Captain?

A

They liaise between captain and operations on all safety-related matters and can organize IOC conference calls.
(Ref: 2.2.3 Duty Captain)

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67
Q

What is required for approval of some dangerous goods?

A

Written or verbal company approval with reference number.
(Ref: 17.2 Dangerous Goods)

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68
Q

When must a landing report be submitted?

A

Touchdown beyond 2000 ft with LDA < 2400 m or >2500 ft with LDA > 2400 m, or landing before threshold or in first 500 ft.
(Ref: 21.76 Landing)

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69
Q

What is planned additional fuel and can it be removed?

A

Non-mandatory company fuel. PIC may remove to facilitate payload.
(Ref: 16.3.24 Planned Additional Fuel)

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70
Q

Who is responsible for compliance with laws during flight and what if in a non-ICAO state?

A

The PIC is responsible. In non-ICAO states, Australian regulations apply if more limiting.
(Ref: 1.4 Compliance with Rules)

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71
Q

Can safety reports be confidential?

A

Yes, unless they involve a reportable incident/accident. SSQC may contact the reporter while keeping identity confidential.
(Ref: 3.2.2.3 Confidential Reporting)

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72
Q

What are the PIC responsibilities regarding the tech log?

A

Ensure it’s on board, CRS valid, review notices, confirm EDTO status, and log any required defects.
(Ref: 19.4 Aircraft Tech Log)

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73
Q

What is the COBT tolerance and ATFM compliance window?

A

-5 to +15 mins. Departing early may cause gate hold or delays.
(Ref: 17.6.4 ATFM)

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74
Q

What should be done if concerned about another crew member’s fitness to fly?

A

Inform the PIC. The PIC will assess and, if needed, contact Duty Captain or Station Manager.
(Ref: 5.3.1 Alcohol and Drugs)

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75
Q

Who is responsible for fuel planning and discretionary fuel?

A

PIC is responsible. IOC handles commercial risk. PIC must report payload offloads.
(Ref: 16.2 Responsibilities)

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76
Q

Who reports IFE defects and how?

A

The CSM is responsible. Defects must be reported ASAP via ACARS or radio.
(Ref: 4.21.2.4 Cabin IFE Defects)

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77
Q

What are the visual reference requirements to continue a low visibility approach?

A

3 longitudinal lights and lateral crossbar for SA CAT I/II/III, threshold or lights for CAT I, non-ILS needs stable path.
(Ref: 21.72 Approach Procedures)

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78
Q

What must the PIC do if maintenance staff don’t attend the aircraft?

A

Enter techlog/cabin log entries, consult MOC, sign as LAME with ARN, log MOC auth if given. Complete M/O items.
(Ref: 19.7 OPS Where Maintenance Staff Don’t Attend Aircraft)

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79
Q

What must be documented if police are involved in an inflight incident?

A

Facts only, not opinions. A complaint should still be filed even if pax calms down.
(Ref: 20.17 Inflight Violence)

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80
Q

How do FSOs and SINs relate to policy and what must be done with them?

A

FSOs override current policy until incorporated. FSOs and SINs must be read before departure.
(Ref: 1.7.2 FSOs, SINs, Notice to Flight Staffs)

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81
Q

What must be used to override automation?

A

Use MCP or disconnect buttons, not column force. Revert to manual if unsure, then reinstate.
(Ref: 21.13 Automation Systems)

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82
Q

Where is the freight manifest carried and why is it important?

A

In the yellow freight doc case in the hold; may be checked during ramp inspection.
(Ref: 7.3.5 Freight Manifest/Declaration of Cargo)

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83
Q

What action is required if landing occurs beyond 2000 ft?

A

If unsafe, go around before reverse thrust. If full reverse applied, landing must be completed.
(Ref: 21.76 Landing)

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84
Q

What is the timeframe for reporting WHS injuries, hazards, and near misses?

A

They must be reported within 24 hours. Follow-up will be handled by the base manager.
(Ref: 5.6 Reporting WHS Injuries, Hazards, Issues and WHS Near Misses)

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85
Q

What are fuel requirements for isolated destinations?

A

90 min additional fuel + 30 min FRF = 120 min total.
(Ref: 16.9.3 Isolated Destination Airports)

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86
Q

When is the final loadsheet issued and what must be checked?

A

Issued after cargo/pax clearance. Check flight number, rego, ENDO, ZFW, TOW, TOB, MACZFW, MACTOW, STAB.
(Ref: 17.1.4 Final Loadsheet)

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87
Q

What conditions must be immediately reported to ATC?

A

Severe weather, volcanic ash, laser events, RPAS/drones, navigation errors, and windshear.
(Ref: 3.2.6 Reports to Air Traffic Control Immediately)

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88
Q

When can delayed flap approaches be flown?

A

In VMC. In IMC only if coded or ILS/GLS mode used and no adverse conditions.
(Ref: 21.69 Delayed Flap Approach)

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89
Q

What are APU procedures during fueling?

A

APU can run. If fails/shuts down, remove refueling hoses. Shut APU after spill as soon as practical.
(Ref: 22.7.10 APU Management During Fueling)

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90
Q

What are the rules for conducting approaches in IMC?

A

Use automatics unless HUD. Guard controls, use FD and HUD where practical. Circling not permitted.
(Ref: 21.64 Conducting Approaches)

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91
Q

What communication is required after parking?

A

‘Park brake set, standing by for ground power.’
(Ref: 21.79 Pilot and Ground Crew Arrival Comms)

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92
Q

When can the aircraft re-enter EDTO after a diversion?

A

If no defects require maintenance and with MOC consultation.
(Ref: 19.7.3 Transit Following EDTO Diversions)

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93
Q

When is OPRISK used in fuel planning?

A

High = preflight fuel only. Medium/Low = may use inflight DPA fuel.
(Ref: 16.9.4 OPRISK)

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94
Q

When must you not use the digital terrain method?

A

Do not use it when off-track; use Grid MORA instead.
(Ref: 15.4.1 Digital Terrain Method)

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95
Q

What are the captain’s responsibilities after a traumatic event?

A

Assist crew and CSM, provide debrief and technical info, confirm EAP contacted, and give trauma first aid.
(Ref: 3.4.1 Captain’s Responsibilities to Crew After Traumatic Events)

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96
Q

What airports or routes require qualifications and renewals?

A

Queenstown and Antarctic routes.
(Ref: 15.2.4.2 Restricted Airport or Route)

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97
Q

Where is the restraint pack located and what if it’s missing?

A

In the physician’s kit. Can’t depart without PIC getting DSC clearance if missing.
(Ref: 20.16 Restraint of Passengers During Flight)

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98
Q

What does QOCS provide to flight crews?

A

QOCS provides preflight info, communication, inflight alerts, and does not contact unless necessary to avoid distractions.
(Ref: 2.2.4 Operational Control)

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99
Q

When must a Class 1 medical be updated?

A

Update with licensing at least 15 days before expiry and comply with license conditions.
(Ref: 4.10.6 Class 1 Medical)

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100
Q

What are DP1 and DPD fuel requirements?

A

15 min at 1500 ft overhead and any weather holding. Preflight only.
(Ref: 16.8.5 DP Fuel Requirements)

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101
Q

Does predicted low fuel below CPE require diversion during EDTO?

A

No. It’s a pre-flight planning requirement only, though it represents risk.
(Ref: 14.6.1 EDTO Inflight Fuel Requirements)

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102
Q

What is the delay tolerance if APU is unserviceable?

A

6-minute allowance after doors closed before pushback.
(Ref: 17.7.6 APU Unservicability)

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103
Q

What is ‘Blue on Blue’ and what is the restriction?

A

It identifies low competency pairing. Blue crew members must not be rostered together.
(Ref: 4.14.7 Blue on Blue)

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104
Q

What to do if thrust reverser remains unlocked on ground?

A

Shut down engine before gate to avoid FOD. (Ref: 22.16.4 Thrust Reverser remains Unlocked)

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105
Q

What are the categories of safety occurrences that must be reported?

A

Hazards, IRMs (red), and RRMs (amber). IRMs must be reported within 24 hrs and IOC notified.
(Ref: 3.2.4 Safety Occurrences to be Reported)

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106
Q

What must happen after a preflight security check is complete?

A

Aircraft must remain under continuous surveillance by at least one crew member.
(Ref: 20.3 Aircraft Security)

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107
Q

What must the PIC do following an Immediately Reportable Matter (IRM)?

A

Notify IOC ASAP. Ensure all stakeholders are involved and the crew remains for post-incident DAMP testing if needed.
(Ref: 3.2.3 Immediate Notification to IOC)

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108
Q

What are max descent rates during approach?

A

5000–3000 ft: ≤ aircraft height in FPM. 3000–1000 ft: ≤ 2000 FPM.
(Ref: 21.67.2 Rates of Descent)

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109
Q

What terms should be avoided in PAs and what phrase is useful during delays?

A

Avoid ‘storms, heavy rain, turbulence, ETA, FL’. Use ‘Safety before schedule’.
(Ref: 18.26 Passenger Announcements)

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110
Q

What defines a ‘Green’ crew member and what is the restriction?

A

Within 12 sectors and 100 hrs of line release. Cannot be rostered with another ‘Green’.
(Ref: 4.14.6 Green on Green)

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111
Q

How often must flight crew make contact?

A

Every 20–30 minutes. Must not exceed 1 hour.
(Ref: 18.39 Flight Crew Contact)

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112
Q

What PA content is needed before descent?

A

Descent timing, arrival time, local time, and weather.
(Ref: 18.26 Passenger Announcements)

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113
Q

What is the intent of the Qantas fuel policy?

A

To ensure sufficient fuel to reach an airport and land safely considering foreseeable hazards.
(Ref: 16.1 Fuel and Flight Planning)

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114
Q

What is the radio call for an emergency descent?

A

‘Emergency Descent’ (Ref: 22.15 Emergency Descent)

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115
Q

What are low visibility landing restrictions for new authorizations?

A

CAT I & SA CAT I unrestricted. CAT II/SA CAT II require 50 hrs or 20 sectors +100m RVR. CAT III manual not approved for first 100 hrs/40 sectors.
(Ref: 4.12 Low Visibility Qualification and Authorization)

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116
Q

What precautions are needed when disinsecting cargo holds?

A

Packs and RECIRC fans OFF. Confirm any fire warnings with engineer before action. Return systems to ON after 7 min.
(Ref: 8.4.4 Cargo Holds)

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117
Q

How are loadsheets handled during diversions?

A

All comms via IOC to Load Control. ZFW & pax must be same unless disembarking (100kg std wt).
(Ref: 17.1 Loadsheet)

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118
Q

What regulations must be followed when operating company aircraft globally?

A

Australian (CASA) regulations apply globally, and foreign regulations must also be followed where applicable.
(Ref: 2.2.1 Operation of Company Aircraft)

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119
Q

When can cabin doors be re-opened?

A

CSM can reopen any door prior to final close. After final door closed, PIC must approve.
(Ref: 18.24 Doors)

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120
Q

What is required for unrestricted routes/airports?

A

Self-brief from standard sources. Alternates unrestricted except Queenstown.
(Ref: 15.2.4.1 Unrestricted Airport or Route)

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121
Q

How many cabin crew are required for B737-800, and how are they allocated during refueling?

A

4 crew. During refueling: 1 at doors 1, 1 at doors 2, 1 roaming.
(Ref: 18.2 Cabin Crew Compliment)

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122
Q

What are taxiing rules and expectations?

A

Do not taxi without engineer signal. Confirm route and limits. Stop if unsure. Don’t enter runway with stop bar lights on.
(Ref: 21.33 Taxiing)

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123
Q

What are the different types of minima used when planning alternates?

A

The types include:
- Determining Minima (used for destination and DPA to assess need for alternate)
- Reduced Determining Minima (used in-flight if specific criteria are met)
- Qualifying Minima (for selecting enroute or destination alternates)
- EDTO Planning Minima (for checking adequacy of EDTO airports).
Use EFF minima if there are any inconsistencies.
(Ref: 16.5.4 Alternate Minima)

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124
Q

What are the RFFS requirements for EDTO alternates?

A

Not required in Australia. Overseas: minimum Cat 4 RFFS within 30 min.
(Ref: 14.4.2 Rescue Fire Fighting Services)

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125
Q

What are CAVs for Sydney and Cairns?

A

Sydney (CAV 01/98): Hold until 0550 for 34L >5kt tailwind. Cairns (CAV 01/01): 30 min for bird/fox hazard.
(Ref: 16.12 Approved Fuel Variations)

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126
Q

When can a further alternate be selected over nearest CAT A/B/C airport?

A

If safer after assessing malfunction, systems, weight, terrain, traffic, familiarity, etc.
(Ref: 22.3 Non-Normal/Abnormal Event Considerations)

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127
Q

What is the procedure for a non-routine internal door opening?

A

Two knocks, response knock, then thumbs up.
(Ref: 18.24 Doors)

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128
Q

What are the windshear intensity definitions for ATC reporting?

A

Light: minor deviation; Moderate: significant effect; Strong: hard to stay on path; Severe: affects aircraft controllability.
(Ref: 3.2.6 Reports to Air Traffic Control Immediately)

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129
Q

What does destination alternate fuel cover?

A

Missed approach, cruise, descend to 1500 ft. Does not include approach fuel.
(Ref: 16.3.8 Destination Alternate Fuel)

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130
Q

When must PPE be worn?

A

When required, supplied PPE must be worn.
(Ref: 5.13 Personal Protective Equipment)

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131
Q

What must the PIC do on ground with a bomb threat and no authority to search?

A

Ask emergency assessment team if safe. Crew may volunteer but not required.
(Ref: 20.20 Bomb and Other Sabotage Threats)

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132
Q

When does ‘off blocks’ commence and how are delays managed?

A

Starts at pushback. Clarify delays not apparent to ground. Codes in FAM 17.
(Ref: 17.6.3 Delayed Arrivals and Departure Times)

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133
Q

What is the rule on Required Additional Fuel?

A

Must not be reduced without consultation. Includes AVs, extra DP fuel, CDL/MEL fuel.
(Ref: 16.9 Preflight Fuel Requirements)

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134
Q

Who makes the final decision to exclude a passenger from a flight?

A

The PIC, considering CSM, airport security, or group security recommendations.
(Ref: 18.8 Exclusion from Flight)

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135
Q

What is the policy on gate hold?

A

Used to delay pushback when landing early. Passenger boarding proceeds as per precision schedule.
(Ref: 21.11 Gate Hold)

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136
Q

When can AV2 NZ takeoff alternates be used?

A

If within 400 nm of departure.
(Ref: 16.12 Approved Fuel Variations)

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137
Q

What must accompany a technical issue raised in a Pilot Report?

A

A corresponding techlog entry is required.
(Ref: 3.2.2.1 Safety Reports)

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138
Q

When are descending orbits allowed?

A

Not below 3000 ft. Above 3000 ft allowed for terrain, use autopilot.
(Ref: 21.67 Orbits)

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139
Q

When is a destination alternate required?

A

If weather, lighting, IAP, or forecast requirements are not met, unless isolated destination or 2 DPAs are planned.
(Ref: 16.7.2 Destination Alternate)

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140
Q

When must a radio altimeter anomaly be reported?

A

Any RA anomaly below 2500 ft or related system failure must be reported.
(Ref: 3.2.5.13 Erroneous Radio Altimeter Occurrence)

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141
Q

How is the presence of Air Security Officers (ASOs) communicated?

A

ACARS 15 min prior: ‘2 extra pax… 2C, inform CSM leave curtains open’. CSM discreetly alerts PIC.
(Ref: 20.19 Air Security Officers)

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142
Q

What steps are taken for inflight disruptive passengers?

A

Notify DSC via IOC. Consider no-fly notice. Use seat numbers only on radio/ACARS. Use ‘ATTN DSC’ in ACARS.
(Ref: 18.9 Disruptive Passengers)

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143
Q

Can you leave one engine running at the gate if APU is inop?

A

No, all engines must be shut down.
(Ref: 21.78 Parking)

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144
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance standard?

A

1000 ft over populous, 500 ft over non-populous (except takeoff/landing).
(Ref: 15.4 Obstacle Clearance Standards)

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145
Q

When must ATC be notified of flight plan variations?

A

If estimate differs by 2 minutes or speed by Mach 0.02 or more.
(Ref: 21.60 Notification ATC of Flight Plan Variations)

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146
Q

What is required to maintain low visibility landing recency?

A

1 HGS AIII manual landing using LVO in aircraft or sim within 90 days. Self-update via ADF on ACARS.
(Ref: 4.14.4 Low Visibility Recency)

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147
Q

What defines an EDTO adequate airport?

A

A, B or C airport with weather, facilities, dry LDA, and at least one instrument approach.
(Ref: 14.2.1 Adequate Airport)

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148
Q

What are PIC responsibilities during a ground delay?

A

PA every 15 min, liaise with CSM, 1 flight crew checks with business class.
(Ref: 18.27.2 Ground Delays)

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149
Q

When is a new OFP required?

A

If delay > 3 hrs or operational changes occur. Only fuel after OFP received.
(Ref: 21.83 Operational Flight Plans)

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150
Q

What must be done if taxi fuel exceeds plan?

A

Contact IOC unless you can meet minimum inflight fuel to DPA.
(Ref: 16.10.2 Taxi Fuel Burn)

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151
Q

What actions are required during extended ground delays on departure?

A

Shut down engines. One pilot remains. Reset cabin ready. Seat belts on. Reconfirm cabin ready before taxi.
(Ref: 21.37 Extended Ground Delays on Departure)

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152
Q

What are the reporting requirements when unfit for duty due to illness?

A

Report ASAP with nature and duration, provide certificate if sick more than 3 days/year, DAME clearance >7 days, company clearance >21 days.
(Ref: 5.8.1 Illness)

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153
Q

What are the requirements for flight crew logbooks?

A

Flight crew must maintain a personal logbook. A bound computer printout is acceptable.
(Ref: 4.16.1 Log Books)

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154
Q

What must happen if fuel spills near aircraft?

A

Within 15m: stop fueling, disembark passengers/crew, shut down power/vehicles, stop maintenance, no engine start. Notify ATC and RFF.
(Ref: 22.8 Ramp, Passenger and Crew Management During Fuel Spill)

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155
Q

What is an EA and when is it issued?

A

Qantas Engineering-issued: for mods, deactivations, or defects outside MEL/ATP. No hard copy required.
(Ref: 19.8 Maintenance Deviations)

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156
Q

What disciplinary authority does the PIC hold away from base?

A

The PIC may stand down any crew member for misconduct, negligence, or actions harming the company.
(Ref: 4.4 Discipline)

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157
Q

Can you nominate an alternate during curfew hours?

A

Yes, unless excluded by RMS or INTAM.
(Ref: 16.7.2 Destination Alternate)

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158
Q

What differentiates Light, Moderate, and Severe turbulence?

A

Severity, altitude change, strain on seatbelts, object displacement, and ability to walk. Severe requires Pilot and ATC report.
(Ref: 3.2.5.7 Turbulence Reporting)

159
Q

What are the PIC’s options when handling inflight violence?

A

1) Threat team advice. 2) Request police meet aircraft. 3) No support, submit report via duty manager to DSC.
(Ref: 20.17 Inflight Violence)

160
Q

What is an ATP and who issues it?

A

Authorised to extend MEL repair interval. Issued by senior Qantas personnel and Duty Captain.
(Ref: 19.8 Maintenance Deviations)

161
Q

What is a Special Flight Permit and when is it used?

A

Allows flight without meeting airworthiness. No pax. CASA approval, only in/over Australia.
(Ref: 19.8 Maintenance Deviations)

162
Q

What if APU is inop and temp is excessive?

A

Above 30°C, consider not boarding. Open doors or run 1 engine idle + packs to cool. Clear ground equipment.
(Ref: 21.22 APU Management)

163
Q

When must ZFW changes trigger a new flight plan?

A

Flights >1450nm: >1500kg requires new plan. <1450nm: adjust flight fuel per 100kg.
(Ref: 16.9.9 Zero Fuel Weight Changes)

164
Q

What must the PA before descent include?

A

Time to descent, arrival time, local time, weather.
(Ref: 18.26 Passenger Announcements)

165
Q

When is a walkaround required for landing gear pins?

A

Only required if pins are NOT removed.
(Ref: 21.29 Landing Gear Pins)

166
Q

What are considered acceptable defects that do not affect airworthiness?

A

Items covered by DDG, MEL, or maintenance manual; minor issues like light bulbs or frayed carpet.
(Ref: 19.1.1 Acceptable Defect)

167
Q

When should an aircraft be turned into bay?

A

Only with guidance/marshaller, FOD/equipment clear, and GREEN aerobridge.
(Ref: 21.78 Parking)

168
Q

What must be done if a passenger fails to board?

A

Their baggage must be offloaded. For transit pax, search their seat area for threats.
(Ref: 20.11.5 Fail to Board Passengers)

169
Q

When should aircraft lights be used?

A

Use all lights in Class G or E airspace. Avoid landing lights in low visibility.
(Ref: 21.32 Use of Lights)

170
Q

What must be done if a projected early arrival would breach curfew?

A

No slower than min manoeuvre speed and descend to best hold altitude.
(Ref: 17.6.9 Projected Early Arrivals)

171
Q

When must a preflight emergency and security inspection be conducted?

A

When aircraft not under constant supervision, or departing after maintenance away from terminal.
(Ref: 20.3 Aircraft Security)

172
Q

When can the PIC override procedures or ATC directions?

A

In sudden and extraordinary emergencies, if non-compliance is the only reasonable and effective response.
(Ref: 4.1.1 Emergency Authority)

173
Q

What is the policy on tyre changes during passenger boarding?

A

Boarding must stop. Passengers may remain seated at PIC discretion.
(Ref: 19.11 Tyre Changes During Passenger Boarding)

174
Q

How are dangerous goods by pax and crew reported?

A

Via NOTOC with seat number. May also be listed in final load SI.
(Ref: 17.2 Dangerous Goods)

175
Q

What documentation is the PIC provided before sign-on?

A

The PIC must be given a Certificate of Clearance (COC) either in physical form or electronically.
(Ref: 8.2 Documentation)

176
Q

What are the key FMA call requirements?

A

Call autopilot status first, call FMA changes, call on go-around. No calls after ‘Continue’ or in standard procedures.
(Ref: 21.13 Automation Systems)

177
Q

What are lateral and vertical tolerances for ILS and RNP approaches?

A

ILS LOC: 1 dot, G/S: 1 dot. RNP: within NPS. Missed if ‘OUTSIDE LIMITS’.
(Ref: 21.70.2 Tolerances During Approach)

178
Q

What other events require IOC notification besides IRMs?

A

Any event threatening safety, public image, or commercial operations.
(Ref: 3.2.3 Immediate Notification to IOC)

179
Q

What is Qantas’ safety objective?

A

To be a leader in illness, accident, and injury prevention through strong safety culture, effective systems, and quality processes.
(Ref: 3.1 Qantas Safety Policy)

180
Q

What are inflight requirements for persons in custody?

A

No alcohol, seated with escort, by window if possible, at rear, not near exits. PIC notified if restraint needed.
(Ref: 20.9.2 Persons in Custody)

181
Q

Who must be contacted during a diversion and who has final authority?

A

IOC should be contacted for preferred alternates. PIC has final authority.
(Ref: 21.58 Diversions)

182
Q

Where can pilots find drug categories and swab detection times?

A

Refer to the guide in 5.3.3 for effects and oral swab detection.
(Ref: 5.3.3 Drugs, Medications and Flying – Guide for Pilots)

183
Q

When must flight crew wear full harnesses?

A

During takeoff, landing, instrument approaches, turbulence, and when seatbelt sign is on.
(Ref: 21.7.8 Flight Crew Safety Harnesses and Seat Belts)

184
Q

Who is permitted access to the flight deck?

A

CASA authorised with ID, aircrew, Group employees with ASIC/visitor cards, Boeing (CP approval), ATC/BOM famil.
(Ref: 20.15 Flight Deck Security)

185
Q

What are the conditions for infant and child carriage?

A

Infants >7 days unless cleared. Children 2–11, with 2–4 (domestic) or 2–5 (int’l) needing an adult escort.
(Ref: 18.18 Carriage of Infants and Children)

186
Q

What documents must be carried for flight duty?

A

License, Class 1 medical, passport, and visas (paper only; digital not accepted yet).
(Ref: 4.7 Documentation on Flight Duty)

187
Q

When must a CRS be issued and what must the LAME complete?

A

After maintenance or checks. LAME checks prior entries, completes OIL and CRS block.
(Ref: 19.6.1 Certificate of Release to Service (CRS))

188
Q

When must the flight deck door be locked and closed?

A

Whenever the passenger door is locked and closed.
(Ref: 20.15 Flight Deck Security)

189
Q

What constitutes cabin ready for departure?

A

Cabin secure, doors armed, safety demo completed, cabin crew seated.
(Ref: 21.36 Cabin Ready for Departure)

190
Q

What are the four types of alternate minima?

A

Determining minima, Reduced Determining Minima, Qualifying Minima, and EDTO Planning Minima.
(Ref: 16.5.4 Alternate Minima)

191
Q

What is the purpose of the FAM in relation to the FCOM?

A

The FAM provides more limiting guidance or actionable explanation around the FCOM.
(Ref: 1.1 Purpose of Manual Suite)

192
Q

What is expected of Captains in their role?

A

Full authority over operations, foster open input, ensure aircraft and documentation readiness, and delegate if needed.
(Ref: 4.8.3 Captains)

193
Q

When can a person in custody be unescorted?

A

If under 12, deportee not restrained, or AWOL military. PIC must be advised. No alcohol.
(Ref: 18.21 Persons in Custody)

194
Q

What words should be avoided in PAs and what’s a useful phrase in delays?

A

Avoid ‘storms, heavy rain, turbulence, ETA, FL.’ Use ‘Safety before schedule.’
(Ref: 18.26 Passenger Announcements)

195
Q

What are the headset and speaker use requirements during flight?

A

Use headset all phases. If off, speaker ON unless resting. One ear off for taxi, takeoff, landing (flaps not up).
(Ref: 21.24 Headset Usage)

196
Q

What legal and operational authority does the PIC hold?

A

The PIC has authority by law and company position over the aircraft and discipline onboard, to ensure safety and compliance with Qantas manuals.
(Ref: 4.1 Command Authority)

197
Q

What are regulatory requirements for ILS autoland categories?

A

SA CAT I/II, CAT II: Autoland or AIII HUD. CAT IIIA: AIII HUD. Max 15 kt crosswind. Braking MED or better.
(Ref: 21.65 Regulatory Criteria for ILS Approaches)

198
Q

How is FOD calculated?

A

Fuel uplift – Flight Fuel + Taxi Fuel. Fuel at 1500 ft AGL, approach fuel not included.
(Ref: 16.3.16 Fuel Over Destination)

199
Q

What is the role of monitoring and crosschecking?

A

To build shared mental models. PMS primarily monitors the flight path.
(Ref: 21.4 Monitoring and Crosschecking)

200
Q

What must be done if flying more than 0.02 Mach different to plan?

A

Advise ATC.
(Ref: 17.6.8 Projected Late Arrivals)

201
Q

What are the rules for carrying livestock?

A

FWD preferred. Not near dry ice. FWD or AFT <90 min. FWD only >90 min or international (with approval).
(Ref: 17.3.4 Livestock)

202
Q

What must be done if a significant system fails during EDTO?

A

Land at nearest A, B, or C within diversion time. If landing at C, declare emergency.
(Ref: 14.6.5 EDTO Significant System)

203
Q

When is operation below LSALT/MSA permitted on departures and arrivals?

A

During SID, CDP, surveillance, visual departure (VMC), STAR, instrument approach, DME height charts, or visual approach.
(Ref: 15.4.3 Operations Below LSALT/MSA)

204
Q

When should idle reverse thrust be used during landing roll?

A

Use with autobrake 1, 2, or 3, code 6 or 5, and when OPT or MEL permits no or idle reverse.
(Ref: 21.76.4 Landing Roll Reverse Thrust)

205
Q

What are the foundations of Qantas’ Safety Policy?

A

Built on a safety culture, open reporting, leadership by example, education, continuous monitoring, and risk management. Unsafe operations must not be conducted.
(Ref: 3.1 Qantas Safety Policy)

206
Q

What is the bomb threat procedure in flight?

A

Treat as emergency. Take all steps to safeguard. Land at nearest available airport.
(Ref: 20.20 Bomb and Other Sabotage Threats)

207
Q

What is included in Trip Fuel and how does it differ from Flight Fuel?

A

Trip Fuel includes fuel from takeoff to landing (SID, STAR, approach), while Flight Fuel ends at 1500 ft.
(Ref: 16.3.30 Trip Fuel)

208
Q

What are the iPad app backup requirements for dispatch?

A

Cat A: must be on 2 iPads (Jepp FD, EFF, OPT, etc.). Cat B: on 1 iPad (Wx brief). Cat C: admin apps not required at dispatch.
(Ref: 7.4.2 iPad Applications)

209
Q

How is an ambulance arranged for onboard illness?

A

Via company or Medlink after assessment. Medlink may initiate call if hospitalization expected.
(Ref: 22.11 Inflight Medical Emergencies)

210
Q

When should a crew member not operate due to fatigue?

A

If fatigue impairs performance to the point where safety could be affected.
(Ref: 6.1.2 Fitness to Fly)

211
Q

How is contingency fuel calculated?

A

Greater of: 5% trip fuel or to alternate, or 5 mins at 1500 ft (~200 kg). Max 1000 kg. Not required after DPA.
(Ref: 16.3.7 Contingency Fuel)

212
Q

Can you divert to a CAT C or D airport for medical emergencies?

A

No. Some CAT B may also have restrictions. Refer RMS.
(Ref: 21.58 Diversions)

213
Q

What are standard descent speeds?

A

Max 250 kt below 10,000 ft. ECON 280–310 kt ±10 kt.
(Ref: 21.62 Standard Descent Speeds)

214
Q

What is Qantas policy regarding airspace usage?

A

Operate IFR in controlled airspace. Avoid Class G unless approved. Prohibited only in emergencies.
(Ref: 15.3 Airspace Policy)

215
Q

What are the curfew fuel planning rules?

A

Before curfew ends: hold until 10 min prior. Before curfew starts: alternate required within 15 min of start.
(Ref: 16.9.5 Curfew Planning)

216
Q

What must flight crew know about their route and alternates?

A

Runways, lighting, approach aids/minima, terrain, airspace, MET, and any special procedures.
(Ref: 15.2.1 Flight Crew Considerations)

217
Q

What indicates an engine bird strike with damage?

A

Increased vibration, abnormal engine parameters, or parameter difference between engines. Land at nearest suitable.
(Ref: 22.7.3 Bird Strike)

218
Q

What APU actions must be recorded in the techlog?

A

APU started in flight, left running whole sector, or inflight start success.
(Ref: 19.10 APU)

219
Q

Which external authorities may assume control over the aircraft?

A

CASA (for safety/regulation) and RFF (for emergency access/control).
(Ref: 4.1.2 External Authorities Assuming Control)

220
Q

How many missed approaches are allowed due to weather?

A

Limit to 2. Only conduct a 3rd if assured of landing or greater emergency exists.
(Ref: 21.75.2 Missed Approach Procedures)

221
Q

What are key physical condition limitations before flying?

A

URTI (avoid crew transport), food poisoning (report), 48 hrs after blood donation or anaesthetic, 24 hrs after scuba.
(Ref: 5.5 Specific Physical Conditions)

222
Q

What are recency requirements for takeoff and landing?

A

1 takeoff and landing within 45 days or pass a flight test with a landing. Auto-lands don’t count.
(Ref: 4.14.2 Captains and First Officers Recency)

223
Q

When is the flight deck considered sterile?

A

From door close to seat belts AUTO and preparing to arrive at gate. Cabin crew contact only for safety/operational reasons.
(Ref: 21.46 Sterile Flight Deck)

224
Q

What considerations apply for LAHSO?

A

RCAM must be GOOD if wet/damp. Confirm LDA in OPT and plan for possible go-around.
(Ref: 21.76.6 LAHSO)

225
Q

How does a non-routine disembarkation differ from evacuation?

A

It’s slower, not serious. May upgrade to evac anytime. (Ref: 22.18 Non-Routine Disembarkation)

226
Q

What is the fuel and emissions reduction strategy?

A

Safety comes first, then sustainability if suitable. Minimize APU, single-engine taxi, early shutdown, delayed flap use, idle reverse, and use risk-based discretionary fuel.
(Ref: 1.5.5 Environment and Carbon Emission Reduction)

227
Q

What are the inflight fuel requirements under 16.10.1?

A

Trip fuel, contingency fuel, holding fuel, MEL/CDL/other mandated fuel, and 1200kg FRF.
(Ref: 16.10.1 Inflight Fuel Requirements)

228
Q

What are the requirements for aircraft fueling with pax onboard?

A

Seat belts off, emergency lights armed, and embark/disembark allowed.
(Ref: 18.23 Aircraft Fueling With Passengers Onboard)

229
Q

What does ‘Air Transport Operation’ replace and what other operations are defined?

A

‘Air Transport Operation’ replaces RPT and charter. Also includes cargo operations. Part 91 applies when not for hire/reward.
(Ref: 1.4.1 Kinds of Operation)

230
Q

What defines an isolated destination fuel requirement?

A

Fuel must exceed that to a destination alternate plus FRF by 2 hours.
(Ref: 16.3.15 Isolated Destination Airport)

231
Q

What is the minimum slope clearance and HUD requirement?

A

Must clear threshold by 20 ft; HUD meets electronic slope guidance requirement.
(Ref: 15.2.5 Approach Slope Guidance Requirements)

232
Q

What braking setting should be used for ‘slippery when wet’ conditions?

A

Use autobrake setting 3. Avoid landing with RCAM 1 or 0 unless emergency.
(Ref: 21.76.5 Landing on Other than Dry Runways)

233
Q

What must be checked in the Tech Log for EDTO?

A

Ensure CRS signed EDTO or aircraft noted as ETOPS180 in ELOG.
(Ref: 14.5.8 Technical Log Requirements)

234
Q

What are the company procedures for engine-out missed approaches?

A

Use company CDP if unable to meet climb gradient, advise ATC in advance.
(Ref: 21.75.2 Missed Approach Procedures)

235
Q

What are the NADP thrust and acceleration heights?

A

Default NADP 2: Thrust 1000 ft, Accel 1000 ft. NADP 1: Thrust 1000 ft (1500 ft ICAO A), Accel 3000 ft.
(Ref: 21.42 Noise Abatement Considerations)

236
Q

What is the weather window for ETOU planning?

A

Dest/DPA: 30 min before/after ETA. Enroute Alt: -30/+60 min. Isolated Dest: -30/+60 min.
(Ref: 16.3.11 Estimated Time of Use)

237
Q

What are the requirements for idle engine runs with passengers onboard?

A

Cabin crew brief, engine to shut down pre door close, seatbelt sign off, idle only, flight crew responsible for evac.
(Ref: 19.9 Engine Runs)

238
Q

What are the requirements for controlled rest on the flight deck?

A

Max 45 min, not within 30 min of TOD. Twice per crew per sector. Harness on. 10 min recovery. 20 min gap.
(Ref: 21.56 Controlled Rest on Flight Deck)

239
Q

When can Reduced Determining Minima be used?

A

In flight or after DPA, using ICAO TAF with trend or High Freq TAF. No delays at ETOU. Outside AUS: either 25 min holding fuel or separate runways.
(Ref: 16.5.4.4 Reduced Determining Minima)

240
Q

What must be done in anticipated turbulence?

A

CSM advised early. PA made. Seatbelt sign on no later than 1 min before.
(Ref: 18.28 Seat Belt Policy)

241
Q

What are the key stable flight approach tolerances?

A

Descent rate >1000 FPM below 1000 ft RA, airspeed -5/+10 kt, on centerline by 500 ft RA.
(Ref: 21.70.2 Tolerances During Approach)

242
Q

How must a tech log entry be corrected?

A

Rule through error with a single line, write ‘ENTERED IN ERROR’, then use new coupon for correction.
(Ref: 19.6.3 Technical Log Entry Modifications)

243
Q

Can baggage travel without the passenger during disruptions?

A

Yes, if screened and delay was outside their control (e.g. weather, ATC, failure). Contact DSC if medical.
(Ref: 20.11.6 Movement of Checked Baggage During Disruptions)

244
Q

What are the PIC duties when passengers are carried without cabin crew?

A

Designate a flight crew member for cabin duties, brief passengers, ensure baggage is stowed and belts secured.
(Ref: 9.1.2 Flight Crew Duties Without Cabin Crew)

245
Q

What are the key declarations made when reporting for duty?

A

That license, medical, passport are current, recency is up to date, FSOs and SINs read, and iPad/apps updated.
(Ref: 4.8 Flight Crew Duties)

246
Q

What happens if an ASO is compromised?

A

Move to cabin interphone, may speak to captain. Not a hijack. CSM contacts PIC discreetly if ASO needed.
(Ref: 20.19 Air Security Officers)

247
Q

How should approaches be flown to displaced thresholds?

A

Fly as 3D if new coded approach exists. If not, fly using 2D method. Use NOTAM data but not flown as 3D.
(Ref: 21.64.8 Operations to Displaced Thresholds)

248
Q

What are key rules for RVSM operations?

A

‘W’ annotated on flight plan. ‘Negative RVSM’ if revoked. Deviations >300 ft must be reported.
(Ref: 15.5.3 RVSM Operations)

249
Q

What are comms policies for company frequency and uncontrolled airports?

A

Company freq: only ops messages. Be aware of public monitoring. Non-controlled: readback required.
(Ref: 21.18 Communication)

250
Q

What is required when using the Suspicious Article Action Plan?

A

Only used with PIC consent. Notify Flight Libraries via Duty Dispatch Manager after each use.
(Ref: 20.21.1 Suspicious Article Action Plan)

251
Q

Where should touchdown occur in normal conditions?

A

Within 1000–2000 ft touchdown zone. Aim closer to start in limiting conditions.
(Ref: 21.76 Landing)

252
Q

What are key procedures for operations into non-controlled airports?

A

Use autopilot to scan for traffic. All lights on. Briefing before TOD. Use HF/phone if no VHF. Separate traffic by 1000 ft or laterally.
(Ref: 21.61 Operations to Non-Controlled Airports)

253
Q

What types of weather forecasts are used and how do they differ?

A

ICAO landing forecasts (used in most places) include a trend indicator. High-frequency TAFs (used in Canada, New Zealand, and the US) are updated at least every 3 hours but are not ICAO landing forecasts.
(Ref: 16.3.31 Weather Forecasts)

254
Q

What is the EDTO diversion profile?

A

Descend to diversion alt, cruise at AFM speeds, descend to 1500 ft, approach and land.
(Ref: 14.5.2 Critical Fuel Scenario and Diversion Profiles)

255
Q

What are the requirements for carriage of service dogs?

A

Approved by Special Handling, must be restrained (leash to seat, moisture mat), last to board. PIC may refuse.
(Ref: 18.16 Service Dogs)

256
Q

How are safety incidents classified and handled?

A

Classified as High, Medium, or Low. Interviews may involve support person. Followed by Just Culture review, interim and final report.
(Ref: 3.3 Accident and Investigation)

257
Q

What types of flights are classified as non-revenue?

A

Assessment, display, positioning, and training flights.
(Ref: 9.1.1 Non-Revenue Flight Classification)

258
Q

What is the reference order for handling abnormals?

A

Primary: ECL > QRH > FCOM > FAM. Secondary (if time permits): FCTM for additional guidance.
(Ref: 1.1 Purpose of Manual Suite)

259
Q

What are valid reasons to exclude a passenger from flight?

A

Drugs/alcohol, improper behavior, failure to follow instructions, unsound mind, firearms, annoyance/danger.
(Ref: 18.8 Exclusion from Flight)

260
Q

What are the alcohol rules for flight crew?

A

No flying within 8 hours of alcohol. Cannot consume alcohol in uniform or remove alcohol from the aircraft.
(Ref: 5.3.1 Alcohol and Drugs)

261
Q

What is the restriction on electronics during refueling?

A

No phones or electronics within 3 metres of the aircraft.
(Ref: 21.9 Aircraft Refueling)

262
Q

How is a cabin smell event categorized?

A

Abnormal smell to environment with no apparent effects. (Ref: 22.12 Cabin Smoke, Fumes and Smells)

263
Q

What does taxi fuel include and can it be reduced?

A

Includes APU burn post-fuel uplift. PIC may reduce if not needed.
(Ref: 16.3.29 Taxi Fuel)

264
Q

What RNP values are required by phase of flight?

A

En Route: RNP 2, SID/STAR/Initial/Missed: RNP 1, Final: RNP APCH.
(Ref: 21.54 Navigation Procedures)

265
Q

What if the EDTO alternate becomes unavailable after entry?

A

The flight may continue at PIC discretion.
(Ref: 14.6.4 EDTO Alternate Unavailable)

266
Q

What if departing late under ATFM?

A

Contact MOCO for new COBT. If not available, depart non-compliant—ATC won’t deny but expect holding.
(Ref: 17.6.4 ATFM)

267
Q

When using the digital terrain method, what buffer is applied to terrain?

A

2000 ft if terrain is above 5000 ft AMSL, 1000 ft if below.
(Ref: 15.4.1 Digital Terrain Method)

268
Q

What makes a runway ‘suitable’ for use at ETOU?

A

Good length, width, crosswind/tailwind within limits, lighting, and pavement strength.
(Ref: 16.5.4.3 Concepts)

269
Q

What are the Captain’s key responsibilities during flight?

A

Ensure flight is safe, systems operated per procedures, supervise duties, comply with ATC, and manage discipline.
(Ref: 4.8.3 Captains)

270
Q

What are the rules for child restraints onboard?

A

Approved harnesses not listed on BP. Car seats require SH or Duty Manager approval, max 5 yrs. Boosters not approved.
(Ref: 18.18 Carriage of Infants and Children)

271
Q

What should the PIC do if custody info not received?

A

Contact DSC to confirm threat/escort/additional info. Record the details.
(Ref: 20.9.2 Persons in Custody)

272
Q

When must a Compliance Control Direction be followed and how is it issued?

A

Issued in person, on ground only. Confirm formally via DSC. Must comply unless safety is jeopardised.
(Ref: 20.22 Incident and Compliance Control Directions)

273
Q

What are APU procedures on departure and arrival?

A

Departure: delay start, check local rules. Arrival: start approaching park, shut down with ground power.
(Ref: 21.22 APU Management)

274
Q

What is the rule on discussing operational matters in front of passengers?

A

Avoid discussing operational issues like weather. If questioned, reassure flight will only proceed if safe.
(Ref: 18.32 Discussion of Operational Matters in Presence of Passengers)

275
Q

What is the Qantas policy for automation use?

A

Use all available automation unless it reduces situational awareness. Revert to manual if unsure.
(Ref: 21.3 Automation System Management)

276
Q

What are the three EDTO diversion strategies?

A

Time strategy, Fuel strategy, Obstacle strategy (e.g., high terrain or OEI clearance).
(Ref: 14.6.7 Diversion Strategies)

277
Q

What is the difference between Monitored and Turnaround Departure?

A

Monitored: Bridging visa and ticket. Turnaround: Refused entry, returned within 72 hrs.
(Ref: 20.9.3 Turnaround and Monitored Departure)

278
Q

What should be provided during trauma first aid while waiting for EAP?

A

Basic comfort, safe space, facts, listening, referral, help contact safe person, reassure focus is their wellbeing.
(Ref: 3.4.3 Trauma First Aid)

279
Q

What are the RFFS rules for EDTO and inflight diversions?

A

Not required in Australia. Inflight: PIC may choose to land without RFFS if safer.
(Ref: 15.2.6 Rescue and Fire Fighting Services)

280
Q

What is the rule for ‘second lowest minima’?

A

Must use separate aids; RNP LNAV is second to RNP AR/LNAV-VNAV.
(Ref: 16.5.4.3 Concepts)

281
Q

When must EFF Crew Messages be reviewed?

A

Preflight: before fuel order. All: prior to use or reliance. All except Low must be read.
(Ref: 21.14.6 EFF Crew Messages Review)

282
Q

What are the minimum limits for Captains during takeoff and landing?

A

Takeoff: 75m RVR. Landing: 200ft and 800m or 550m RVR depending on visibility.
(Ref: 4.11.1 Limits for Captains)

283
Q

What are the day and night requirements for visual approaches?

A

Day: 30nm, ground/water in sight, 5000m vis, clear of cloud. Night: Ground/water in sight, 5000m vis, clear of cloud, and meet specific distance requirements.
(Ref: 21.10.2 IFR Flight Plans)

284
Q

What are the three types of loadsheets and how are they accepted?

A

ACARS (ACK), EFF (accept in app), Email (reply ‘Accepted and Approved’).
(Ref: 17.1 Loadsheet)

285
Q

When are brake fires most likely to occur?

A

After brake or wheel maintenance due grease or hydraulic spill. (Ref: 22.17 Brake Fires)

286
Q

What are initial command minimums for new Captains?

A

180 hours or 32 sectors as PIC in the first 6 months.
(Ref: 4.14.5.3 Initial Commands)

287
Q

What fuel elements are required preflight?

A

Taxi, Trip, Contingency, Holding, Required Additional, Arrival Allowance, Alternate Fuel (if req), FRF (1200 kg).
(Ref: 16.9 Preflight Fuel Requirements)

288
Q

How do you assess a suspicious item or substance?

A

Use the HOT principle: Hidden, Obviously Suspicious, Typical of area. Don’t touch it. Notify CSM/PIC.
(Ref: 20.3.5 Doubtful or Suspicious Articles)

289
Q

What does the APPROACH acronym stand for in post-event debriefs?

A

ASAP, Participation, Purpose, Review, Operational relevance, Ask questions, Check understanding, Help crew access EAP.
(Ref: 3.4.2 Captain’s Operational Debrief With Crew)

290
Q

When and how must autoland be flown?

A

Only on approved runways in QRH. No re-engage AP below 1000 ft. Unsatisfactory landings must be reported.
(Ref: 21.66 Autoland)

291
Q

When must a fatigue report be submitted?

A

For operations beyond TOD limits, fatigue affecting fitness for duty, identifying fatigue risks in patterns, or impacts on subsequent TOD.
(Ref: 3.2.7 Fatigue Reporting)

292
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required and what categories are acceptable?

A

When returning to the departure airport is not possible. Must be Cat A, B or C.
(Ref: 16.3.1.8 Takeoff Alternate)

293
Q

What are the communication rules at the gate and during pushback?

A

Maintain listening watch on company and ground interphone. Engineer contact direct. Use hand signals if headset fails.
(Ref: 21.23 Communication at the Gate and on the Ground)

294
Q

How is EDTO maximum diversion distance calculated?

A

Max diversion speed × max time. For 737: 0.79/310 kts TAS, up to 1200 NM.
(Ref: 14.2.13 EDTO Maximum Diversion Distance)

295
Q

When and how can iPads be charged by flight crew?

A

Only above 10,000 ft or stationary on ground. Use genuine Apple adapter + quality cable. No phone charging.
(Ref: 21.14.1 Portable Electronic Devices on Flight Deck)

296
Q

What is the purpose of the Journey Log?

A

Required by CASA for every flight and compiles multiple records, not just the flight log.
(Ref: 7.3.7 Journey Log)

297
Q

When is RNP AR recommended?

A

RNP AR is recommended for all arrivals and departures when ILS/GLS not available.
(Ref: 15.5.2 RNP AR Operations)

298
Q

When is valid disinsection required?

A

Only for international flights.
(Ref: 8.4.2 Disinsection)

299
Q

When should the cabin be prepared for landing?

A

Prepare from 20,000 ft but not below 10,000 ft. Allow 10 mins. Confirm with ‘Prepare cabin PA received’.
(Ref: 21.63.2 Prepare Cabin)

300
Q

What are hold preferences for perishables?

A

AFT preferred. AFT for >90 min. FWD not allowed without dry ice. AFT only for international.
(Ref: 17.3.6 Perishables)

301
Q

When are seatbelts alone required?

A

At all times when the aircraft is moving.
(Ref: 21.7.8 Flight Crew Safety Harnesses and Seat Belts)

302
Q

Can a PIC deviate from regulations?

A

Yes, but only if necessary for aircraft safety, such as to avoid collision or navigate in special circumstances.
(Ref: 1.4 Compliance with Rules)

303
Q

What are First Officer limitations for takeoff, landing, and crosswind?

A

Takeoff: 800m. Landing: 200ft and 800m/550 RVR. Max crosswind 25kt, 15kt in first 12 months or 4 cyclics.
(Ref: 4.11.2 First Officer Limits)

304
Q

What is the radio call for a windshear event?

A

‘Windshear escape’ and ‘Clear of windshear, returning to…’ (Ref: 22.14 Windshear)

305
Q

When should MAYDAY or PAN PAN be used?

A

MAYDAY for immediate danger, PAN PAN for less urgent conditions. Notify ATC then IOC.
(Ref: 22.6 Notification)

306
Q

What are examples of flights without commercial passengers?

A

Positioning, ferry, freight-only, delivery or lease-return flights.
(Ref: 9.4 Flights Without Commercial Passengers)

307
Q

Should flight crew troubleshoot systems inflight?

A

No, troubleshooting is not normally attempted. MOC may guide but cannot authorize anything outside QRH.
(Ref: 22.7.1 System Failures and Troubleshooting Inflight)

308
Q

What checks must be made on a provisional loadsheet?

A

Date, rego, dep/arr, crew, city pair, removable equipment, fuel, captain name.
(Ref: 17.1.3 Provisional Loadsheet)

309
Q

When can discretionary fuel be uploaded and what must be done if >400kg?

A

Only for known but unplanned reasons. Report via EFF if >400kg.
(Ref: 16.9.7 Discretionary Fuel)

310
Q

What are the steps in flight crew incapacitation?

A

Challenge, take over, fly safely, remove or care for incapacitated crew. Only flight crew in vacant seat. PIC decides if to divert.
(Ref: 22.10.2 Flight Crew Incapacitation)

311
Q

What are the stable approach criteria at 500 ft RA?

A

Descent rate ≤ 1000 fpm, PAPI not significantly deviated, on centerline by 500 ft, speed -5/+10 kt, thrust correct for config.
(Ref: 21.71 Stable Approach)

312
Q

What is the maximum LMC for traffic and fuel?

A

500kg each. Exit row movement in rows 10–18 can exceed traffic limit (up to 6 pax).
(Ref: 17.1.7 Last Minute Changes)

313
Q

When is cabin crew required for flights with non-operational persons?

A

If carried <8 hrs, one cabin crew required unless authorized. Max 19 without cabin crew.
(Ref: 9.4.1.1 Cabin Crew Complement Without Commercial Passengers)

314
Q

Who receives fatigue reports and how are they treated?

A

Submitted confidentially to FSAG.
(Ref: 3.2.2.1 Safety Reports)

315
Q

What are the rules for persons in custody?

A

PIC must be advised. Escorted unless under 12, deportee not restrained, or AWOL military. No alcohol.
(Ref: 18.21 Persons in Custody)

316
Q

What are the reporting requirements for smoke or fumes in the aircraft?

A

Notify IOC and MOC, complete a techlog entry, submit a Pilot Report (IRM or RRM), and file an Injury/Illness form for each affected crew member.
(Ref: 3.2.5.11 Smoke, Fumes and Smell Reporting Requirements)

317
Q

Who must be PF during approaches near minima?

A

Captain if within 200 ft or 2000 m of minima, unless deteriorating conditions where FO can land below 1000 ft RA.
(Ref: 21.72 Approach Procedures)

318
Q

What are standard report times for paxing and operating crew?

A

Paxing: 30 min domestic, 60 min international. Operating: 60 min at all terminals.
(Ref: 6.2.2 Report Times)

319
Q

What is the response to unanticipated light turbulence?

A

Seatbelt PA made. Crew must be seated within 1 minute.
(Ref: 18.28 Seat Belt Policy)

320
Q

What is the company policy when balancing safety and efficiency?

A

Safety takes priority over schedule. Best efforts should be made to provide passenger comfort and efficiency.
(Ref: 1.3 Policy)

321
Q

What are sector requirements after release to line for Captains?

A

1 sector in 14 days, or 2 in 28 days. Otherwise, sim exercise may be required.
(Ref: 4.14.5.2 Post Training Recency Captain)

322
Q

What is the difference between a LAME and AME?

A

LAME is licensed and signs off AME work. CRS must be signed by a LAME even if AME does work.
(Ref: 19.12 LAME vs AME)

323
Q

How should a smell event be reported?

A

Notify MOC, complete a techlog entry and Pilot Report. No ATSB report required. Submit Injury/Illness forms for each affected crew member.
(Ref: 3.2.5.11 Smoke, Fumes and Smell Reporting Requirements)

324
Q

What are the actions for a fumes event in the cabin?

A

Crew may feel dizzy or short of breath. Techlog + Intelex + Medical attention + Operational debrief + ACARS via IOC. (Ref: 22.12 Cabin Smoke, Fumes and Smells)

325
Q

What is required when requesting non-standard levels in controlled airspace?

A

Say ‘due operational requirement’. Must comply within one minute of clearance.
(Ref: 21.49.2 Flight Levels in Controlled Airspace)

326
Q

What if fuel deteriorates past DPA?

A

May continue if it’s the safest course of action, but must not use FRF.
(Ref: 16.10.4 At DPA Requirement to Continue)

327
Q

Can a hold bag be brought to the aircraft or aerobridge?

A

No. If needed for medical reasons, passenger and bag must be offloaded and re-screened.
(Ref: 20.11.11 Segregation from Cabin and Sterile Areas)

328
Q

What are the approach calls at 1000 ft, 100 above and minima?

A

1000 ft: PM - ‘Configured’, PF - ‘Flare Armed’ or landing type; 100 above: PM - ‘100 Above’; Minima: PF - ‘Continue’ or ‘Go Around’.
(Ref: 21.72 Approach Procedures)

329
Q

What is the company policy on speaking to the media?

A

Politely decline and refer to Qantas Corporate Communication. Unauthorized sharing may result in dismissal.
(Ref: 1.5.3 Information to Media)

330
Q

What documents are found in the Certificate & Documents folder?

A

Includes AOC, Registration, Airworthiness, Insurance, Radio License, Disinsection. Contact Duty Captain if missing.
(Ref: 7.3.2 Certificate and Documents Folder)

331
Q

What are guidelines for using over-the-counter meds before flying?

A

Assess the condition and side effects. Consider ground trial. Discuss with DAME.
(Ref: 5.3.2.1 Medications, Drugs and Flying)

332
Q

Under what law can passengers be restrained and what steps must the PIC take?

A

CASR 91.220. Reasonable force allowed if offence committed/threat present. Inform subject of offence. Deliver into custody.
(Ref: 20.16 Restraint of Passengers During Flight)

333
Q

What PA is required after a missed approach?

A

Captain must make a factual and reassuring PA.
(Ref: 21.75.2 Missed Approach Procedures)

334
Q

When should a captain conduct an operational debrief?

A

At their discretion, after assessing crew impact. Not for every non-normal. Follows the APPROACH acronym.
(Ref: 3.4.2 Captain’s Operational Debrief With Crew)

335
Q

What defines an unstable approach even if tolerances are met?

A

Speedbrake arming below 500 ft or checklist items not complete.
(Ref: 21.71 Stable Approach)

336
Q

What must be done if a passenger is unwell before boarding?

A

CSM advises ground staff & PIC. Medlink contacted. PIC briefed on Medlink advice.
(Ref: 18.10.1 Unwell Passengers Boarding)

337
Q

When should control of the aircraft be handed over?

A

During meals, document handling, major FMS mods, or PA announcements.
(Ref: 21.8.3 Changing Control)

338
Q

What should you do if TCAS and ATC conflict?

A

Follow TCAS over ATC. (Ref: 22.13 TCAS)

339
Q

What must be done regarding contactability at a slip port?

A

Notify the captain and aircrew scheduling to ensure contact can be made.
(Ref: 6.3.8 Contactability at Slip Port)

340
Q

What happens during lightning within 5nm?

A

Blue strobe, fueling stops, ramps cleared, boarding paused, remain onboard. (Ref: 22.19 Ramp Ops During Adverse Weather)

341
Q

What are the steps for handling a disruptive passenger inflight?

A

Notify DSC via IOC, consider issuing a no-fly notice. Use only seat numbers over radio/ACARS with ‘ATTN DSC’.
(Ref: 18.9 Disruptive Passengers)

342
Q

When may a door be reopened after closing?

A

Before final door: CSM may reopen. After final: requires PIC permission.
(Ref: 18.24 Doors)

343
Q

What are some key timing differences between international and domestic 737 transits?

A

International: earlier fuel review (-50 min), boarding starts -25 min, fueling ends -30 min vs domestic -15/-10 min.
(Ref: Key Differences Between International and Domestic B737 Operations)

344
Q

Give examples of reportable events that may not be obvious.

A

Examples: GPWS ‘Bank Angle’ (RRM), open service panel on arrival, incorrect loadsheet, or TA warning. Refer to table for full list.
(Ref: 3.2.4 Safety Occurrences to be Reported)

345
Q

What is the difference between ‘different’ and ‘separate’ runways?

A

‘Different’ = different numbers. ‘Separate’ = different concrete, not dependent on other runway.
(Ref: 16.5.4.3 Concepts)

346
Q

When is max reverse thrust recommended?

A

If deceleration not expected, outside touchdown zone, tailwind, or braking failure.
(Ref: 21.76.4 Landing Roll Reverse Thrust)

347
Q

When can flights depart more than 5 min early?

A

Up to 15 min early if no known issues, all load accounted, and PIC & duty manager agree.
(Ref: 17.6.4 ATFM)

348
Q

What are the rules for fueling with passengers onboard?

A

Seat belts OFF, emergency lights ARMED, embark/disembark permitted.
(Ref: 18.23 Aircraft Fueling With Passengers Onboard)

349
Q

What distinguishes CAT A, B, C, and D airports?

A

A: All ops approved. B: Operational/commercial limits. C: Not a destination/DPA. D: Emergency only.
(Ref: 15.1.1 Introduction)

350
Q

When can CI be adjusted for a projected late arrival?

A

If ETA > 15 mins late and can reduce delay within 15 mins, or factors like transit time, curfew, weather, or duty apply.
(Ref: 17.6.8 Projected Late Arrivals)

351
Q

What are the 4 parts of the Qantas Operations Manual Suite?

A

A: Policy/Procedures, B: Aircraft Ops, C: Aerodromes/Routes, D: Training/Checking.
(Ref: 7.1 Qantas Operations Manual Suite)

352
Q

How must QNH be verified for departure and arrival?

A

Departure: instrument check. Arrival: TAF or TTF.
(Ref: 21.21 Aerodrome Weather Info and QNH)

353
Q

Who should complete landing after a malfunction?

A

PIC, unless condition impairs ability. Ensure all non-normal actions completed.
(Ref: 22.5 Malfunctions)

354
Q

What must be done if a significant system fails during EDTO?

A

Plan to land at the nearest available airport per QRH guidance.
(Ref: 14.2.16 EDTO Significant Systems)

355
Q

What are the requirements for Safe Hand Packages?

A

Must be left open for inspection, security screened, and clearly labeled with address/recipient.
(Ref: 18.34.1 Safe Hand Packages)

356
Q

When is manual flight encouraged?

A

When conditions and workload allow. Maintain positive control over automation.
(Ref: 21.3 Automation System Management)

357
Q

What are HUD usage rules?

A

Down and used below 10,000 ft. Blanked for night taxi. AIII only on QRH-approved runways. AIII selected by 1000 ft.
(Ref: 21.15.2 HUD Operating Requirements)

358
Q

Can the CVR be erased or FDR/CVR turned off?

A

CVR must not be erased. Systems cannot be disabled unless required by MEL. PIC will be informed if FDR/CVR are taken.
(Ref: 3.3.3 Aircraft Recording Systems)

359
Q

What are rest break rules for cabin crew on long non-commercial flights?

A

One cabin crew must rest >6 hrs. Must be seated at exits if non-operational persons are onboard.
(Ref: 9.4.1.2 Flight Carrying Cabin Crew)

360
Q

What are departure and circuit procedures at non-controlled airports?

A

Turn at 500 ft unless conflicting, circuit from upwind/crosswind/downwind. Left-hand circuits unless noted.
(Ref: 21.61 Operations to Non-Controlled Airports)

361
Q

When are cold temperature corrections required?

A

Below 0°C, apply to minimum departure/approach alts including DA/MDA and missed approach. Advise ATC.
(Ref: 21.28 Temperature Corrections)

362
Q

What is required after a hard or overweight landing?

A

Techlog entry with touchdown condition. Include drift if present. (Ref: 22.16 Landings)

363
Q

When is a TOD position check required?

A

When GPS is not available.
(Ref: 21.54 Navigation Procedures)

364
Q

What is the max diversion time for EDTO on a 737?

A

180 minutes based on system limits and CASA rules (e.g., 195 mins – 15 min buffer).
(Ref: 14.2.14 EDTO Maximum Diversion Time)

365
Q

What happens during unanticipated turbulence?

A

PA for belts. Crew seated within 1 min or wedge in if immediate hazard. Call back with crew locations.
(Ref: 18.28 Seat Belt Policy)

366
Q

What do you do if a door issue can’t be resolved without moving the handle?

A

Return to gate for engineers. Ensure door is CLOSED. Don’t attempt to open or rearm.
(Ref: 18.24 Doors)

367
Q

What must be confirmed before releasing the park brake?

A

Doors closed, ground crew in communication, bridge/equipment clear, tug attached. Engineer shows signals before taxi.
(Ref: 21.35.2 Releasing Park Brake)

368
Q

What are the flight phases for fuel planning?

A

Preflight: to pushback/start. Takeoff: to flap/gear up. Inflight: to landing.
(Ref: 16.3.14 Flight Phases)

369
Q

When are harnesses and car seats allowed?

A

Harness: approved makes. Car seat: approved by Special Handling or Duty Manager; up to 5 yrs.
(Ref: 18.18 Carriage of Infants and Children)

370
Q

When must pax and crew wear seatbelts?

A

Takeoff/landing <1000 ft, instrument approach, turbulence (if warranted), or PIC discretion.
(Ref: 18.28 Seat Belt Policy)

371
Q

What are the rules for carriage of service dogs?

A

Approved via Special Handling. Restrained, last to board, leash to seat, moisture mat. PIC may refuse.
(Ref: 18.16 Service Dogs)

372
Q

What are the requirements to continue at the DPA?

A

All inflight fuel requirements plus either destination alternate fuel, or 15 min additional (30 min if single RWY O/S).
(Ref: 16.10.4 At DPA Requirement to Continue)

373
Q

What must be done if airspace is deactivated inflight?

A

Flight may continue if diversion isn’t possible. Preflight requires risk assessment/approval.
(Ref: 15.3.1 Contingencies – Deactivated Airspace)

374
Q

When may cabin crew use earplugs and what must occur?

A

In cruise only. PIC must be advised of noise and crew using plugs.
(Ref: 18.24 Doors)

375
Q

What components make up preflight Trip Fuel and how is it calculated?

A

Preflight Trip Fuel equals Flight Fuel plus Approach Fuel, and is best calculated using the FMC for accuracy.
(Ref: 16.3.30 Trip Fuel)

376
Q

What are the Captain’s responsibilities post-flight?

A

Log fuel and defects, file Intelex for air route/nav issues, ensure safe handover.
(Ref: 4.8.3 Captains)

377
Q

What factors must be considered before assisting SAR operations?

A

Contact Duty Captain. Use discretion: military involved, lives endangered, rescue chance, risk to aircraft.
(Ref: 9.5 Search and Rescue – Requests for Assistance)

378
Q

What is the chain of command from PIC downward?

A

PIC > Second Captain > First Officer > Second Officer > CSM > CSS > Cabin Crew.
(Ref: 4.2 Chain of Command)

379
Q

How is the PIC notified of non-operational persons on board?

A

Listed in WEBCIS. PIC must reconcile the list with actual persons on board.
(Ref: 9.4.2 Notification to PIC of Non-Operational Persons)

380
Q

When must flight controls be guarded?

A

Any time flaps are not UP, or large thrust changes including cruise.
(Ref: 21.8.4 Guarding Flight Controls)

381
Q

What are the steps if medical attention is needed away from base?

A

Call QCare (AUS) or MedAire (INTL). Clearance needed before paxing. Captain to accompany to hospital if required.
(Ref: 5.8.3 Medical Attention Away from Base)

382
Q

What is the EDTO threshold distance for a 737?

A

One-engine-inoperative cruise distance: approx. 400 NM at 0.79/310kts.
(Ref: 14.2.17 EDTO Threshold Distance)

383
Q

What are the licensing responsibilities of flight crew?

A

Maintain license, report medical changes, and coordinate updates through Qantas Licensing.
(Ref: 4.10 Flight Crew Licenses)

384
Q

When is DAMP testing required after an incident?

A

Following an accident or serious incident (e.g., damage, MAYDAY, PAN, injury). Duty Captain decides, and PIC ensures crew remain.
(Ref: 3.4.4 Post Incident DAMP Testing)

385
Q

What is the seat belt procedure for unanticipated turbulence with immediate hazard?

A

Crew wedge in where possible. Callback confirms crew locations.
(Ref: 18.28 Seat Belt Policy)

386
Q

When can a flight crew pull a circuit breaker?

A

Only if instructed in QRH/FCOM or DDG Pre-Flight (O) procedure.
(Ref: 19.3 Maintenance by Flight Crew)

387
Q

What are ICAO and High Frequency TAFs used for?

A

ICAO forecasts have a trend indicator. High Frequency TAFs (≥3 hrs) used in Canada, NZ, US but are not ICAO landing forecasts.
(Ref: 16.3.31 Weather Forecasts)

388
Q

When is no contact allowed with the flight deck under any circumstances?

A

From takeoff to gear up and gear down to turning off runway.
(Ref: 21.46 Sterile Flight Deck)

389
Q

Who determines a pilot’s fitness to fly?

A

The individual pilot. No psychoactive substances allowed. Cannot operate if a spouse, partner, or child dies.
(Ref: 5.1 Fitness to Fly)

390
Q

What is the process for boarding an unwell passenger?

A

CSM advises PIC and ground staff, contacts Medlink, and passes advice to PIC.
(Ref: 18.10.1 Unwell Passengers Boarding)

391
Q

What events require a tech log entry?

A

Defects, abnormal indications, guarded switch use, APU/RTO/volcanic/dust data, limit exceedance.
(Ref: 19.4 Aircraft Tech Log)

392
Q

What must be verified from a PDC clearance?

A

Rego, route, departure clearance, FL cleared, and transponder code against FMC.
(Ref: 21.10 ATC Clearances and Flight Plans)

393
Q

What must be considered when using an EDTO takeoff alternate?

A

Must exceed EDTO planning minima and OEI performance assumed.
(Ref: 16.7.1 Takeoff Alternate)

394
Q

What must be done when carrying animals inbound to Australia?

A

Alternates may be non-capital. Notify ATC of animals so quarantine can respond.
(Ref: 17.3.3 Alternates When Animals Carried)