FAM Ch 21 Flashcards

1
Q

When must you disconnect automatic control of aircraft?

A

Timely reversion to basic modes of operation and/or disengagement of automatic systems should be accomplished if system performance becomes inaccurate, unclear or inappropriate.
21.3.1

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2
Q

Define monitoring.

A

It involves the comparison between the expected values and the actual outcomes. It also includes observation of other crew members performance, and timely intervention in the event of deviation, well before any limit conditions are reached.

21.4

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3
Q

Define shared mental model.

A

This includes a shared understanding of:

The current situation or problem;

The desired outcome or objective; and

The strategy to achieve the desired outcome, including any contingency planning.

What where and how.

21.4

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4
Q

What is the primary role of PM? Secondary role?

A

MONITOR: flight path, comms, PF.

secondary is support.

21.4

The PM has an explicit set of monitoring and support activities which are designated by SOPs. The PM’s primary role is to monitor the aircraft’s flight path, communications and the activities of the PF. The PM’s support functions are secondary to the role of flight path monitoring. The PM must be alert to situations where attention is drawn so heavily to support functions that flight path monitoring is no longer achieved. In particular the PM’s primary role during all approaches is to continuously monitor flightpath, speeds, rate of descent and approach slope guidance. This monitoring role must be maintained until the completion of the landing roll.

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5
Q

What are the main items of debriefing to be discussed post flight?

A

Threats: What threats eventuated and how did our mitigations work? What could we do better?

Safety Margins: Were any safety margins compromised? Why?

Reports: Are there any reports that need to be completed?

Sustainability: Were sustainability opportunities maximised throughout the flight?
21.6.8

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6
Q

When does Capt need to be in his LH seat?

A

21.7.2

The Pilot In Command shall occupy the Left Hand Seat (LHS):

during takeoff and landing;

during the departure and arrival phases of flight whenever flaps are extended;

if terrain clearance at any stage of the flight is less than 5,000 ft;

at other times as nominated in Company documentation.

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7
Q

Can you operate below Cat 1 mins in Left seat while still in training?

A

I don’t think so, you wouldn’t be a ‘qualified captain’ yet? not sure…

21.7.2 Flight deck seating

RHS qualified and current Captains may operate as PF or PM from the RHS. This includes supporting Low Visibility Operations to minima below Category I with a qualified Captain in the LHS. Restricted RHS qualified Captains may not be PF for takeoff or landing.

However:
21.72.4.3

Whenever Low Visibility Procedures are used, the Captain must be PF. First Officers are not permitted to carry out Low Visibility Procedures as PF except during promotional training for Command. This means that First Officers in the RHS are not permitted to act as PF on approaches with minima lower than Category I, or for an autoland.

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8
Q

Seat change rules?

A

AT and AP on
Speaker up
New pilot calls FMA’s
No change during en route alt change

21.7.7

Inflight seat changes require extreme vigilance to be exercised by the pilot remaining at the controls (PF). Seat changes must not hinder proper supervision of the operation of the aircraft or its controls or switches.

The autopilot and autothrust must be engaged, if serviceable.

Prior to vacating a control seat inflight, both pilots in the control seats shall ensure that a flight deck speaker is ON and set to a volume audible to all Flight Crew members on the flight deck, with the appropriate radio selections made.

When a different crew member enters a vacated control seat, after the seat change, the pilot entering the control seat must verbalise the FMA. If the pilot entering the control seat omits the FMA call the PF is to make the FMA call.

A seat change or temporarily vacating a control seat must not occur during an enroute change of altitude.

In the event of pilot incapacitation the decision to effect a seat change rests with the Captain or their deputy (in the event that the Captain is the incapacitated pilot).

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9
Q

Can you do a seat change in the event of incapacitation?

A

In the event of pilot incapacitation the decision to effect a seat change rests with the Captain or their deputy (in the event that the Captain is the incapacitated pilot).
21.7.7

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10
Q

Harness rules

Is there any exceptions?

A

21.7.8
during takeoff and landing;

during an instrument approach;

when the aircraft is flying at a height less than 1,000 ft above the terrain;

in turbulent conditions;

when the Seat Belt sign is illuminated. The only exception to this requirement is that under direction of the Captain a crew member may remove their harness and seat belt for short periods of time to perform safety related duties during pushback, start and taxi. For two pilot operations the aircraft must be stationary and the park brake set.

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11
Q

Can a pilot remove harness during taxi in 2 pilot ops?

A

Yes but the aircraft must be stationary and the park brake set.
21.7.8

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12
Q

Can you do pax liaison visits short haul?

A

Yes but:

Visits to the cabin on shorthaul, two crew aircraft shall be kept to a minimum and not extend beyond the Business Class cabin.
21.8.2

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13
Q

When is it required that you hand over:

A

any duty will diminish the ability of the PF to comply with this monitoring requirement, the PF should hand over control of the aircraft to the PM.

eg

partaking of a meal

where carrying out paperwork or reading documentation does not permit appropriate aircraft monitoring

making other than simple FMS entries

making PAs.

Doesn’t say briefings….?
21.8.3

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14
Q

What is the call for taking over in emer etc?

A

In abnormal or emergency situations in particular, the positive takeover of control must be clearly established and the call “taking over” used to indicate the formal change over in responsibility and control.
21.8.3

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15
Q

When must you (pf) guard control column/ thrust levers?
What about PM control guarding?

A

Column any time flaps out, TL’s anytime AT commanding ‘significant thrust changes AND on app and landing.’

21.8.4

During critical stages of flight, the PF must guard the side stick or control column and rudder pedals. For the purpose of this policy, critical stages of flight are defined as any time the flaps are not in the UP position.

The PF must guard the thrust levers any time the autothrottle system is commanding significant thrust changes and on approach and landing.

The PM must guard rudder pedals during takeoff and landing and when the aircraft is being parked. Guarding rudder pedals means feet lightly on or in the immediate vicinity of the rudder pedals (brakes for parking) while ensuring inputs from the PF are not impeded.

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16
Q

When and what must PM guard control wise?

A

21.8.4

The PM must guard rudder pedals during takeoff and landing and when the aircraft is being parked. Guarding rudder pedals means feet lightly on or in the immediate vicinity of the rudder pedals (brakes for parking) while ensuring inputs from the PF are not impeded.

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17
Q

What are the PED rules regarding Fuelling?
Can you take a picture with your phone?

A

Turned off and not operated within 3m.

21.9

The person in charge of aircraft fuelling operation must ensure that all mobile telephones, radio receivers, radio transmitters, pagers and other portable electronic devices are turned off and are not operated within 3 metres of the aircraft fuel filling points, fuel vents, or the fuelling equipment. Only operational personnel may operate these devices outside the cabin.

Transmitting devices must not be operated inside the cabin if an aircraft door is open within 3 metres of the above filling points, vents or fuelling equipment.

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18
Q

Cross check procedure for PDC:
Who needs to do it?

A

21.10.1

When a Pre-Departure Clearance (PDC) is received, it must be cross checked by both pilots. The PF must read the PDC and the PM must check and verify the following:

aircraft registration/flight number;

departure clearance;

route clearance;

cleared altitude/flight level;

transponder code.

After receipt of the Airways Clearance or PDC, the radio navigation aids, or FMS should be checked to comply with the actual clearance.

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19
Q

Can you accept visual climbs or descents?
How about visual departures?

A

No

20.10.2

It is not permitted to cancel IFR flight plans and to proceed Visual Flight Rules (VFR), nor are Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) clearances to climb and descend to be accepted.

Yes, in Oz
Day VMC, CTA steps +500 + vis obs clnc.

21.10.2
In Australia, the Pilot In Command may accept an ATC clearance for a visual departure by day when flight can be maintained in VMC below the Minimum Vector Altitude (MVA – surveillance environment) or the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA)/Lowest Safe Altitude (LSALT – non-surveillance environment).

During the conduct of a visual departure, the pilot must:

maintain the track(s)/heading(s) authorised by ATC;

remain not less than 500 ft above the lower limit of the Control Area (CTA); and

visually maintain obstacle clearance.

From AIP

2.5 Visual Departure - IFR Flights

2.5.1 By day in VMC, the pilot of an IFR flight may request a visual departure, or ATC may issue a visual departure.

2.5.2 ATC Responsibilities

2.5.2.1 ATC will only issue a visual departure to an IFR flight when the cloud base is such that the pilot can maintain flight in VMC below the MVA (ATS surveillance services) or the MSA/LSALT.

2.5.2.2 When an IFR aircraft is issued heading instructions and/or required to maintain a level below the MVA or MSA/LSALT during a visual departure, “VISUAL” will be appended to the departure instruction.

2.5.3 Pilot Responsibilities

2.5.3.1 The requirements of this section are the visual departure procedures applicable to IFR flights under CASR 91.305(3)(b)(i).

2.5.3.2 A pilot of an IFR flight may only request a visual departure when the cloud base will allow the aircraft to climb in VMC to the MSA/ LSALT applicable to the departure. Additionally, if the intended cruising level is lower than route LSALT, the cloud base must permit flight in VMC at that level.

2.5.3.3 During the conduct of a visual departure, a pilot must:

a. maintain the track(s)/heading(s) authorised by ATC;

b. remain not less than 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA; and

c. visually maintain obstacle clearance

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20
Q

Visual Approach Day?
Not in FAM…

A

Within 30nm not below min IFR alt
CofC
GW in sight
5km vis or RIS
CTA+500’ and min VFR alts.

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21
Q

Visual approach night:
Not in FAM…

A

Min IFR alt
CofC
GW in sight
5000m vis AND
CTA+500
LSALT MSA DME Step or
Last assigned vector alt
Till
In circ area + RIS
3nm (no iap) + RIS
5/7
10/14

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22
Q

Can you deviate from route for sight seeing?

A

Not really
21.10.3

Deviations of up to 10 nm either side of track to provide passenger viewing opportunities are only authorised at cruise levels, and require an ATC clearance prior to departing the flight plan track

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23
Q

When should you board if you are doing gate hold procedures?

A

Passenger boarding should commence on time as per the PTS when gate hold procedures are utilised.
21.11

Gate Hold is used to delay the aircraft departure due to the flight plan ETA being earlier than desired due to an operation restriction, e.g. curfew.

When the flight plan is created and a need for gate hold is identified, the IOC will coordinate with all the relevant parties and advise Flight Dispatch of the allowable gate hold time. The Dispatchers Notes section of the flight plan will advise crew of the allowable gate hold time.

Situations like departure gate availability may limit the amount of gate hold available. In this scenario, Flight Crew are encouraged to liaise with ATC about delaying tactics at other locations on the airport.

When gate hold procedures are utilised, Flight Crew are to be mindful that the flight plan does not allow any flight time for weather deviations and arrival procedures. Also, the flight plan ETA is a touchdown time, not an on blocks time. Additional time may need to be factored into calculations when determining the desired pushback time.

Passenger boarding should commence on time as per the PTS when gate hold procedures are utilised.

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24
Q

FMA calls after TO

A

AP status then other modes.

21.13.2

When the autopilot is engaged after takeoff, or at any time subsequently if the autopilot has been disengaged and is then re-engaged, the PF shall call the annunciated modes and the PM will verify and call “checked”. The status of the autopilot FMA is to be called prior to the other FMAs being called out.

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25
Q

When can you omit AT mode changes?

A

AFTER
making the FMA calls associated with the commencement of descent for landing, subsequent changes in the autothrottle mode do not have to be called.
21.13.2

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26
Q

When can you omit FMA calls?

A

Standard Procedures,
Using LVP or ist procedures after calling ‘standard procedures’ or after ‘continue’
and in downwind of circuit.

21.13.2

After making the FMA calls associated with the commencement of descent for landing, subsequent changes in the autothrottle mode do not have to be called.

Having nominated standard procedures and on approach for landing, further calls of FMA changes are not required.

Note:
Calls may be terminated when flying a visual circuit once the aircraft enters downwind.

Instrument or Low Visibility Procedures.
On approach for landing after calling “standard procedures”, or “continue”, further calls of FMA changes are not required.

Note:
When using autoland, the FLARE ARM – AUTOLAND call is required at 1,000 ft. However the FLARE CAPTURE call is not required.

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27
Q

FMA calls in GA?

A

During both automatic and manually flown go-arounds, changes in FMA modes shall be called by the PF, verified and called “checked” by the PM in accordance with the policy above.

The procedures and calls related to the go-around are to be made before FMA mode changes are called. Subsequent changes to FMA modes are to be called as described previously, until the flight is again on approach and the call of “standard procedures” or “continue” is made.

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28
Q

Can you take a photo below 10000’ HAA?

A

No

21.14.1

Flight Crew members are restricted from using PED recording functions from any control seat inflight below 10,000 ft HAA during normal operations, or if the autopilot is not engaged. The use of any imagery is restricted by the Qantas Social Media Policy.

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29
Q

Where can you get a last minute spare Ipad?

A

21.14.2

CSMs are expected to maintain a charged iPad with the Jeppesen Trip Kit link, as a backup for Flight Crew iPads

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30
Q

When must Preflight and All crew messages be reviewed on EFF?

A

PREFLIGHT – Must Read CMSGs Prior to Fuel Order Submission

ALL – Must Read CMSGs Prior to Use or Reliance

21.14.6

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31
Q

When do you need a new OFP?

A

Delay ETD+3hrs (you request)
ZFW inc 1500kg or more. (they should send)

21.83

If significant delays are experienced before aircraft pushback, resulting in a delay greater than 3 hours after the scheduled ETD, Flight Crew should request a new OFP from Flight Dispatch. Contact can be made via telephone, VHF radio or ACARS.

Note 1:
Flight Crew can request a new OFP at any time if a new operational requirement comes into effect.
Note 2:
Flight Dispatch will not contact the Flight Crew after the 3 hour delay period, as they are unaware when the Flight Crew are in the final stages of preparation before pushback. However, if there has been a change to the ZFW as per FAM Section 16.10 – Fleet Specific Information, Flight Dispatch will produce an updated OFP and push it to EFF+.

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32
Q

When can you use the TFP as the OFP?

A

21.83

Where, due to system outages, an OFP is unavailable, a flight may depart using the TFP or by using other backup provisions if notified to do so by appropriate company means. Refer to RMS 4.1.5 – Use of the Target Flight Plan (TFP) or RMS 4.1.6 – Backup Operational Flight Plans.

RMS

4.1.5 Use of the Target Flight Plan (TFP)
Flight Crew will be notified if the flight is to be dispatched using the TFP. This notification will be by the most appropriate company means.

The entire flight plan must be checked. The following items are most likely to change and have been highlighted:

RC number;

ZFW;

Weather forecasts;

Note:
Weather forecasts including cruise winds can be accessed directly from the Australian Bureau of Meteorology website (shortcuts are displayed on the company iPad Homepage).
OPRISK;

NOTAMS;

Note:
Flight Dispatch will have access to up-to-date NOTAM changes.
Minimum Operational Fuel requirements;

Note:
EFF+ can be used to determine the actual Trip Fuel by entering the updated ZFW and updated Fuel requirements on the Fuel page.
Regulated Take-off Weight (RTOW).

Note:
Flight Crew will need to calculate the RTOW prior to finalising the Fuel Order. The RTOW is required to be submitted with the Fuel Order.
Due to the unpredictable nature of IT outages and to guard against the unlikely event of an undesired update to EFF+ which changes the Flight Crew capture screenshots of the TFP ‘Plan’ and ‘Nav Log’ sections in EFF+ or download from QPlans, if able.

Submit via EFF+, or another approved means, the following:

Fuel Order;

Trip Fuel; and

RTOW.

Flight Crew must verify the ATS cleared route matched the planned and FMC/FMGC route.

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33
Q

What is meant by Critical crew messages EFF?

A

Critical – Information pertaining to the proposed flight that may:

critically impact the safety of the proposed flight; or

influence the fuel order; or

require compliance prior to flight, e.g. iPad version confirmation; or

require Flight or Cabin Crew awareness prior to flight.

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34
Q

HUD rules 737:

A

Used below 10T (unless u/s)
Blanked for night taxi
Don’t delay TO for praccy LVO’s
ILS AIII only on approved runways
AIII landings need factoring
AIII selected and verified blw 1000RA

21.15.2

The HUD combiner is to be in the deployed position and used by the Captain for all operations below 10,000 ft HAA, where serviceable.

The Combiner display will be blanked (cleared) for night taxi operations.

Commencement of the takeoff roll will not be delayed in order to carry out a practice low visibility takeoff following receipt of takeoff clearance.

ILS approaches using the AIII modes are only permitted on approved runways. Runways approved for AIII operations are listed in the B737 QRH.

For AIII operations the minimum landing distance available must be equal to or greater than the landing distance required plus factoring. Refer FCOM.

For AIII operations, the AIII mode must be selected and verified by both pilots prior to 1,000 ft RA.

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35
Q

When should you do RNP AR approach?
AR dep?

A

21.17

Except for operations where the ILS provides a lower minima that is required for the intended operation, a RNP-AR approach is recommended for all arrivals and departures, where available. The RNP-AR departure is provided as the default clearance by ATC.

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36
Q

Should you use pax name in an Acars message?

A

Not really, use seat number.

21.18.1 When transmitting personal information on company frequencies and in ACARS messages, where possible passenger Seat Number only should be used. Additional personal information may only be used where operationally required.

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37
Q

Do you need to monitor guard below 10T?

A

21.18.4

Unless requested to do so by ATC, the frequency does not need to be monitored below 10,000 ft.

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38
Q

Communication Services at Non-Controlled Airports

A

21.18.7
I think this is unicom, CA/GRS…card to be edited

An aircraft must not be operated within the terminal airspace of a non-controlled airport unless:

  1. there is a radio communication confirmation system for the airport; and
  2. the radio communication confirmation system is in operation when the aircraft is within the terminal airspace.
    The above paragraph does not apply if an aircraft is using an airport as an Alternate Airport, or:

the aircraft was scheduled to arrive at, or depart from, an airport at a time when the airport was not a non-controlled airport; but

has had its operation delayed so that, at the actual time of its arrival at, or its departure from, the airport, the airport is a non-controlled airport, or

the aircraft is conducting local training or airwork in the terminal area, or

if CASA determines in writing that it is technically impracticable to provide a radio communication confirmation system for the airport.

If the radio communication confirmation system at a non-controlled airport becomes unserviceable, (1) and (2) above do not apply in respect of that airport for:

the period during which the system remains unserviceable; or

the period of seven days commencing on the day on which the system becomes unserviceable;

whichever is shorter.

From RMS

Terminology Associated with Non-towered Aerodrome Operations
AWIS – Aerodrome Weather Information Service:

Broadcasts actual weather conditions in a similar format to that of an ATIS, with some additional items.

Is an approved source of actual QNH, valid for a period of 15 minutes from the time of receipt.

AAIS – Automatic Aerodrome Information Service:
Broadcasts actual weather conditions (including approved actual QNH) and operational information for the aerodrome, on a discrete published frequency.

Typically associated with aerodromes with CA/GRS. Pilots should monitor any AAIS prior to making the taxi or inbound broadcast, and should advise receipt of the AAIS information when making the taxi or inbound broadcast.

AFIS – Aerodrome Flight Information Service:
A traffic information service, not a control or separation service, with pilots remaining responsible for avoiding other traffic and hazards consistent with the rules of the air within Class G airspace (Broadcast Area).

AFIS operates within 20 NM and 8000 ft AMSL of aerodrome reference point on CTAF frequency during published hours of operation.

AFIS will be provided to all aircraft operating in the Broadcast Area in addition to the FIS provided in the surrounding airspace from ATS centres.

AFIS will coordinate with centre controller.

Pilots will be directed to transfer between centre and AFIS frequency.

ATIS is provided during AFIS hours.

Initial broadcast should include the call signs of any traffic already copied and receipt of ATIS.

AFIS will initiate and terminate sarwatch responsibilities for IFR aircraft.

CA/GRS – Certified Air/Ground Radio Service:
A safety enhancement facility which provides pilots with operational information relevant to the particular aerodrome, assisting pilots in making informed operational decisions. Information may include frequency confirmation, known traffic, weather conditions and other safety-related information of a local nature.

The service operates on the CTAF frequency during published hours of operation.

Weather information provided is from approved measuring equipment, and is an approved source of actual QNH.

Note:
CA/GRS is not a separation service. Traffic information provided is advisory to pilots in VMC, and may assist pilots in arranging self-separation in IMC. Pilots retain authority and responsibility for the acceptance and use of the CA/GRS information provided.
SFIS – Surveillance Flight Information Service:
Callsign: XXXX INFORMATION i.e. BALLINA INFORMATION.

All aircraft operating within SFIS Broadcast Area (BA) will receive a Traffic Information Service from ATS providing advice on conflicting IFR and VFR traffic.

SFIS is not a separation or sequencing service, pilots remain responsible for complying with all regulations applicable to CTAF and Class G airspace.

Any directed traffic information from ATS must be acknowledged.

Outside of SFIS hours, Flight Information Services are provided by XXX CENTRE as per normal procedure.

IFR SARWATCH may be cancelled on CTAF during SFIS hours and can accompany the report of ‘RUNWAY VACATED’.

Pilots should remain on the CTAF frequency on departure until given a directed frequency transfer.

Note:
SFIS is available for cancellation of SARWATCH and coordination of airways clearance, however aircraft will normally be transferred to the E airspace ATC frequency for issue of Airways Clearance.
Mandatory broadcast requirements on the CTAF frequency during SFIS are as follows:

Immediately before taxiing (Initial call to XXX INFORMATION AND TRAFFIC)

Immediately before entering the runway (XXX TRAFFIC)

Departure report (XXX TRAFFIC)

Changing intentions (XXX INFORMATION AND TRAFFIC)

Inbound (Initial call to XXX INFORMATION AND TRAFFIC)

Entering the circuit (XXX TRAFFIC)

Vacating runway and cancellation of SAR (Final call to XXX INFORMATION AND TRAFFIC).

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39
Q

Satcom rules:

A

All calls to be made from FD,
except urgent IFE issues can be direct dialled from cabin after FD notification.
21.18.8

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40
Q

What must be done before a medlink call?

A

Patch checklist.

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41
Q

How do you verify QNH?

A

QNH received via voice, acars or ipad checked against taf,metar or pre departure inst check.
21.21

Note:
This does not require the FMS/FMC QNH to be updated but it is recommended that the FMS/FMC QNH entry matches the reference QNH and the QNH set on the altimetry systems.

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42
Q

What is the green zone for cabin temp regarding APU/packs use? Min and max.
Max time to have pax on with no AC?

A

10°-27°c
20mins

21.22.1 Every effort should be made to keep the cabin temperature between 10°C and 27°C for passenger comfort. Delays to boarding due to cabin temperature is at the discretion of the Flight Crew and should be communicated to airport staff.

With passengers onboard, it is not recommended to exceed 20 minutes without air conditioning supplied.

Note:
For longer transits and where the OAT is above 21°C, Qantas Engineering Procedures Manual state their staff must start the APU and run the air conditioning packs 60 minutes prior to departure. This is to provide sufficient time to cool the cabin. This does not preclude Flight Crew subsequently switching the packs back off if appropriate.

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43
Q

When do you start/shut down APU on arrival?

A

Start ‘approaching gate or when operationally required’
Shutdown as soon as practicable after ground power connection in accordance with aircraft FCOM SOP.

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44
Q

Hot temp boarding?
Cutoff temp,
options if temp exceeds cutoff temp.

A

cabin temp 30°c reccoed…1 engine running to cool cabin, refer FAM:

If the APU is inoperative and a ground air conditioning source is not available, consider not boarding passengers if the indicated cabin temperature is above 30°C.

If the cabin temperature exceeds 30°C, the cabin may be cooled by:

Operating one engine at idle thrust and switching on the air conditioning Packs as required. All external loading and servicing on that side of the aircraft must be completed prior to engine start to ensure that ground equipment is clear;

Opening cabin doors while Cabin Crew or passengers are onboard, provided that stairs or an aerobridge is in place at the door/s that will be opened.

The 30°C mark is not intended to be an inviolate cut-off. Flight Crew should use discretion in this matter. For example, if the passenger load is light and/or the temperature has only just reached 30°C, it may be appropriate to board without first cooling the cabin. Liaison with both Ground and Cabin Crew is important to minimise any delay.

In the event that boarding is carried out where no aerobridge is available, close liaison with the Airport Ground Safety Officer and Qantas ground staff is mandatory.
21.22.3

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45
Q

When must you monitor Company freq?

A

During all transits
Domestic ETD-5 until push
Tell them if you are off freq during these times.
Don’t listen on clb/dec unless for spec reason.
(The PTS mentions mon co freq dep-30)

21.23.1

Subject to operational requirements, Flight Crew should maintain a listening watch on Company frequency and interphone during transit.

For engineering issues, if there is a dedicated engineering frequency then contact must be attempted on this frequency first. If engineering is not contactable then contact the handling agent.

For domestic operations, the frequency for the POCO must be monitored from ETD-5 minutes until pushback commences. If required to communicate with Load Control (e.g. to obtain a radio loadsheet if EFF+ or ACARS is inoperative) Flight Crew should advise the POCO that they will be off frequency, and advise the POCO again when they are back on frequency.

21.31

Do not maintain a listening watch on Company frequency during climb and descent unless for a specific reason.

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46
Q

Engineer Headset Failure During Pushback or Tow-In? What happens?

A

PB/TI will stop
Engineer will go to full view pos and give park brake set symbol.
Engineer gets working headset.
Crew Acks interphone sign or flashes lights and then engineer can reconnect new headset.

21.23.2

During the ground handling of an aircraft, if the Engineer’s headset becomes unserviceable and the tug is still connected to the aircraft, the Engineer(s) shall instruct the tug to stop the pushback/tow-in. In all cases of headset failure, the Engineer(s) will move to a position in full view of the Flight Crew, even if the tug has disconnected.

The Engineer(s) in charge of the procedure shall then signal the Flight Crew to park the aircraft brakes (open palm closed to a fist) and await the Flight Crew confirmation of brakes set (thumbs up).

The Engineer(s) will then acquire a serviceable headset.

The Engineer(s) will not approach the aircraft until the Flight Crew has acknowledged the ‘interphones’ hand signal (hands cupping ears), via a hand signal (thumbs up) or a flash of taxi or runway turn-off lights.

Following pushback and engine start, taxi must not commence until after the Engineer(s) has been instructed to ‘disconnect’ and a hand signal received.

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47
Q

Headset usage 737?

A

PB till shutdown.
1 ear should be out
taxi and any time flap is out.
Interphone recommend below 10T

21.24

Headsets are to be worn by all pilots on the flight deck from the time the aircraft pushes back (or from engine start when no pushback is required) at the commencement of flight until the engines have been shutdown after landing:

During taxi, takeoff and landing and when the flaps are not UP on climb and descent:

Operate with one ear uncovered to ensure effective crew communication during these critical phases of flight. When using Active Noise Reducing (ANR) headsets, to prevent apparent sensations of vertigo, the ANR function may be switched OFF at the Flight Crew member’s discretion.

Consider interphone usage below 10,000 ft, especially when additional operating crew are carried on the flight deck.

When flaps are UP during climb, cruise and descent:

It is recommended that the headset be worn with both ears covered and the ANR function, if available, switched ON for maximum ambient noise protection. Intercom should be used for crew communications.

Note:
The natural tendency when wearing ANR headsets is to speak softly. When making a PA, speech volume should be increased slightly to ensure clarity and audibility in the cabin.
An inoperative ANR capability does not require replacement of the headset nor is it associated with any MEL. The passive protection provided by the headset is adequate for continued headset operation. Aircraft may therefore be dispatched with the ANR feature inoperative.

Approved alternatives to the (Company) installed headset are the Bose Model A20, Bose Model A30 and Bose Model Proflight Series 2. If used, the crewmember is responsible for the purchase and ongoing maintenance of the headset, returning it directly to the equipment manufacturer for repair. The installed (Company) headset must be appropriately stowed so as to avoid damage. There is no requirement to refit the Company Headset on departure from the Flight Deck. In the event of any observed anomalies to aircraft system behaviour, the installed (Company) headset must be used. For any reported anomalies, the Engineer is only obligated to make the system serviceable using the Company supplied headset

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48
Q

What do you do if you require, request or see windshield cleaning/maint?

A

21.26

To ensure the safety of personnel, Flight Crew are to position window heat to OFF whenever window maintenance is anticipated or requested, e.g. cleaning or removal.

Note:
Windshield maintenance and cleaning is a Maintenance function and is not normally to be undertaken by Flight Crew unless all possibilities regarding a fall from heights risk have been considered and assessed.
WARNING:
With window heat voltage applied, a shock hazard exists for persons contacting the windshield from the outside.

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49
Q

What is a consideration for en route very cold temperature?

A

21.28

Cold temperature altitude corrections are required for enroute terrain clearance. Necessary adjustments can be found in the Wx Brief application>Chart>Altimetry. The values must be added to published enroute minimum safe/minimum obstacle clearance altitudes in order to maintain obstacle clearance in cold temperatures.

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50
Q

What is gear pin walk around rule?

A

Don’t start WA till pins removed - doesn’t say they need to be cockpit stowed. Ie you need to see them out.

21.19

Flight Crew should not commence walkaround checks until the landing gear pins are removed.

If, for any reason, landing gear pins are required to be re-inserted, the pins must be displayed to the Flight Crew prior to being stowed.

Note:
The steering bypass pin installation is a Ground Crew responsibility.

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51
Q

FAM light rules
Who operates them
What airspace should they be ‘all on’

A

21.32.1
The PM should normally make light selections. The selection of lights to comply with Company policy is detailed in the respective Flight Crew Operating Manual.

When operating in a high density traffic environment, additional exterior lights may be used at the Captain’s discretion.

When operating in Australian continental (including Tasmania) Class G or non-surveillance Class E airspace, utilise all available exterior lights.

Lights used for collision avoidance may be turned off in cloud if they constitute a nuisance.

When approaching the gate turn off all non-essential lighting.

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52
Q

FAM light rules
Who operates them?
What airspace should they be all on?

A

21.32.1
The PM should normally make light selections. The selection of lights to comply with Company policy is detailed in the respective Flight Crew Operating Manual.

When operating in a high density traffic environment, additional exterior lights may be used at the Captain’s discretion.

When operating in Australian continental (including Tasmania) Class G or non-surveillance Class E airspace, utilise all available exterior lights.

Lights used for collision avoidance may be turned off in cloud if they constitute a nuisance.

When approaching the gate turn off all non-essential lighting.

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53
Q

Landing Light rules?
Normal ops
when for non normals?
Low Vis?
What altitude? Eg airport elevation 1200’…

A

21.32.2
Landing lights shall be used for collision avoidance below 10,000 ft HAA, day or night.
should be turned on when cleared for takeoff and turned off after exiting the active runway after landing.
may be used during taxi if required.

21.32.5
For Emergency desc.

21.32.6
The use of landing lights for final approach and landing during low visibility operations is not recommended, as diffusion of the lights could tend to reduce the visual segment. If conditions are such that landing lights can be used during low visibility operations, do not jeopardise monitoring over the last 500 ft of the approach.

Consider switching lights on prior to 500 ft. (i think typo? off?)

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54
Q

Whose responsibility is ground separation while taxiing?

A

At controlled airports, ground separation is a joint responsibility between pilots and air traffic control.

Ground separation on non-ATC controlled aprons is a joint responsibility between pilots and the assisting ground personnel.

21.33.1

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55
Q

Crossing/entering runway rules?

A

Both crew head up
Verify clearance
Visual check
PF verbalises clearance verification
Stop bar out or CP’s
21.33.3

All Flight Crew are to remain vigilant when approaching a runway and avoid non-essential tasks.

Before the aircraft crosses or enters a runway (whether active or not), all Flight Crew on the flight deck shall verify:

That this is in accordance with the ATC clearance (where applicable); and

In all directions that there is no conflicting traffic on or approaching the runway.

When issued a clearance to cross a runway, PM will read-back the clearance and the PF will verbally confirm the clearance including clearance details (e.g. “Cleared to cross 34L at Lima”).

An Aircraft shall not enter or cross a runway which has stop bars illuminated unless stop bar contingency procedures are in place.

Note:
Where crossing of an active runway is anticipated on departure or arrival, crew should consider the threat as part of the departure or arrival briefing.

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56
Q

Transponder rules?

A

21.34 Transponder Operation
The transponder shall be operated at all times during flight.

If multiple failures occur such that the aircraft is without a transponder, ATC must be informed.

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57
Q

What is a precaution for pressurising Hydraulic aside from asking for clearance.

A

21.35.1

CAUTION:
To avoid injury to Ground Crew, request clearance to pressurise hydraulics only when ready to activate system. If hydraulics are not pressurised immediately on receipt of a clearance, the clearance should be requested again at the appropriate time.

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58
Q

Park brake releasing rules prior to push:
What don’t you need?
What about APU inop gnd start?

A

D.A.T.C.
Doors: all closed
Aerobridge: or stairs clear
Tug: connected
Comms: clear between gnd crew - flt crew…

You don’t need ATC PB clearance to release brakes.
Obs can’t start eng at gate without ATC clearance first.

21.35.2
Prior to releasing the Park Brake the following must be assured:

All aircraft doors are closed.

The aerobridge and all other ground equipment are clear (of the aircraft).

The aircraft is connected to a tug.

Clear communication exists between the Flight Crew and the Ground Crew.

Note:
The Park Brake may not be released before receiving a pushback clearance if an engine has to be started on the bay.

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59
Q

When should you direct ground crew to disconnect headset?

A

To minimise risk to Ground Crew, it is recommended that Flight Crew direct Ground Crew to disconnect at the earliest opportunity in accordance with the FCOM.

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60
Q

What does csm cabin ready mean?

A

Papers ships papers onboard
Pax number correct (domestic)
Doors Armed
Demo complete
Secure cabin secure
Seated CC seated, csm to sit after signal given.

21.36

The CSM will call the flight deck when the cabin is prepared for takeoff or for aircraft movement after all engines have been shutdown. (This notification may be verbal or a specific signal which is aircraft type dependent.)

When given during departure the notification indicates:

ship’s papers are onboard

passenger numbers are correct (domestic flights only)

all doors are ARMED

safety demonstration is complete

cabin is secure

Cabin Crew are seated with safety harness securely fastened (CSMs secure themselves after signalling the flight deck).

Upon receiving the “Cabin Ready” signal, Flight Crew may then commence the takeoff without any warning to the Cabin Crew.

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61
Q

Ext gnd delay all eng shutdown?

A

Capt or FO in FD
Bx CSM:
Cabin no longer ready
Short repos taxi may be required
CSM or delegate to remain contactable
Belts on toilet ok
Notify when eng to be started and
you need a new cabin ready

21.37.2 All Engine Shutdown
Flight Crew may shutdown all engines in accordance with aircraft type FCOM procedures after assessing all circumstances, and in consultation with ATC (as applicable). Cabin service may only occur when all engines are shutdown.

Once engines are shutdown:

The Captain or First Officer must be on the flight deck at all times.

Confirm with the CSM that the cabin is no longer ready for takeoff, if previously advised.

Alert the CSM to the possibility that short taxis may be required during the prolonged delay period.

The CSM shall remain contactable by the Flight Crew at all times. If the CSM needs to leave their station in the cabin, they shall nominate a delegate for contact and advise the Flight Crew.

The Seat Belt Signs are to be left ON. Passenger movement is permitted. Refer to FAM Section 18.28 – Seat Belt Policy.

Advise the CSM when engines are to be restarted and if subsequent movement of the aircraft is for takeoff or repositioning.

The Cabin Crew will (re)secure the cabin and give the “Cabin Ready” signal prior to taxi. the aircraft is not to move until the “Cabin Ready” signal has been received. The “Cabin Ready” signal indicates that the cabin is secure for takeoff.

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62
Q

Which runway zone is used for takeoff performance assessments?
RMS rules for Slippery When Wet?
TO ban conditions?

A

Most restrictive
Wet/slippery
1 and 0 = no TO

21.38

Flight Crew shall conduct takeoff performance assessments using the most restrictive RWY COND for any runway zone provided.

When a runway is nominated as ‘Slippery When Wet’ in the RMS, the RWY COND ‘Wet/Slippery’ shall be selected to calculate takeoff performance when the runway is reported as WET.

If runway braking action is reported as Poor or Nil, a take-off must not be attempted.

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63
Q

Standard TO mins?
Cg and vis?

A

Cg 0’
Vis 800m or
vis 550m if requirements are met:
REDL, RCLL/RCLM with backup pwr.
Non ctl day only, aerodrome rdo mand.

21.41.2

  1. A ceiling of zero feet; and
  2. Visibility of:
    800 m; or
    550 m, but only if:
    i. The runway has illuminated edge lighting at space intervals not exceeding 60 m; and
    ii. The runway has centreline lighting or centreline markings; and
    iii. All lighting mentioned in sub-subparagraphs (i) and (ii) is supported by a secondary power supply with a switchover capability of 1 second or less; and
    iv. If the aerodrome is a non-controlled aerodrome or a controlled aerodrome where ATC is not in operation – the takeoff is conducted by day and the aerodrome is one at which the carriage of radio is mandatory.
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64
Q

When is the HUD required for TO?

A

Vis blw 125m

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65
Q

Low Vis TO basic requirements?

A

State approved
ATC has low vis pro’s in place
You obs don’t get 2 if no 1…

21.41.3

Low visibility takeoff operations shall only take place when:

the relevant State authority approves such operations on the particular runway and the minima is published on the applicable Jeppesen (Qantas) chart.

ATC has advised that low visibility procedures are in force for the runway to be used.

Note:
Within Australia aerodromes capable of supporting LVO will be shown in the AIP (and replicated on the Jeppesen chart) or by NOTAM.

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66
Q

Explain low vis Vis/RVR requirements for TO.
Down to what vis can you use a pilot assessment?
What is a controlling RVR zone?
What is min TO vis 737?

A

Standard TO mins are Vis 800m or 550m.
550m is ‘standard TO’ mins but has requirements so you can almost look at it as low vis, but it can be RV or RVR. (Requires RCLL, RCLM REDL and backup power.)
Below 550 min 350m Needs information on RVR OR RV, TDZ mandatory plus either mid or end.
The TDZ, ie initial part of TO run, may be replaced by pilot assessment when it is RV…
Below 350m, min 200m RVR required TDZ and either mid or end.
Below 200m RVR required all 3.

A controlling RV/RVR zone means the reported value is used to determine whether the operating minima are or are not met.

Any zone for which an RV/RVR report is available is controlling.

75m min on 737.

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67
Q

What is controlling zone RV/RVR and which is used for TO mins?

A

21.41.4

A controlling RV/RVR zone means the reported value is used to determine whether the operating minima are or are not met.

Any zone for which an RV/RVR report is available is controlling.

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68
Q

What is the lowest alt you can turn after TO?

A

21.42.2

Turns will not normally be made below 500 ft HAA unless specified in the CDPs.

During the execution of such a manoeuvre the actual climb gradient may reduce and the execution of the turn should be subject to the Pilot In Command’s discretion in accordance with weather and other conditions prevailing.

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69
Q

Min height for thrust reduction?

A

800’ above surrounding terrain.

21.42.3

If temporary thrust reduction to achieve a minimum sound level is an essential requirement of a procedure at a particular airport, this must not be carried out below a height of 800 ft above surrounding terrain and to an extent only that a safe rate of climb and specified speeds can be maintained.

70
Q

What is the default NADP at Qantas?
Describe it.
Which ICAO letter corresponds?

A

A modified NADP 2. (ICAO B)
Thr red @1000’, clean till 3000’ HAA.

21.42.4

Reducing thrust at 1,000 ft HAA

Accelerating to Flaps Up Manoeuvring speed until 3,000 ft HAA

Accelerating to enroute climb speed at 3,000 ft HAA

The default Noise Abatement Climb Procedure should be used where Noise Abatement Climb Procedures are nominated for a runway and no specific aircraft operating procedure is described.

State requirements for an “ICAO B” noise abatement procedure should be complied with using the Qantas default procedure.

71
Q

Describe NADP 1 and or ICAO A

A

The NADP 1 procedure, where required, should be flown by:

Reducing Thrust at 1,000 ft HAA

Maintaining V2+10-20 kt to 3,000 ft HAA

Accelerating to enroute climb speed at 3,000 ft HAA

If a State specifies “ICAO A” noise abatement departure, the procedure should be complied with using the NADP 1 profile but setting a thrust reduction altitude of 1500 ft HAA.

21.42.4

72
Q

Can you accept a wake turb waiver?

A

Wake Turbulence Pilot Waivers are not to be sought or accepted under any circumstances.

73
Q

How soon should you switch freq when instructed to do so by tower at TO clearance?

A

21.45

When frequency change instructions are issued immediately preceding the takeoff clearance, pilots must automatically transfer from the tower frequency as soon as practicable after takeoff and preferably within 1 nm of becoming airborne.

74
Q

Sterile Flight deck delineation:

A

21.46
TO:
the last door closed on departure until the Seat Belts sign is switched to AUTO/OFF; and

Land:
from the Prepare Cabin PA to arrival at the terminal.

75
Q

Sterile flight deck rules:

A

During the Sterile Flight Deck Period, PAs may be made subject to operational requirements and workload.

The following operations restrictions shall be observed:

Flight Crew shall restrict activities to essential operational matters only.

no communications on Company frequency (unless for operational reasons).

no conversation to take place that is not related to the operation of the flight.

mandatory use of headsets and boom microphones for the purpose of ATC communication.

Cabin Crew are not to contact the flight deck on the interphone or enter the flight deck unless it is for a safety related issue.

Note:
Safety related issues include:

calls to the flight deck in relation to the seat belt policy
calls or visits to the flight deck to ensure it is clear and prepared for landing
any other related safety information regarding the flight or the cabin preparation that needs to be relayed to the flight deck.

76
Q

No contact period:

A

TO roll till GU, GD till AC stops or turns off runway.

77
Q

When can you do paperwork?

A

21.47
Not during Clb/dec except short sectors.

Non-essential documentation (e.g. filling out ETAs on the Flight Plan or Technical Log entries) should not normally be completed during climb or descent. Limited information may be recorded on short sectors (e.g. CBR to SYD) or when departing from a CTAF(R). When more than three Flight Crew members are carried, the Pilot In Command may utilise a surplus crew member to complete such documentation above 20,000 ft.

Only relevant documentation including, but not limited to, The Qantas Operations Manual Suite (QOMS) and Documents to be Carried Onboard, flight documentation and other appropriate operational documentation or associated material should be referred to whilst at an operating crew position. This includes both hard copy and electronic documentation.

78
Q

When can you accept non standard flight levels?

A

In controlled airspace to meet specific significant operational requirements and maintain schedule integrity
In Oz the wording is:

‘when determined by the Pilot In Command to be essential to the safety of the flight and its occupants’

21.49.2 Flight Levels in Controlled Airspace
Non-standard flight levels may only be accepted in controlled airspace to meet specific significant operational requirements and maintain schedule integrity, i.e. in order to:

minimise fuel burn and effect time savings by taking advantage of more favourable winds;

avoid departure delays if standard flight levels are not available;

facilitate traffic flow and minimise altitude blockages to your own or other aircraft;

avoid turbulence or anticipated weather;

operate on one-way routes.

In Australian airspace, a request for a non-standard flight level must only be made when determined by the Pilot In Command to be essential to the safety of the flight and its occupants. The phrase “DUE OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENT” must be included with the level change request.

Block altitude clearances may be requested in Australian, Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean airspace to conduct 1,000 ft step climb operations to seek favourable winds or closer adherence to optimum levels.

Note:
Not permitted in South American, Asian (excluding Japan), or Port Moresby FIRs.
The use of a cruise climb or mini step climb technique to conduct step climbs is not permitted.

Good communications must exist with ATC prior to accepting a non-standard flight level or a block altitude clearance.

79
Q

What has precedence - ‘altimeters’ or ‘transition’?

A

Where transition and an altitude call coincide, the altitude call is omitted.

80
Q

Cabin alt 10000’ - do you need a mask?

A

21.53

Flight Crew will use oxygen whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft.

81
Q

When do you need to do a route check on the FMS?

A

21.54.1
Uplinking it means you don’t really, but you still need to check it against ATC clearance, Sooo I figure always….

Routes, Route modifications, SIDs, Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs), and Runways may be entered in the FMS in anticipation of ATC clearances. Upon receipt of an ATC clearance or instruction, a check shall be made by both pilots to ensure the navigational data complies with the clearance.

When routes or waypoints are manually entered, FMS track and distance information should be checked against either Navigation Log data or the applicable enroute chart whenever an aircraft is operating outside surveillance coverage.

82
Q

Controlled rest guidelines:

A

Cruise Toc-Tod-30m
AP/AT eng
Rest max 45m x2/crew member
non consecutive for cm
20m in between.
sleeper wears harness
inform CSM.

21.56.2

Controlled rest is only to be used during the cruise period from the top of climb until 30 minutes before the planed top of descent. This is to minimise the risk of sleep inertia.

The autopilot and autothrust systems must be operational and engaged.

Periods of controlled rest must not exceed 45 minutes (including 10 minutes sleep preparation period) per crew member twice per sector, with an additional 10 minutes required before resuming flight deck duties.

Consecutive periods of controlled rest for any individual are not permitted.

There is to be a minimum of 20 minutes between two subsequent controlled rest periods undertaken by different crew members in order to overcome the effects of sleep inertia and allow for adequate briefing.

21.56.3

One pilot only may take controlled rest at a time. The harness should be used and the seat positioned to minimise unintentional interference with the controls.

Any routine system or operational intervention which would normally require a crosscheck should be planned to occur outside controlled rest periods.

Controlled rest on the flight deck may be used at the discretion of the Captain (or Pilot on Watch) to manage both unexpected fatigue and to reduce the risk of fatigue during higher workload periods later in the flight.

It should be clearly established who will take rest and when it will be taken. If the Pilot In Command requires, the rest may be terminated at any time.

Handover of duties and wake up arrangements should be reviewed.

A short period of time should be allowed for rest preparation. This should include an operational briefing, completion of tasks in progress and attention to any physiological needs of either crew member.

During controlled rest, the non-resting pilot must perform the duties of the PF and PM, be able to exercise control of the aircraft at all times and maintain situational awareness. The non-resting pilot cannot leave the control seat for any reason, including physiological breaks.

If during Controlled Rest, the PF (non-resting pilot) detects any personal onset of tiredness they should terminate Controlled Rest.

Flight Crew are to inform the CSM/CSS (as applicable) that controlled rest is being undertaken and refreshments should be pre-ordered. The pilot remaining on duty will establish a revised contact schedule and initiate contact with the Cabin Crew to prevent the controlled rest from being disturbed. If contact has not been made by the Flight Crew at the nominated time, Cabin Crew will revert to normal contact protocols and make contact with the Flight Crew.

The resting crew member must receive an operational briefing at the completion of crew rest – Refer to FAM Section 21.7.7 – Seat Changes as an example of the required briefing.

83
Q

When should you talk to IOC re diversion?

A

When a diversion is considered likely obtain IOC preferred diversion port.
Once diverted asp.
21.58.1

When a diversion is considered likely, the Pilot In Command should attempt to contact the IOC for guidance regarding the preferred Alternate. IOC guidance should be prioritised if operationally acceptable, however, the final decision rests with the PIC.

When the decision to divert has been made, the PIC should advise the IOC at the earliest opportunity. Any information about the unserviceability of the aircraft, that could impact the subsequent departure, should be included.

Note:
On ACARS equipped aircraft, the “ACARS Diversion Report” page should be sent as soon as possible.

84
Q

What airports can you divert to with a medical emergency?
Do you need to offload baggage of medical diversion pax if they deplane at div port?

A

Cat A ok!
Cat B probably OK - check RMS…

Cat C & Emer: nope.

Bags…Yes, usually…

21.58.1.1

Diversion due to a passenger or crew medical emergency shall not be made to a Category C or an Emergency airport.

In addition, carefully check the RMS information when considering diverting to a Category B Airport, as some Category B Airports have restrictions regarding use during for a medical emergency.

In circumstances where a flight diverts due to passenger medical emergency, and that passenger disembarks, it is a legal requirement that the baggage belonging to the passenger is off-loaded before the flight can proceed. In exceptional circumstances, an exemption may be available by contacting the IOC. A decision will be made in consultation with the operating Captain, Duty Captain and the DSC.

85
Q

What is required if you need to deviate route or alt due weather with no ATC clearance?
Think the radio….
In Class A and RVSM?

A

Pan
Lights on
Bcast blind
Monitor TCAS

a PAN call must be declared.
The actions and intentions of the Pilot On Watch should be broadcast on the appropriate area frequency AND on the guard frequency. ATC must be notified as soon as possible. Aircraft external lighting should be switched on. Proximate traffic should be monitored on TCAS and, if able, visually.

21.59.1

If a flight in Class A/RVSM airspace encounters turbulence that is detrimental to safety, the Pilot On Watch should request or require a track deviation and/or another cruising level without delay. Where ATC is not contactable or the clearance to deviate from flight plan is not immediately available and the cleared level cannot be maintained, or the aircraft or its occupants are at risk, the Pilot On Watch may deviate from the planned track and/or change level in the interests of safety. For track and/or altitude changes without an airways clearance, a PAN call must be declared. The actions and intentions of the Pilot On Watch should be broadcast on the appropriate area frequency and on the guard frequency. ATC must be notified as soon as possible. Aircraft external lighting should be switched on. Proximate traffic should be monitored on TCAS and, if able, visually.

Mandatory reporting of an inflight altitude deviation is required as per FAM Section 3.2.5.2 – Assigned Altitude Deviation Reports.

The 2 nm track deviation procedure specifically for enroute wake turbulence is published in FCOM/QRH under the RVSM Contingency Procedures, AIP ENR 2.2 and the Jeppesen Airway manual, and does not require a PAN call.

Wake Turbulence Procedures​ - When flying in the trail of another ​airplane​ along the​ same route or track,​ it​ is possible that the in trail ​airplane will encounter wake turbulence. If an airplane encounters ​wake turbulence the Flight Crew should notify ATC and request a ​revised clearance. However, in situations where a revised clearance​ ​is not possible​ or practicable. ​•​ Establish contact with the lead airplane​ on the appropriate​ VHF ​inter-pilot air-to-air​ frequency;​

•​ One (or both if possible) airplane​ should initiate lateral offsets not ​to exceed 2nm from the assigned route or track:

​•​ as soon as practical to do so, notify ATC that a temporary lateral ​offset​ has taken place and the​ specific reason for doing so; and​

•​ notify ATC when​ re-established on the assigned route or track.​

Note:​ In this contingency circumstance, ATC will not issue clearances ​for lateral offsets.​
•​ If the lateral offset does not resolve the situation, the Flight ​Crew should request a revised clearance for either a​ different ​track and/or​ altitude.​
Note:​ Airplane may also be subjected to wake turbulence from ​crossing​ or opposite direction traffic

86
Q

When do you need to notify ATC of position estimate time error?

A

21.60.1

When the Flight Crew become aware that a previously advised position estimate is more than 2 minutes in error, the PM must report, and where necessary broadcast, the correct estimate.

Note CPDLC

7.9 Revision of Estimates Using CPDLC

7.9.1 Under normal circumstances, an aircraft position reporting via ADS-C is not required to advise ATC of any revised waypoint estimates. Exceptions are:
a. revisions of greater than two (2) minutes to a previous flight
crew advised estimate (i.e. by voice or CPDLC); or
b. following a flight crew-initiated action (e.g. speed change) resulting in an amended estimate of greater than two (2) minutes

7.9.2 If required, flight crews shall advise a revised estimate by one of the following methods:
a. by voice report; or
b. a CPDLC position report containing the revised estimate; or
c. the CPDLC free text message element, “REVISED ETA [position][time

87
Q

What speed changes need to be relayed to ATC?

A

Sustained +/-M0.02,+/-10kt TAS.

Flight Crew must report to ATC any sustained changes of ± M0.02 or ±10 kts TAS from that flight planned, specifically cleared, or previously notified. This includes changes as a result of cruising at levels or speeds other than planned.

88
Q

Traffic avoidance rules

A

21.61.3

To minimise the possibility of separation breakdown with other aircraft, Flight Crew must maintain a heightened state of awareness and radio listening watch when operating in Class E or Class G airspace.

Flight Crew are expected to take a proactive role in traffic separation, both on the ground and in the air.

As a general rule, aircraft will give way to other aircraft which are at a lesser height. If an aircraft is approaching head on, and there is a collision risk, normally each aircraft will alter heading to their right.

Flight Crew must be conservative when separating their aircraft from other traffic. A minimum of 1,000 ft vertical separation should be maintained until sighting and passing conflicting traffic. If visual contact is not possible, Flight Crew should utilise DME, GPS or FMC to ascertain the required separation.

Where vertical separation is not possible, lateral separation is acceptable, remembering that Flight Crew will have to take into account the level of accuracy of the navigation equipment on board each aircraft.

Additionally, Flight Crew should maintain an awareness that position reports by inexperienced and/or leisure pilots may be inaccurate.

Powered aircraft must give way to gliders, airships and aircraft that are towing gliders.

89
Q

What are the MCP altitude setting rules leaving controlled airspace?
How about departing from Class G airport?

A

21.61.4.1
On receipt of clearance to leave controlled airspace on descent, set the Altitude Alerting System to the LSALT/MORA/MSA. Once visual terrain clearance is assured, circuit altitude may be set in the MCP ALT window.

Prior to departure, set the Altitude Alerting System to the lower level or below of controlled airspace (Class A or Class E) until in receipt of an airways clearance.

You can use MCP to set traffic separation altitudes as common sense dictates.

90
Q

What are the speed restrictions for visual approach in Class G and for circuit entry?

A

AIP + inside. 15nm min clean, circuit max 200.

21.61.6

Flight Crew should adopt a conservative approach to airspeed for arrivals at non-controlled airports, to minimise as far as practical airspeed differential with low performance aircraft.

The landing shall be into wind, unless the Pilot In Command has an operational reason to land with downwind and it is deemed safe to do so.

In addition to AIP and company speed restrictions, the following speed schedules apply:

Visual Approach

Between 15 nm from the airport and the circuit area, the maximum airspeed must not exceed the Flaps Up Manoeuvre Speed. The maximum speed for circuit entry is the speed associated with the configuration for a Visual Traffic Pattern. In any case, the speed in the circuit area should not exceed 200 kts.

This requirement does not apply when flying an RNP-AR approach.

RNP-AR Approach

FMC default speed schedule or in accordance with the Noise Abatement Approach procedures.

A visual straight-in approach or joining the circuit on base leg, as defined in AIP, is not prohibited, but is not recommended. It should only be considered if the Pilot In Command is satisfied that prevailing weather conditions and the communication environment is acceptable for such a manoeuvre. The runway in use must be known before arrival in the aerodrome area. If any doubt exists, pilots should plan to join the circuit on either the upwind, crosswind or downwind leg.

An aircraft which joins the circuit on base or finals, must give way to other aircraft already in the circuit.

Unless specified in the RMS or on Jeppesen charts, left-hand circuits shall be flown. Descent into the circuit from above is not permitted; circuit entry from the non-active side is achieved as per AIP requirements.

A straight in approach to the reciprocal runway in use by other aircraft, is not permitted.

Any aircraft in the vicinity of the airport, which has declared an emergency, has priority for landing.

91
Q

Can you fly straight in or join base directly on visual circuit class G?

A

A visual straight-in approach or joining the circuit on base leg, as defined in AIP, is not prohibited, but is not recommended. It should only be considered if the Pilot In Command is satisfied that prevailing weather conditions and the communication environment is acceptable for such a manoeuvre. The runway in use must be known before arrival in the aerodrome area. If any doubt exists, pilots should plan to join the circuit on either the upwind, crosswind or downwind leg.

21.61.6

92
Q

When may you vary AIP circuit turn rules departing Class G airport?

A

21.67.7

The Pilot In Command may vary AIP turn rules in order to facilitate traffic separation. All intentions should be clearly broadcast. Except for terrain avoidance or with specific local procedures, turns after takeoff are not normally made below 500 AGL. If a turn is made contrary to the circuit direction, it should be made well outside the circuit area; normally at least 3 nm from the from the departure end of the runway, or at a height which is well above circuit height, given the aircraft performance.

93
Q

When should you have established track departing Class G airport?

A

21.61.7

The outbound track should be established within 5 nm of the aerodrome. This does not apply to published procedures or when the Pilot In Command has reason to vary this distance for the purpose of traffic separation, or in an emergency. ATC should be advised of any intent to track other than as expected. The intentions of the Pilot in Command should also be broadcast on the CTAF frequency.

94
Q

Company max descent speed?
Height above what?

A

21.62.1

The maximum speed on descent is 250 kt below 5,000 ft HAA. The acceptance of ATC requests for a high speed descent in excess of the above limits is not permitted.

95
Q

What are company standard descent speeds;
and what excuses can you have for varying?

A

280-310 kias
subject to ATC, local requirements or operational requirements.

21.62.2
The following standard descent speeds are to be used for all operations, subject to ATC, local requirements or operational requirements.

ECON Mach Number/ECON KIAS (within a range 280–310 KIAS).

If the ECON KIAS descent speed is less than 280 KIAS, use 280 KIAS. If the ECON descent speed is greater than 310 KIAS, use 310 KIAS. Brief speed fluctuations outside the descent speed range are acceptable. However, attempt to maintain the target speed ± 10 KIAS.

From AIP ENR
2.11.1.1 Most companies operating jet aircraft have agreed to a standard descent profile which may be specified in the operator’s operational document suite. Pilots must adhere to this profile unless operational reasons require, or ATC instructs or approves, otherwise. A sustained speed variation of more than ±10KT IAS or ±M0.02 must be advised to ATC

96
Q

When should the CC begin prepping cabin for landing?

A

21.63.1

All Cabin Crew must maintain a state of situational awareness in relation to service and flight time. Landing preparation should commence at an opportune time after Top of Descent but prior to the “Prepare Cabin” PA.

97
Q

When does prepare cabin PA need to be made?
Height above what?
Earliest, latest?

A

21.63.2
At 20,000 ft HAA, or when taking into account descent profile, arrival procedure, weather and flight deck workload management, at an appropriate time but not below 10,000 ft HAA, the PM (or S/O) is to give the following

“Prepare Cabin” PA:

Prepare Cabin PA
“Cabin Crew prepare the cabin for landing.”

98
Q

Correct CSM response to prep cabin PA

A

Prepare Cabin PA received

PCP….

99
Q

What happens if CC believes they don’t have time to secure cabin once Prepare Cabin Pa completed?

A

21.63.2

Following the PA, if a Cabin Crew member believes that they are unable to secure the cabin prior to the Seat Belts sign being illuminated, they must inform the CSM immediately. The CSM will immediately assess the situation and inform the Flight Crew regarding the status of the cabin. This will enable alternative actions to be taken prior to the No Contact Period commencing. Cabin service and safety procedures are the direct responsibility of all Cabin Crew and must be maintained in line with existing legal requirements and Company procedures and policies.

100
Q

Can you hand fly an approach in IMC?

A

21.64.1

It is Company policy that:

Automatic flight shall be used when possible for all instrument approaches when Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) exist.

Note:
B737 is approved for manually flown HUD approaches where required.

101
Q

When should you use HUD/FD when conducting approaches?

A

21.64.1

The flight director system and HUD will be utilised whenever practical.

will and practical…

102
Q

What is RV?
What is RVR?

A

RV:The distance along a runway over which a person can see and recognise a visibility marker or runway lights.
RVR: The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line.

Note:
Within Australia, the term runway visual range (RVR) is used exclusively in relation to RVR measured by an instrumented system.
21.64.2

103
Q

What is SA Cat II?

A

Some lights U/S on Cat 2: add 50m to min cat 2 vis….

A precision approach operation to a runway where some or all of the elements of the precision approach CAT II lighting system are not available, and with:

a DH lower than 200 ft, but NOT lower than 100 ft.
an RVR not less than 350 m.

104
Q

What is SA Cat 1

A

Cat 1 approach with mins lowered below 200’ to min 150’ and min vis dropped 100m to 450m.

A precision approach CAT I operation with a DH lower than 200 ft, but not lower than 150 ft; and an RVR not less than 450 m.

105
Q

When can you continue below DA/H?

A

the approach may be continued below DA/H and the landing may be completed provided that the visual reference required for the type of approach operation and for the intended runway is established at the DA/H and can be maintained to landing.

106
Q

What is approach ban sort of rule for NPA?

A

21.64.4

All other approaches (non ILS) may be continued to the Missed Approach Point (MAP) if the Pilot In Command believes, on reasonable grounds, that at minima the required visual reference will be attained (except where a State Approach Ban is more limiting).

107
Q

How must non ILS approaches be flown?

A

21.64.6

A Continuous Descent Approach must be flown for Non-ILS approaches. Exception: New York VOR or GPS Rwy 13L, Tokyo Haneda LDA approaches to Rwys 22 and 23.

When flying a continuous descent approach, a missed approach should be initiated on reaching the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) + 50 or MAP, which ever occurs first, if the required visual criteria are not met.

Note:
A Missed Approach turn should not be commenced until the MAP is reached (or as specified on the approach chart).

108
Q

How do you fly an approach to a displaced threshold?
Ie what methodology resulting in what AP modes?

A

21.64.8

When operating to a displaced runway threshold, only approaches designed with a 2D methodology and allowing the use V/S pitch modes, can be flown.

Note:
If a corresponding instrument approach to the displaced threshold has been published and is available in the NavDb then the approach may be flown using 3D methodology.
Any crossing altitude requirements may be adjusted in the LEGS page to reflect the new profile for additional situational awareness, however G/S, VNAV pitch modes must not be engaged.

109
Q

What autoland/manual landings does 73 do?

A

SA C1, SA C2, C2 fail passive autoland or manual land HUD AIII approved

Cat IIIA manually flown.

21.65.1

Low Visibility Approach and Landing
B737 is approved for:

Special Authorisation Category I and Category II operations using fail passive automatic landing or manually flown HUD in AIII mode;

Category II operations using fail passive automatic landing or manually flown HUD in AIII mode;

Category IIIA operations using manually flown HUD in AIII mode with or without roll out control guidance.

The QRH details the list of required equipment for Low Visibility operations. Failure of required equipment shall require reversion to higher minima or an immediate missed approach.

The maximum crosswind is 15 kt.

The braking action on the runway must not be reported by ATC as worse than medium.

The appropriate Autoland or HUD selection is made within the approved performance application. This ensures that appropriate factoring has been considered. If the performance application is not used, apply a factor of 1.15.

110
Q

Where do you find out if an international airport is autoland ok?

A

For international airports runways approved for autoland will be annotated “Autoland” adjacent to the minima box in the Jeppesen Route Manual.

111
Q

Can you log an autoland for the aircraft in VMC?

A

21.66.5

Irrespective of the minima used when conducting an autoland, on ACARS equipped aircraft, the ILSA must be selected to update autoland/low visibility recency.

112
Q

Can you attempt corrective switching on Low Vis App?
What about engaging AP

A

21.66.6 Switching During Low Visibility Operations

It is considered preferable to discontinue an approach rather than attempt corrective switching following a system failure or warning below 1,000 ft RA.

Switching to re-engage autopilots below 1,000 ft RA is NOT permitted.

113
Q

What do you need to do after an Autoland?

A

The Pilot In Command is required to complete an Autoland Performance Report form each time an autoland is attempted. The Autoland Performance Report is located in DocuNet > Forms. Details shall be retained for at least two years and will be made available to CASA on request. The Company will analyse all reported unsuccessful autolands in order to establish the continued acceptability of aircraft and ground systems.

The Company will maintain records of the current Autoland/Low Visibility Operation status of all approved pilots.

The following constitute an unsuccessful autoland and must be reported via the Autoland Performance Report form and, for aircraft equipment or system failures, the Technical Log;

  1. Aircraft equipment failures resulting in a manual landing or go-around;
  2. Flare performance;
  3. Touchdown outside of a distance between 150 m (500’) and 800 m (2700’) longitudinally from threshold (assuming a normal GS antenna location);
  4. Nosewheel touchdown more than 8 m (27’) from the centreline;
  5. Bank angle at touchdown more than 7 degrees;
  6. Pitch angle at touchdown compromises tail clearance (refer FCOM/FCTM for pitch values for type);
  7. Rollout failure or rollout lateral deviation in excess of 8 m (27’) provided the ILS critical area is protected. Rollout deviations caused by interference from aircraft or vehicular traffic in the ILS critical area do not constitute an unsuccessful autoland but should be noted on the autoland form.
114
Q

Orbits rule

A

No descending orbits below 3000’ AGL

21.67.1

Orbits and similar manoeuvres used to correct vertical offsets at low altitude are a threat to flight safety, particularly at night or in conditions of reduced visibility. The preferred method to correct a vertical offset is to request additional track miles from ATC or, in Class G airspace, descend in a published holding pattern.

Descending orbits are not permitted below 3,000 ft AGL. Above 3,000 ft AGL, they should only be contemplated after due consideration is given to surrounding terrain and in flight meteorological conditions. Autopilot and autothrust should be used.

115
Q

ROD rule
What is the standard call if exceeded?

A

21.67.2

When the aircraft is operating between:

5,000 ft AGL and 3,000 ft AGL the descent rate in feet per minute is restricted to be less than the aircraft altitude in feet AGL; and

3,000 ft AGL and 1,000 ft AGL the descent rate is restricted to 2,000 ft per minute or less in accordance with FCOM/FCTM procedures.

If excessive rates of descent are detected the PM shall call “Rate of Descent” and the PF will acknowledge and adjust accordingly. This will ensure an increase in recognition and response time in the event of an unintentional conflict with terrain.

116
Q

GP from above FAF, FAP, 1000’ rule
ie when do you have to be established on the GS?

A

When established on the localizer and intercepting the vertical approach path from above, the “Intercepting Glideslope from Above” procedure should be utilised.

If the use of an Instrument Approach Procedure is required, the aircraft must be established on the required vertical approach path by the Final Approach Fix (FAF) or Final Approach Point (FAP) as applicable.

If the use of an Instrument Approach Procedure is not required, the aircraft is required to intercept the nominated vertical approach path by 1,000 ft RA.

117
Q

When can you fly noise abatement approach?

A

VMC or
Glideslope or
RMS authorised
stable app not difficult.

21.69

Approaches flown in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC); or

Approaches flown using vertical guidance from a glideslope (GLS/ILS) or coded FMS approach (including IAN as installed) with the appropriate AFDS mode for the approach type; or

At specific airports when authorised in the Airport Brief of the RMS.

Provided:

Aircraft condition and environmental factors would not make it difficult to achieve a stabilised approach.

118
Q

Tolerances during approach?
Desc rate - alt above what?
Vasi/Papi
Centreline
AS
Thr

A

1000 blw 1000RA
Sig deviation from NOMINATED app path
Ext CL by 500RA
-5+10 RA<=500RA
energy level correct for prevailing conds.

21.70.2.2

Descent Rate
less than or equal to 1,000 fpm below 1,000 ft RA.
VASI/PAPI
Any significant deviation from the nominated visual approach path The nominal visual approach path is 3 degrees.
Centreline
Unless specified in a published procedure, the aircraft is tracking the extended centreline of the runway with all manoeuvring completed by 500 ft RA.
Airspeed
Target Airspeed -5 to +10 kts ≤ 500 ft RA.
Thrust
Aircraft energy levels are correct for the configuration and prevailing conditions.

Flight Crew must be aware of thrust and energy levels into the flare and the potential difference in engine spool up time from approach idle to go around thrust compared to normal approach thrust levels to go around thrust.

119
Q

Tolerance for approach ILS?

A

Localizer – PFD/HUD:

Down to 300 ft above threshold elevation within one dot of the normal localizer scale, or within the expanded localizer scale;

Below 300 ft above threshold elevation within one half dot of the normal localizer scale, or within the expanded localizer scale;

“100 above” callout (SA CAT I, SA CAT II, CAT II or CAT IIIA) within half of the expanded localizer scale.

Glideslope – PFD/HUD

1 dot

Note:

With the exception of Category II and Category III, these tolerances apply only down to the minima
21.70.2.3

120
Q

Tolerance for VOR, NDB, DME arcs on approach?

A

VOR
±5° of nominated track
NDB
±5° of nominated track
DME Arc
±2 nm

121
Q

RNP approach tolerances?

LNAV & RNAV OVERLAY

LNAV/VNAV

RNP-AR

A

RNP APCH LNAV & RNAV OVERLAY
Lateral
Within NPS limits from the initial or intermediate waypoint (as appropriate).

Vertical
Not below minimum segment altitude.

RNP APCH LNAV/VNAV
Lateral
Within NPS limits from the initial or intermediate waypoint (as appropriate).

Vertical
Not below minimum segment altitude to FAF then ± 75 ft or within vertical NPS limits from FAF.

RNP-AR
Within lateral and vertical NPS limits from the NNDP, LIP or IAF, as appropriate.

LIP latest intercept point
NNDP something decision point

122
Q

What is the procedure for reverting to standard procedures due to being visual however still flying an underlying IAP?

A

21.70.2.3

When Flight Crew use an Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) that has an MDA or DA below 500 ft RA for flight path guidance, but nominate or transition to Standard Procedures, the tolerances for the underlying IAP still apply at the 500 ft ‘Stable’, ‘Not Stable’ gate, e.g. if cleared for an independent visual approach to Sydney 34R and Flight Crew are using the ILS IAP or GLS IAP for guidance, the tolerances for the ILS or GLS are applicable at the 500 ft RA gate.

This ensures that the aircraft passes through a consistent gate at 500 ft RA.

Below 500 ft RA, the tolerances then revert to the Tolerances Applicable for All Approaches

123
Q

When must you have intercepted vertical path by in a published visual procedure or during visual manoeuvres?

A

21.70.2.4 Tolerances During Visual Circuits or Published Visual Manoeuvres
If conducting a visual circuit, a published visual manoeuvre, or an approach not referenced to an Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP), the aircraft must have intercepted the nominated vertical path by 1,000 ft RA. Below 1,000 ft RA, the Tolerances Applicable for All Approaches apply.

124
Q

Low vis procedure if exceeding 1/2 dot expanded scale at 100 above call?

A

21.70.2.5
For Low Visibility Operations, if the tolerances laid down for localiser or glideslope are exceeded at “100 above” (SA CAT I, SA CAT II, CAT II, CAT IIIA) and below, the First Officer shall use the standard call of “Outside Limits” and an immediate missed approach is mandatory.

125
Q

What are the stable approach altitudes referenced on?
ie what Altitude HAT,HAA,RA….?

A

The intended landing configuration (gear and flap) must be achieved by 1,000 ft RA*.

All approaches must be stable at and below 500 ft RA*.

Radio Altimeter (RA) is used to take advantage of the aural alert which is beneficial in a potential loss of situational awareness scenario.

Runways where the 1,000 ft and 500 ft RA callouts would occur below the equivalent height above aerodrome level will be listed in the RMS. These should be briefed if they’re a factor.

126
Q

The PM shall call “Not Configured” at 1,000 ft RA if:

The PM shall call “Not Stable” at or below 500 ft RA if:

A

21.71.3

The PM shall call “Not Configured” at 1,000 ft RA if the intended landing configuration (gear and flap) has not been achieved, or if below 1,000 ft RA it is identified that the incorrect landing flap setting has been mistakenly selected.

The PM shall call “Not Stable” at or below 500 ft RA if:

Normal checklists have not been completed; or

At any time the aircraft is not fully configured for landing with the flap surfaces in their final landing position; or

The PM observes a sustained exceedance of an approach tolerance (or revised tolerance as briefed); or

The PF fails to correct the aircraft’s flight path following the calling of an exceedance.

Note:
Arming of the speedbrakes, speedbrake deployment or activation of the flap load relief system below 500 ft RA constitutes an unstable approach as the landing configuration has been compromised.

127
Q

Stable app requirements

A

1000’ RA
Configured, ROD max 1000fpm, Vis app/mans on nominated approach path.

500’RA (1000’RA LVP)
Normal CL’s complete
App path (g/s, VNAV lims, vasi/papi)
Pos on centreline (unless specified in PUBLISHED pro)
Airspeed Target AS -5/+10
ROD
Thrust Energy levels are correct, consider spool up.

21.71.2 Stable Approach Criteria
A stable approach exists when the following conditions are met:
All normal checklists have been completed;
The aircraft is fully configured for landing with the flap surfaces in their final landing position; and
The aircraft’s approach path is contained within the flight parameter tolerances listed in FAM Section 21.70.2 – Tolerances During Approach.

21.71.3 Stable Approach Policy – Not Configured and Not Stable Calls
The PM shall call “Not Configured” at 1,000 ft RA if the intended landing configuration (gear and flap) has not been achieved, or if below 1,000 ft RA it is identified that the incorrect landing flap setting has been mistakenly selected.
The PM shall call “Not Stable” at or below 500 ft RA if:
Normal checklists have not been completed; or
At any time the aircraft is not fully configured for landing with the flap surfaces in their final landing position; or
The PM observes a sustained exceedance of an approach tolerance (or revised tolerance as briefed); or
The PF fails to correct the aircraft’s flight path following the calling of an exceedance.

Note:
Arming of the speedbrakes, speedbrake deployment or activation of the flap load relief system below 500 ft RA constitutes an unstable approach as the landing configuration has been compromised.

21.72.4.3 Low vis pro’s
engagement or re-engagement of autopilot(s) must be completed and the aircraft stabilised on the approach by 1,000 ft RA

128
Q

FLS or arming speed brake after 500’RA?

A

Not Stable

21.71.3

Arming of the speedbrakes, speedbrake deployment or activation of the flap load relief system below 500 ft RA constitutes an unstable approach as the landing configuration has been compromised.

129
Q

What is the exact definition of when you can nominate standard procedures?

A

21.72

When meteorological conditions do not require an Instrument Approach, when either manoeuvering visually or tracking via an Instrument Procedure, it is acceptable to nominate Standard Procedures

130
Q

When do Instrument and Low Visibility Procedures start?

A

21.72

At the commencement of the Instrument Approach. This is considered the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) or any point after the IAF where the aircraft joins the Instrument Approach.

131
Q

Define Head Free and Head down.

A

21.72.2
The Head Free pilot monitors external references as well as instruments and will place increasing emphasis externally as the aircraft progresses down the approach path. The Head Free pilot is responsible for calling external references as they become visible and for making an assessment of the visual segment.

The Head Down pilot monitors instruments.
Note:
Monitoring a Head-Up Display (HUD) satisfies these requirements.

132
Q

What does “Continue” mean exactly?

A

21.72.2

Prior to the minima “I wish to continue with Instrument or Low Visibility Procedures”.

At the minima “I have the required visual reference and I am intending to land”.

Note:
This does not preclude a subsequent missed approach.

133
Q

Pilot ‘attitude’ Instrument Procedures?
Pilot attitude Low Vis Procedures?

A

21.72.3
Inst:
PF – Head Down until receipt of the “Visual” call from the PM
PM – Head Free

LVO:

PF – Head Free
PM – Head Down until autopilot disconnect, then Head Free
PM – For manually flown HGS/HUD AIII, Head Down until taxi speed then Head Free.

134
Q

What are the requirements for Low Vis Procedures?
ie When are they mandatory, who flys and automation?

A

21.72.3

LHS pilot to be PF

Available for all instrument approaches

Mandatory for minima below CAT I or when
autoland is intended

Autopilot must be engaged to glideslope or glidepath

Manual landing or autoland

135
Q

What is the ‘operational application’ of landing weather minimums?
This is the ‘2’s’ FO rule…

A

The Captain must be the PF if the ceiling or visibility are reported to be within:

200 ft of the intended approach minima; or

2,000 m of the required visibility.

It is accepted that occasions will arise where the Captain may choose to apply more conservative criteria.

In the rare circumstances where the First Officer is PF, the aircraft is below 1,000 ft RA, and the reported weather changes such that it falls within the above requirement, it may not be desirable for the Captain to takeover. In this situation, the Captain must choose the safest course of action, which may be to allow the First Officer to continue the approach.
21.72.4.2

136
Q

What is the ‘operational application’ of the HUD/AP in terms of ‘the 2’s’?

A

In conditions where the ceiling or visibility are reported to be within 200 ft or 2,000 m of the intended approach minima, it is required that the autopilots/HGS/HUD, when available, be used to their maximum capability until the required visual reference is established, except that for minima of Category I or above, Autoland is at the Captain’s discretion.
21.72.4.2

137
Q

What minima do you use and set when doing a practice autoland?

A

21.72.4.2

When carrying out practice autolands, crew must use the minima for the actual approach being flown. Any minima and/or radio altimeter settings must be in accordance with Standard Operating Procedures for the actual approach minima being used.

138
Q

When can’t you revert to standard procedures?

A

21.72.4.2

It is not permissible to revert to Standard Procedures when within 200 ft of the minima. Instrument Procedures or Low Visibility Procedures should be continued to the minima. In this case the “Visual” call should not be made until minima.

139
Q

When is the latest you can ‘revert’ to Low Vis procedures?

A

It is permissible to change between Approach Procedures with the exception that Low Visibility Procedures must be established no later than 1,000 ft RA.
21.72.4.3

140
Q

Can you disconnect AP during Low Vis Procedures?
Can you re-engage AP maintaining LVP?
Is there any exceptions?

A

21.72.3
Autopilot must be engaged to glideslope or glidepath
21.72.4.3
When disconnecting the autopilot, a call of “Disconnecting” must be made. Additionally if disconnecting the autopilot prior to minima on an approach using Low Visibility Procedures, a call confirming either “Instrument Procedures” or “Standard Procedures” must be made depending on conditions (so you really can’t do it within 200’ of minima I don’t reckon)

When using Low Visibility Procedures, the following requirements apply:

engage all available autopilots;

engagement or re-engagement of autopilot(s) must be completed and the aircraft stabilised on the approach by 1,000 ft RA;

if engagement of the autopilot to the glideslope/glidepath is not re-established by 1,000 ft RA revert to Instrument Procedures with appropriate minima, or execute a Missed Approach if conditions so dictate.

B737 only engage a single autopilot for manual landings;

it is permissible to disconnect the autopilot to support manually flown HUD AIII low visibility operations. In this case Low Visibility Procedures may continue after autopilot disconnect.

141
Q

How many AP’s do you engage for a manual landing?

A

B737 only engage a single autopilot for manual landings;
21.72.4.3

142
Q

Define VMC.
Not in FAM but it references it so here it is…

A

A,B,C,E,G At or above 10,000 ft AMSL
8,000 m (8 km)
1,500 m horizontal 1,000 ft vertical

A,B,C,E,G Below 10,000 ft AMSL
5,000 m (5 km)
1,500 m horizontal 1,000 ft vertical

G At or below whichever is the higher of: › 3,000 ft AMSL, › 1,000 ft AGL
5,000 m (5 km)
Clear of cloud
In sight of ground or water
Radio must be carried and used on appropriate frequency (MOS 26.18)

D All heights
5,000 m (5 km)
600 m horizontal 1,000 ft vertical above cloud 500 ft vertical below cloud

143
Q

When should you use Low Vis Procedures?

A

In IMC, it is recommended that the Captain use Low Visibility Procedures when flying an approach where the autopilot/HUD is engaged to a glideslope or glidepath. However, if the Captain intends to disconnect the autopilot and hand fly the last part of the instrument approach (such as with turbulence or strong crosswind conditions) then the Captain should commence the approach using Instrument Procedures so as to avoid a Head Free/Head Down role change for both pilots when disconnecting the autopilot.

In poor visibility, it is recommended that the autopilot be left engaged until visual reference is assured.
21.72.4.4

IMC basically Vis 5km or less,
and you need 1000’ vert from cld or 1.5km horizontal from cloud to be VMC….

144
Q

What does “Visual” mean?

A

indicates that the Head Free pilot has established and can maintain the required visual reference.

Visual reference means the runway threshold, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway are clearly visible to the pilot AND a FLIGHT visibility not less than that specified for the procedure.
21.72.5.2

The Head Free pilot shall advise on the development of the visual segment and declare “Visual” when the required visual reference is obtained and can be maintained for the remainder of the approach. If Instrument Procedures are continued, it is said again at the minima or the MAP (as applicable for the approach being flown).

145
Q

What does PF do at Visual call on approach with instrument procedures?

A

The PF will look up and assess the acceptability of the visual segment. If this occurs prior to 200 ft above the minima the PF will either:

announce “Continue” and continue Instrument Procedures. If the PF announces “Continue” after the “Visual” call, the PF may subsequently revert to Standard Procedures at any time, or

announce “Standard Procedures” and change to Standard Procedures.
21.72.5.2

146
Q

Continue past minima requirements?
Non ILS

A

At or before the MAP, the required visual reference is established and can be maintained.
The PF must assess the approach path as being acceptable before descending below the minima.

147
Q

Continue past minima requirements?
Cat 1
SA Cat 1

A

Cat 1
At or before DA, the required visual reference is established and can be maintained.
At DA, a portion of the approach lights should be visible or the threshold must be in view if approach lighting is not available.

SA Cat 1 - same as cat 2
At DH:
At least 3 consecutive longitudinally aligned lights, being the centreline of the Approach Lighting System (ALS), or the TDZ lights or RCLL, or REDL or a combination of these lights; and
A lateral element of lighting, being an ALS crossbar, landing threshold or a barette of TDZ lighting (as installed), unless the approach is conducted using a HUD.

148
Q

Continue past minima requirements?
Cat 2, SA Cat 2

A

Cat 2

At DH:

at least 3 consecutive longitudinally aligned lights, being the centreline of the Approach Lighting System (ALS), the TDZ lights, or the RCLL, or REDL or a combination of these lights; and
a lateral element of lighting, being an approach lighting crossbar, landing threshold or a barrette of TDZ lights, unless the approach is conducted using a HUD.

SA cat 2 is the same but the FAM says ‘using HUD till touchdown

149
Q

Continue past minima requirements?
Cat 3a

A

At DH:

at least 3 consecutive longitudinally aligned lights, being the centreline of the Approach Lighting System (ALS), or the TDZ lights, or RCLL, or REDL, or a combination of these lights.

It’s really the same as SA cat 1, SA Cat 2 and Cat2 but it assumes HUD which covers lateral portion…?

150
Q

What precautions should you take with pressure altitude standard calls during a Non ILS approach?

A

21.72.7
Any barometric altimetry height check during a Non-ILS procedure is of no benefit if the QNH has been incorrectly set. Utilise Radio Altitude, EGPWS automated callouts and Vertical Situation Display (VSD) – as installed to enhance situational awareness during approach.

151
Q

Low vis calls 737 at 1000RA.
PM “Configured”

A

PF

“Flare Armed – Autoland”
OR
“Manual Landing”
OR
“AIII Manual Landing” for HUD AIII Approach

152
Q

If you get at RA at the same time as you get a breakout instruction during a PRM approach, which do you follow?

A

If a TCAS RA is received concurrently or during the breakout manoeuvre, then the PF must comply with both the TCAS RA pitch commands and the breakout heading instructions.
21.73.4

153
Q

When must you perform GA?

A

21.75.1.1
The aircraft has not intercepted the nominated vertical approach path by the FAF/FAP when the use of an Instrument Approach Procedure is required or 1,000 ft RA otherwise; or

The landing configuration (gear and flap) has not been achieved by 1,000 ft RA (unless varied by a Non-Normal/Abnormal Procedure), or if below 1,000 ft RA Flight Crew identify that the incorrect landing flap setting has been selected; or

The stable approach criteria has not been met at or below 500 ft RA.

154
Q

What is minimum acceleration height on a GA?

When can you turn during a GA?

A

21.75.2

1000 ft HAA

Follow the published missed approach procedure or ATC instructions, commence acceleration at a minimum of 1000 ft HAA, and reconfigure to a configuration suitable for the anticipated manoeuvres.

CAUTION:
Turns should not be commenced until reaching the published MAP, unless instructed by ATC.

155
Q

What is the guidance/rules regarding multiple missed approaches?

A

21.75.3

Multiple Missed Approaches are not only distressing to passengers, but can also increase the risk of incident or accident. Therefore, during normal operations, Flight Crew should limit the number of weather-related Missed Approaches to two. A third approach in these circumstances should not be immediately attempted unless the Pilot In Command believes there is a high probability of a successful approach and landing, or greater emergency or operational requirement exists.

156
Q

What is TDZ at Qantas?
What are the requirements if you land long?

A

The Target Touchdown Zone commences at 1,000 ft beyond the threshold and will not normally extend further than 2,000 ft beyond the threshold.

It is a requirement that touchdown is planned to occur within the Target Touchdown Zone. However, should the aircraft touchdown further than 2,000 ft beyond the threshold, and the Pilot in Command determines that the landing is safe to continue, the PF must apply full reverse thrust and sufficient braking to ensure that the aircraft stops within the Landing Distance Available (LDA).
21.76.2

A report must be submitted…

157
Q

When must you report landing outside of TDZ?

A

21.76.2

A report must be submitted detailing the circumstances for touchdowns that occur:

Between the landing threshold and 500 ft beyond the landing threshold;

Further than 2,000 ft beyond the landing threshold on runways with an LDA < 2,400 m;

Further than 2,500 ft beyond the landing threshold on runways with an LDA > 2,400 m.

A report must be submitted if the Runway Awareness Advisory System (RAAS) “Long Landing – Long Landing” aural advisory is triggered during the landing.
21.76.2

158
Q

Can you land AB 0?

A

No

All automatic stopping devices/systems shall be armed for touchdown unless directed otherwise by an aircraft specific operating procedure.
21.76.3

159
Q

When is idle Rev recommended?
Intended idle - when do you go full?

A

RCC 6 dry/ 5 wet good
AB1,2,3
Factored Landing Distance Required (LDR) must always be less than Landing Distance Available (LDA), with no RT credit.
Deceleration not as expected or long landing requires max rev.

21.76.4

It is preferable that idle reverse thrust is used during the landing roll in the following circumstances, if landing performance permits:

  1. The Runway Condition Code extracted from the Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM) based on actual conditions is:

a.
6–DRY or
b.
5–WET, GOOD and;
2.
Autobrake settings for idle reverse thrust usage are limited to settings 1, 2, or 3.
3.
No Reverse thrust credit.
4.
Factored Landing Distance Required (LDR) must always be less than Landing Distance Available (LDA).
5.
Flight Crew may consider actual landing distance (unfactored) when planning to exit the runway at an intermediate runway exit point.
The Flight Crew must immediately select maximum reverse thrust after touchdown if any of the following occurs at any time during the landing:

The deceleration is not as expected or aircraft monitoring/warning systems indicate maximum reverse thrust is required;

A failure affects the landing performance;

Initial touchdown is outside the touchdown zone;

An unexpected tailwind.

Note:
Landing performance calculations determining idle reverse thrust performance use NO reverser credit. A thrust reverser MEL therefore does not preclude the use of idle reverse thrust.
The intended level of reverse thrust to be used for the landing roll must be included in the approach briefing. Notwithstanding previously briefed intentions, the Flight Crew retain the option to select maximum reverse thrust at any time.

Nothing shall prevent the use of maximum reverse thrust for landing if it is the most appropriate course of action after consideration of all relevant factors (e.g. system failures, brake cooling requirements, landing weight, transit times).

160
Q

What runway zone do you use to assess landing performance?

A

21.76.5

Flight Crew shall conduct landing performance assessments using the most restrictive Runway Condition Code for any runway zone provided.

161
Q

Landing Performance Calculation:
What RCC used for:
slippery when wet runways?
In heavy rain?
On non grooved runways?

A

SWW = RCC 3
HR and ungrooved in Mod or hvy rain RCC2

162
Q

Can you land RCC poor or less?

A

No

landing must not be attempted unless a greater emergency exists. If another runway is not available, aircraft should hold until conditions improve or divert to another airport.
21.76.5

163
Q

LAHSO rules (Fam)

A

21.76.6

LAHSO is available to aircraft up to and including Performance Category C (or other categories specifically approved by CASA Airline Operations Branch). LDA for LAHSO information will be published on Jeppesen airport charts when available.

Pilots must ensure that the aircraft can be landed safely within the LDA for LAHSO.

The LDA for LAHSO value must meet or exceed the relevant factored landing distance required as calculated in accordance with the regulations.

Where the runway conditions are wet or damp the braking characteristics must be assessed as being GOOD.

Pilots must plan for action in the event of a go-round.
(AIP 7.11.1 “pilots must maintain safe separation from other AC, ATC may not provide standard separation “)

If a go-round does occur pilots must maintain safe separation from other aircraft as it may be impractical for ATC to provide standard separation.

When issued with avoiding instructions pilots should fly the specified heading without delay.

Regardless of any avoiding instructions pilots must always defer to any TCAS RA.

AIP ENR
20xwind
5tail (0wet)
TO/Land Day only
Land only Day&Night
cg MVA, vis 8km (can be reduced to 5)
If wet BA must be good from same cat AC

7.5.1 LAHSO may be conducted subject to the following conditions:

a. The wind for either the active or passive runway, including

gusts, does not exceed:

(1) 20KT crosswind;

(2) 5KT tailwind on a dry runway;

(3) no tailwind when the runway is not dry.

b. A simultaneous take-off and landing is permitted by day only.

c. Simultaneous landings are permitted by day and night.

d. The ceiling is not less than the minimum vectoring altitude (MVA) for the location where LAHSO are being conducted and visibility is not less than 8KM.

e. Visibility may be reduced to 5,000M where ATC are assured of sighting the aircraft prior to a loss of the surveillance standard

f. Advice to the departing aircraft may be given separately from the take-off clearance.

g. Instructions are issued to prevent a landing aircraft from crossing the Hold-Short Line when the intersecting runway is being used by another aircraft.

h. The distance from the landing threshold to the Hold-Short Line of the intersecting runway is adequate for the performance category of the aircraft being held short.

i. ERSA Aerodromes and Facilities (FAC) and/or Runway Distance Supplement (RDS) show “LDA for LAHSO” information. Pilots must ensure that the aircraft can land safely within the LDA for LAHSO.

j. If a runway is reported as WET, the braking characteristics must have been assessed as GOOD by the pilot of an aircraft in the same performance category prior to the landing aircraft being instructed to hold short. ATC will request pilot assessments of the braking characteristics hourly where weather conditions are deteriorating or remain unchanged.

k. The landing aircraft will not be instructed to hold short when low level wind shear is reported.

l. For active participants ground based visual or electronic glide slope guidance must be available and utilised.

m. After landing, the pilot must inform ATC immediately of any difficulty in complying with the ATC requirement to hold short of a crossing runway strip

164
Q

With an extended ground delay on arrival when could you allow a cabin service?

A

Cabin service may only occur when all engines are shutdown.

21.77.1 General
Once Flight Crew become aware that an extended ground delay will occur between landing and parking they should advise the CSM of the anticipated delay, if known, and discuss possible cabin service. Refer to FAM Section 18.27.2 – Ground Delays.

21.77.2 All Engine Shutdown
Flight Crew may shutdown all engines in accordance with aircraft type FCOM procedures after assessing all circumstances, and in consultation with ATC (as applicable). Cabin service may only occur when all engines are shutdown.

Once Engines are shutdown:

Either the Captain or First Officer must be on the flight deck at all times.

Alert the CSM to the possibility that repositioning may be required during the prolonged delay period.

The CSM shall remain contactable by the Flight Crew at all times. If the CSM needs to leave their station in the cabin, they shall nominate a delegate for contact and advise the Flight Crew.

The Seat Belt signs are to be left ON. Passenger movement is permitted. Refer to FAM Section 18.28 – Seat Belt Policy.

Advise the CSM when engines are to be restarted and if subsequent movement of the aircraft is for parking or repositioning.

The Cabin Crew will (re)secure the cabin and give the “Cabin Ready” signal prior to taxi. The aircraft is not to move until the “Cabin Ready” signal has been received.

21.77.3 Cabin Ready on Arrival
The CSM will call the flight deck when the cabin is prepared for aircraft movement after all engines have been shutdown. (This notification may be verbal or a specific signal which is aircraft type dependent).

When given during arrival, the notification indicates:

Cabin is secure.

Cabin Crew are seated with safety harness securely fastened (CSMs secure themselves after signalling the flight deck).

165
Q

When can you not turn onto the bay?

A

The aircraft shall not commence the turn onto the bay unless:

The Visual Docking Guidance System is activated; or

A marshaller is present and ready to receive the aircraft by means of the appropriate signals; AND

As best as can be determined, the bay is clear of foreign objects with ground equipment and vehicles appropriately positioned; AND

When applicable, the aerobridge status light(s) is illuminated green.

The aircraft shall be stopped immediately if at any stage of the parking procedure the above conditions are compromised. The status of the docking system must be monitored by all Flight Crew members during aircraft parking.

For aerobridge equipped bays within Australia, if the aerobridge status light(s) is not green, the aircraft shall not proceed until the anomaly has been rectified by attending ground personnel or the aircraft is under the guidance of a marshaller.

Newer styled aerobridges are gradually being installed at Australian ports and can be identified by a steady red beacon located on top of the structure. This is not an aerobridge status light.

In the event that the aircraft is stopped short of the bay, it may resume taxiing into the bay if airport procedures allow and no jet blast hazard exists behind the aircraft.

166
Q

Can you park if aerobridge status light is not green?

A

For aerobridge equipped bays within Australia, if the aerobridge status light(s) is not green, the aircraft shall not proceed until the anomaly has been rectified by attending ground personnel or the aircraft is under the guidance of a marshaller.

Newer styled aerobridges are gradually being installed at Australian ports and can be identified by a steady red beacon located on top of the structure. This is not an aerobridge status light.
21.78

yet FAM also says if you are being marshalled you need to confirm:

As best as can be determined, the bay is clear of foreign objects with ground equipment and vehicles appropriately positioned

167
Q

If no chocks are installed due to red alert what do you need to do?

A

In conditions of nearby thunderstorms or lightning, a ramp Operations Shutdown may occur. Attending ground personnel may be unable to position wheel chocks to the aircraft. To guard against the possibility of loss of brake pressure, a Flight Crew member is to remain on the flight deck in a control seat until wheels are chocked or the outbound crew board the aircraft.

168
Q

Can you keep an engine running on a transit in very hot/cold weather with the APU inop and no GND air?

A

Nope

21.78

An engine may not be kept running during a transit when an aircraft has an unserviceable APU and no ground services are available for engine start. All engines must be shutdown. This does not preclude idle runs in accordance with FAM Section 19.9.2 – Idle Runs – Passengers on Board or starting an engine for cabin cooling in accordance with FAM Section 21.22.3 – Boarding with Excessive Cabin Temperature APU Inoperative.

169
Q

Under what conditions is it recommended to keep parking brake set after gate arrival?

A

21.79

If adverse or gusty winds are being experienced or anticipated (approximately 30 kt), consider leaving Park Brake set.

170
Q

What is the tech log requirements for End of Flight IRS/IRU Accuracy Check?

A

21.80

After each sector, as part of the postflight procedures, the IRS/IRU performance must be validated. If the IRS/IRU drift exceeds 3.0 nm/hr and/or the residual groundspeed exceeds 15 kt, a Technical Log entry is required and the IRS/IRU selector should remain in NAV.