AIP ENR Flashcards

1
Q

When departing an airport participating in PDC, pilots must obtain the PDC, via ACARS or hard copy message, no later than

A

15 minutes prior to EOBT. If the PDC is not available by 15 minutes prior to EOBT, pilots must contact the ACD frequency for a verbal airways clearance

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2
Q

PDC
Pilots must readback the following items on the ACD frequency, or on the SMC frequency if ACD is not established, prior to a pushback or taxi request

A

a. The SID, including runway and/or transition (if issued);

b. Transponder code;

c. Additional requirements specified in the PDC; and

d. Current parking position/bay

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3
Q

Avoidance of collision on apron areas is a joint responsibility of

A

the pilot in command and any assisting company ground personnel

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4
Q

At Class D aerodromes, pilots must include the following information when reporting ready:

A

a. The departure runway when parallel runway operations are in

progress;

b. Their intentions when operating wholly within a Class D CTR; and

c. Their tracking details when departing the Class D CTR and not in receipt of an airways clearance

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5
Q

What wind components are given by ATC as standard for landing?

A

12 kt xwind and any tailwind

2.12.1 Provision of Operational Information

ATC will supply the following information for landing operations:

a. runway or direction;

b. wind direction and speed, QNH and, if required, temperature and/or dew point;

c. known significant weather information, including low cloud and visibility or runway visual range;

d. the crosswind component on the runway to be used, if this equals or exceeds 8KT for single-engined aircraft or 12KT for multi-engined aircraft;

e. the tailwind component

f. aerodrome surface conditions significant to the operation including maintenance work within 23M of the runway side stripe marking;

g. birds or other hazards to aircraft; and

h. cautionary advice of wake turbulence.

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6
Q

When must you request alternate runway for landing if different from duty runway?

A

120nm from capitol city airports otw 30nm.

2.12.2 Selection of Landing Direction

The pilot in command must ensure that the nominated runway or direction is operationally suitable. If the nominated runway or direction is not suitable then ATC must be advised using the phrase “REQUIRE RUNWAY (number)”. Such a request will not result in loss of priority provided it is made:

a. before reaching 80NM (120NM for jets) from a capital city

aerodrome (including Essendon) or 30NM from other

controlled aerodromes, for arriving aircraft wholly within

controlled airspace; or

b. on first contact with ATC for arriving aircraft entering controlled airspace within the distance specified above or a control area step or a control zone.

The decision to land rests solely with the pilot in command

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7
Q

Downwind report, what do you do if you can’t make it till late downwind?

A

2.12.4 Downwind Report to Tower

Unless otherwise instructed by ATC, the pilot of an arriving or circuit training aircraft must report DOWNWIND when starting or entering the downwind leg of the traffic circuit.

If frequency congestion prevents the call being made when starting the downwind leg, the pilot must report MID-DOWNWIND or LATE-DOWNWIND as appropriate

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8
Q

A landing aircraft will not be permitted to cross the threshold of the runway on its final approach until:
Preceding AC departing/landing…

A

2.12.6.2 A landing aircraft will not be permitted to cross the threshold of the runway on its final approach until:

a. a preceding departing aircraft using the same runway:

(1) is airborne, AND

– has commenced a turn; or

– is beyond the point on the runway at which the landing aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll and there is sufficient distance to manoeuvre safely in the event of a missed approach

a preceding landing aircraft using the same runway:

(1) has vacated it and is taxiing away from the runway; or

c. a preceding aircraft, using a different runway, has crossed or stopped short of the landing aircraft’s runway.

In the above situations, a landing clearance may be issued if ATC expect that the required runway separation standard will exist

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9
Q

Go Around and Missed Approach Procedure in VMC

A

2.14.1 Except as specified in ERSA for specific locations, an aircraft that is required to go around from a visual approach in VMC must initially climb on runway track, remain visual and await instructions from ATC. If the aircraft can not clear obstacles on runway track, the aircraft may turn.

2.14.2 In the event that an aircraft is unable, or does not wish, to land from an instrument approach in VMC, the aircraft must carry out the published instrument missed approach procedure for the instrument approach being flown, unless ATC directs otherwise.

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10
Q

What are the track keeping tolerances in controlled airspace?
Loc, NDB, DME, RNAV, visual?
Can you use these tolerances for uncleared deviations?

A

4.6.2 Additionally, the pilot must immediately notify ATC for any of the deviations described below:

a. where route or track guidance is provided by a localiser or

VOR - half scale deflection or more of the Course Deviation

Indicator (CDI);

b. where route or track guidance is provided by NDB - ±5° or more from the specified bearing;

c. where route or track guidance is provided by DME - ±2NM or more from the required arc;

d. where route or track guidance is provided by an area navigation system - when the aircraft cannot be maintained on the desired track plus/minus the prescribed RNP/RNAV value; and

e. when navigating by visual reference to the ground or water -more than 1NM from the cleared track.

Note: The values given above must not be interpreted as defining a sector within which the pilot is permitted to navigate or tolerances within which deviations from route or track without clearance are permitted

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11
Q

When GNSS integrity is not assured, the following procedures must be adopted, or you lose RAIM:

A

a. Aircraft tracking must be closely monitored against other on-board navigation systems.

b. The pilot in command of an aircraft must advise ATS if any of the following occurs:

(1) during an en route phase of flight — there is RAIM loss or loss of GNSS integrity for more than 5 minutes;

(2) during a terminal phase of flight — there is RAIM loss or loss of GNSS integrity;

(3) when ATS requests the provision of GNSS-derived information — RAIM or GNSS integrity is not available;

(4) when ATS grants a clearance or imposes a requirement based on GNSS-derived information — RAIM or GNSS integrity is not available;

(5) the GNSS receiver is in dead-reckoning mode, or experiences loss of its navigation function, for more than 1 minute.

c. If valid position information is lost, or non- RAIM operation exceeds 5 minutes, the GNSS information is to be considered unreliable and another means of navigation should be used until RAIM is restored and the aircraft is re-established on track.

d. Following re-establishment of RAIM, the appropriate ATS unit should be notified of RAIM restoration prior to using GNSS information. This will allow ATC to reassess the appropriate separation standards

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12
Q

Comm Failure AIP:

A

7600
All lights on
Bcast blind, 121.5..123.45

AIP 6.2.6

(5) Maintain the last assigned speed and level for a period of 60 minutes following the aircraft’s failure to report its position over a compulsory reporting point (including ADS-C flights), and thereafter adjust speed and altitude in accordance with the filed flight plan

6.2.7 In the event of lost communication, ATC shall maintain separation between the aircraft having the communication failure and other aircraft, based on the assumption that the aircraft having the communication failure will operate in accordance with the procedures in 6.2.6

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13
Q

What is active and passive in LAHSO?

A

7.3.1 LAHSO are to be considered dependent procedures, with participating aircraft classified as either:

a. active - when an aircraft is issued a hold short requirement

and is alerted about traffic on a crossing runway; or

b. passive - when an aircraft has unrestricted use of the full runway length and is alerted about traffic on a crossing runway

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14
Q

When must you not accept an active ‘ie hold short’ LAHSO clearance?

A

7.4.4 A pilot must not accept a requirement to “HOLD SHORT” unless they are qualified, has situation awareness, and has determined that the LDA is adequate for the prevailing conditions and the status of the aircraft

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15
Q

LAHSO requirements
Wind
Cg/vis
Time of day
Runway condition

A

20xwind
5tail (0wet)
TO/Land Day only
Land only Day&Night
cg MVA, vis 8km (can be reduced to 5)
If wet BA must be good from same cat AC

7.5 Conditions for LAHSO

7.5.1 LAHSO may be conducted subject to the following conditions:

a. The wind for either the active or passive runway, including

gusts, does not exceed:

(1) 20KT crosswind;

(2) 5KT tailwind on a dry runway;

(3) no tailwind when the runway is not dry.

b. A simultaneous take-off and landing is permitted by day only.

c. Simultaneous landings are permitted by day and night.

d. The ceiling is not less than the minimum vectoring altitude (MVA) for the location where LAHSO are being conducted and visibility is not less than 8KM.

e. Visibility may be reduced to 5,000M where ATC are assured of sighting the aircraft prior to a loss of the surveillance standard

f. Advice to the departing aircraft may be given separately from the take-off clearance.

g. Instructions are issued to prevent a landing aircraft from crossing the Hold-Short Line when the intersecting runway is being used by another aircraft.

h. The distance from the landing threshold to the Hold-Short Line of the intersecting runway is adequate for the performance category of the aircraft being held short.

i. ERSA Aerodromes and Facilities (FAC) and/or Runway Distance Supplement (RDS) show “LDA for LAHSO” information. Pilots must ensure that the aircraft can land safely within the LDA for LAHSO.

j. If a runway is reported as WET, the braking characteristics must have been assessed as GOOD by the pilot of an aircraft in the same performance category prior to the landing aircraft being instructed to hold short. ATC will request pilot assessments of the braking characteristics hourly where weather conditions are deteriorating or remain unchanged.

k. The landing aircraft will not be instructed to hold short when low level wind shear is reported.

l. For active participants ground based visual or electronic glide slope guidance must be available and utilised.

m. After landing, the pilot must inform ATC immediately of any difficulty in complying with the ATC requirement to hold short of a crossing runway strip

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16
Q

Minimum equipment RVSM?

A

8.3 Operational Procedures Before Entering the RVSM Flight

Level Band - RVSM Approved Aircraft

8.3.1 On each flight before entering the RVSM flight level band, pilots of RVSM-approved aircraft must check to ensure that all of the following minimum mandatory equipment is operating normally:

a. two independent primary altimetry systems,

b. a Mode C-capable SSR transponder,

c. an altitude alert system, and

d. an autopilot with height lock.

8.3.2 If any item of the minimum mandatory equipment listed in para 8.3.1 is not operating normally, a pilot must notify ATC before entering the RVSM flight level band using the phraseology “NEGATIVE RVSM” (see GEN 3.4 Sub-section 6.6 Item 2.q.)

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17
Q

RVSM

Failure of One Primary Altimetry System

Failure of All Primary Altimetry Systems

A

Failure of One Primary Altimetry System. If one of the primary altimetry systems fails, but the remaining altimetry system is functioning normally, the pilot must:

a. couple that system to the autopilot with height lock;

b. maintain increased vigilance of altitude-keeping; and

c. notify ATC of the failure using the phraseology, “FOR INFORMATION, OPERATING ON ONE PRIMARY ALTIMETER ONLY”.

8.4.3 Failure of All Primary Altimetry Systems. If all primary altimetry systems fail, or are considered unreliable, the pilot must:

a. maintain the flight level indicated on the standby altimeter (if

the aircraft is so equipped) at the time of failure or when

considered unreliable;

b. alert nearby aircraft by turning on all exterior lights and, if not in VHF contact with ATC, by broadcasting advice of the failure, position, flight level, and intentions on 121.5MHz

c. notify ATC of the failure using the phraseology “NEGATIVE RVSM” (see GEN 3.4 Sub-section 6.6 Item 2.q.) and the intended course of action.

8.4.4 In Oceanic Class A Airspace. If unable to obtain ATC clearance in a timely manner following a failure of all primary altimetry systems in oceanic Class A airspace, the pilot must proceed as follows:

a. If operationally feasible to do so, leave the assigned route or

track by turning at least 45° right or left, whenever this is

possible, taking account of adjacent routes and descend

below FL290.

b. If not operationally feasible to execute this contingency procedure, continue to alert nearby aircraft and coordinate with ATC.

8.4.5 Divergence in Primary Altimetry Systems’ Indication. If the primary altimeters diverge by more than 200FT, the pilot must proceed as follows:

a. Attempt to determine the defective system through

established “trouble shooting” procedures and/or comparing

the primary altimeter displays to the standby altimeter (as

corrected by correction card, if required).

b. If the defective system can be determined, couple the functioning altimetry system to the autopilot with height lock and proceed as in para 8.4.2.

c. If the defective system cannot be determined, proceed as in para 8.4.3

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18
Q

Failure of the Autopilot with Height Lock RVSM

A

8.4.8 Failure of the Autopilot with Height Lock. If the autopilot with height lock fails, the pilot must initiate the following actions sequentially:

a. Maintain CFL.

b. Evaluate the aircraft’s capability to maintain altitude through manual control.

c. Assess the situation regarding possible conflicting traffic.

d. Alert nearby aircraft by turning on all exterior lights and, if not in VHF contact with ATC, broadcast advice of failure, position, flight level, and intentions on 121.5MHz.

e. Notify ATC of the failure using the phraseology “NEGATIVE RVSM” (see GEN 3.4 Sub-section 6.6 Item 2.q.) and the intended course of action

8.4.9 In Oceanic Class A Airspace. Possible courses of action for the pilot following a failure of the autopilot with height lock in oceanic Class A airspace include the following:

a. Provided that the aircraft can maintain CFL, continue at that

level.

b. If the aircraft cannot maintain CFL and is unable to obtain a revised ATC clearance, leave the assigned route or track by turning 90° right or left, whenever this is possible, taking account of adjacent routes

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19
Q

Max speed in circuit?

A

9.2.3 Aircraft should not be operated in the circuit at an indicated airspeed of more than 200KT

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20
Q

Do recreational flights need to give way to commercial flights?

A

9.2.8 So as not to impede commercial aviation, pilots flying recreational or sport aircraft for their own enjoyment, or pilots flying GA aircraft for their own leisure, should consider giving way to aircraft being used for “commerce” provided that the inconvenience to their own operation is not great and it can be done safely. Operators of commercial aircraft should never expect a give way offer to be assumed or automatic. Any offer to give way must be explicit and its acceptance acknowledged

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21
Q

Separation Minima for Take-off class G AIP

A

9.3.1 An aircraft must not commence take-off until:

a. a preceding departing aircraft using the same runway has:

(1) crossed the upwind end of the runway; or

(2) commenced a turn; or

(3) if the runway is longer than 1,800M, become airborne and is at least 1,800M ahead.

b. a preceding landing aircraft using the same runway, has vacated it and is taxiing away from the runway; or

c. a preceding aircraft, using another runway, has crossed or stopped short of the take-off aircraft’s runway

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22
Q

Separation Minima for Landing Class G

A

An aircraft must not continue its approach to land beyond the threshold of the runway until:

a. a preceding departing aircraft using the same runway is

airborne and:

(1) has commenced a turn; or

(2) is beyond the point on the runway at which the landing aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll and there is sufficient distance to manoeuvre safely in the event of a missed approach;

b. a preceding landing aircraft using the same runway has vacated it and is taxiing away from the runway;

c. a preceding aircraft using another runway, has crossed or stopped short of the landing aircraft’s runway

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23
Q

What is alternate minima for an airport without an IAP?

A

10.7.2.10
By day only - for aerodromes without an IAP, or that has an IAP but the pilot is unable to conduct that procedure, the alternate minima is the lowest safe altitude for the final route segment plus 500FT and a visibility of 8KM

Note: Alternate minima based on weather for night IFR operations is only para (a) above. If the planned destination aerodrome for an IFR flight by night does not have any IAP, or any IAP that the pilot can conduct, then due to para 10.7.3.1, the flight must plan for a destination alternate aerodrome. By virtue of para 10.7.1.2, the destination alternate aerodrome must have an IAP that the pilot is able to conduct, which would then result in para (a) being the applicable alternate weather minima

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24
Q

Do you need an alternate if flying to a PAL equipped airport?

How about using a PAL equipped airport as an alternate?

A

10.7.4.3 PAL. When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with PAL and standby power, provision must be made for a flight to an alternate aerodrome equipped with runway lighting unless a responsible person is in attendance to manually switch on the aerodrome lighting

10.7.4.4 Alternate Aerodromes - PAL. An aerodrome served by PAL may be nominated as an alternate aerodrome.

There is no requirement for a responsible person on the ground to be in attendance, but the aircraft must be equipped with:

a. dual VHF; or

b. single VHF and HF communications and carries 30 minutes holding fuel to allow for the alerting of ground staff in the event of a failure of the aircraft’s VHF communication

An alternate aerodrome nominated in accordance with the requirements in paras 10.7.4.2 and 10.7.4.3 need not have standby power or standby portable runway lighting

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25
Q

What restrictions are there flying to an airport without standby power for lights?

A

Alternate required, or responsible person.

10.7.4.2 Standby Power. When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with electric runway lighting, whether pilot activated or otherwise, but without standby power, provision must be made for flight to an alternate aerodrome unless portable runway lights are available and arrangements have been made for a responsible person to be in attendance during the period specified in para 10.8.1.1 (note c), to display the portable lights in the event of a failure of the primary lighting

The alternate requirements of paras 10.7.4.1 to 10.7.4.4 inclusive need not be applied if the aircraft carries holding fuel for first light plus 10 minutes at the destination

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26
Q

Define ‘Minimum Fuel’ declaration

A

The pilot in command shall advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring MINIMUM FUEL when, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the pilot in command calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than final reserve fuel.

Note 1: The declaration of MINIMUM FUEL informs ATC that all planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing and any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than final reserve fuel. This is not an emergency situation but an indication that an emergency situation is possible should any additional delay occur.

Note 2: Pilots should not expect any form of priority handling as a result of a “MINIMUM FUEL” declaration. ATC will, however, advise the flight crew of any additional expected delays as well as coordinate when transferring control of the aircraft to ensure other ATC units are aware of the flight’s fuel state

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27
Q

Define Emergency Fuel,
What is the call required if expect a normal landing?

A

10.9.3 Emergency Fuel

10.9.3.1 The pilot in command must declare a situation of emergency fuel by broadcasting MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL, when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the final reserve fuel.

Note 1: MAYDAY FUEL declaration is a distress message.

Note 2: In circumstances where a normal approach and landing is expected and the pilot assesses there is no requirement for emergency services, ATS should be so advised as early as possible e.g. “EXPECTING NORMAL APPROACH AND LANDING, EMERGENCY SERVICES NOT REQUIRED

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28
Q

When should you report braking action on landing?

A

At a controlled aerodrome, section 3 (braking action) should be reported when encountered runway braking action is not as good as reported.

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29
Q

Define moderate and severe icing.

A

Moderate: Conditions in which a change of heading and/ or altitude may be considered desirable.

– Severe: Conditions in which immediate change of heading and/or altitude is considered essential

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30
Q

When should you airep thunderstorms?

A

Thunderstorms: Only report those thunderstorms which are:

– obscured in haze; or

– embedded in cloud; or

– widespread; or

– forming a squall-line.

31
Q

What strong winds should you report to ATC on initial climb (airep)

A

– Other Phenomena - incidence of severe or moderate turbulence, thunderstorms, moderate or severe icing, hail, line squalls, standing waves or winds of 40KT or more within 2,000FT of ground level.

32
Q

When may ATC not provide wake turbulence separation to IFR aircraft?

A

when an IFR aircraft is in flight and the pilot has:

(1) reported the preceding aircraft in sight; and

(2) accepted responsibility to follow, or maintain their own separation with that aircraft

33
Q

Extra speed limitation Class D?

A

200KT IAS at or below 2,500FT AAL within 4NM of the primary Class D aerodrome

34
Q

Cat C and Cat D performance cat?

A

C speeds from 121KT to 140KT IAS.

D speeds from 141KT to 165KT IAS.

1.2.2 An aircraft must fit into and be operated in accordance with the requirements of only one category. An aircraft:

a. may not reduce category because of reduced operating

weight, but

b. must increase category when actual handling speeds are in-excess of those for category (based on Vat) detailed at section
1.15

35
Q

When can you descend below LSALT or MSA on approach?

A

After crossing IAF or complying with vis app reqs.

1.4 Minimum Route Altitudes

Except when complying with the requirements for a visual approach, when conforming to a published DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or when identified and assigned an altitude by ATC, an aircraft approaching an aerodrome must not descend below the LSALT or the MSA for the route segment being flown (see para 2.3) until it has arrived over the IAF or facility

36
Q

What are the obstacle clearance requirements in altitude and distance in Circling Areas?
C and D and E

A

Note 2. The pilot should maintain the maximum practical obstacle clearance. The minimum obstacle clearance requirements are:

Categories C and D - 400FT; and

Category E - 500FT.

Note 3. The circling area is determined by drawing an arc centred on the threshold of each usable runway and joining these arcs by tangents. The radii are
4.20NM for Category C,
5.28NM for Category D and
6.94NM for Category E.

Runways less than 1,000M long are not considered usable for Categories C, D and E.

1.68NM = 3,111M

2.66NM = 4,926M

4.20NM = 7,778M

5.28NM = 9,779M

6.94NM = 12,853M

37
Q

When can you break off a offset NPA to align with runway centreline?

A

Alignment with the Runway Centreline. Manoeuvring to align the aircraft with the runway centreline can be undertaken when:

� within the circling area,

� visual reference can be maintained,

� continuously in sight of ground or water.

Note 1: Procedures with offset angles greater than 5° are de-signed such that aircraft cross the runway centreline no closer than 1,400M to the threshold.

For offset angles equal to or less than 5°, the final approach track is designed to be within 150 metres of the runway centreline at 1,400M. Some older procedures may use 900M in place of 1,400M.

Note 2: For the purpose of this section ‘visual reference’ means the runway threshold, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot and a flight visibility not less than that specified for the procedure

38
Q

What is standard Missed approach gradient?
What terrain clearance does it give you?

A

In IAL procedures, the missed approach is designed to provide a minimum obstacle clearance of 100FT to an aircraft climbing along the specified missed approach path at a gradient of 2.5% (152FT/NM) from the MAPT or DA/RA Height from which the missed approach procedure commences. If this missed approach climb gradient cannot be achieved the DA, MDA or RA Height should be increased, or other action taken to achieve the required obstacle clearance along the specified missed approach flight path.

39
Q

What addition do you need to make with a partial lighting failure? Ie REDL 120m spacing instead of 60m.

A

1.18.3 Partial Runway Lighting Failure. At a controlled aerodrome, in the event of failure of one electrical circuit on a runway equipped with interleaved circuitry lighting, pilots will be notified of a doubled spacing of runway edge lights; i.e. from 60M to 120M spacing. When such a failure occurs at night, pilots must apply the following requirements to an approach to land:

a. In VMC:

No restriction.

b. In Less Than VMC:

The prevailing visibility must be equal to, or greater than, the published minimum for the instrument approach procedure being used for an aircraft’s arrival multiplied by a factor of 1.5.

40
Q

When should ATC advise EAP?

A

3.2.3 Where a delay of six minutes or more is expected, ATC will advise an expected approach time or expected landing time

41
Q

Can you depart a holding fix early?

A

3.2.6 At the time or position advised, the pilot must depart from the hold. A pilot should leave the holding fix on time, or up to one (1) minute ahead of time, and unless identified, report leaving the holding fix

42
Q

Hold Speeds Australia
How about turbulence?

A

a. Speed. Indicated speed must not exceed

(1) up to and including FL140

– 230KT, or

(2) above FL140 up to and including FL200, 240KT; and

(3) above FL200, 265KT

Note: Above the highest MSA in turbulent conditions, speeds may be increased to the lesser of 280KT or M0.8 subject to ATC approval in CTA

43
Q

When do you commence your turn on a DME limit hold?

A

You continue outbound to the earlier of the time, or the DME limit specified; and execute a 180° turn to realign the aircraft on the inbound track.

3.5 Standard Holding Pattern

3.5.1 When flying the standard holding pattern, an aircraft must:

a. follow the prescribed track inbound to the holding fix;

b. execute a 180° turn in the direction specified, so as to fly outbound a track parallel to the inbound track;

c. continue outbound to the earlier of the time, or the DME limit specified; and

d. execute a 180° turn to realign the aircraft on the inbound track.

3.6.1 The “DME Limit”, where prescribed for holding patterns, is the DME distance at which the outbound leg of the holding pattern must be terminated and the turn to the reciprocal track commenced

44
Q

What is the wind allowance in a hold?

A

Wind allowance.
Allowance should be made in heading and timing to compensate for the effects of wind to ensure the inbound track is regained before passing the holding fix inbound. Full use should be made of indications available from the aid and estimated or known winds

45
Q

How do you identify an approach designed on TAF QNH use?
What can you do if you have actual QNH?

A

Where instrument approach charts are identified by a shaded background to either the minima titles for IAL charts or the published minima for DME or GNSS Arrival Procedures, landing, circling and alternate minima have been calculated assuming the use of Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH. These minima may be reduced by 100FT whenever an actual aerodrome QNH is set. Approved sources of actual QNH are ATC and ATIS except when the aerodrome forecast QNH is provided, AWIS and Bureau of Meteorology (BoM) accredited meteorological observers. An actual aerodrome QNH obtained from an approved source is valid for a period of 15 minutes from the time of receipt.

Note: METAR QNH does not meet this requirement

46
Q

When Area QNH is used on an approach you must:

A

5.3.4 Where the forecast area QNH is used, the minima used must be increased by 50FT

47
Q

Where can you capture false courses on ILS?

A
  1. False courses may exist or course reversals may occur outside the sector 35° (or 20° at certain aerodromes specified in ERSA) either side of an ILS localiser course
48
Q

Describe FAF height checked in terms of AIP

A

7.3 Altimeter Checks and Flight Tolerances

7.3.1 The final approach segment contains a fix at which the glide path/altimeter relationship should be verified. If the check indicates an unexplained discrepancy, the ILS/GLS approach should be discontinued. Pilots must conform to the following flight tolerances:

a. To ensure obstacle clearance, both LOC/GLS final approach

course and glideslope should be maintained within half scale

deflection (or equivalent on expanded scale).

b. If, at any time during the approach after the FAP, the LOC/ GLS final approach or glideslope indicates full scale deflection a missed approach should be commenced

49
Q

What is the standard climb gradient on a SID?

A

Each SID procedure specifies the minimum design climb gradient that ensures obstacle clearance. Where the initial required climb gradient exceeds 3.3%, the altitude at which a 3.3% climb gradient may be flown is also shown. A gradient shown in brackets specifies the climb gradient required to remain inside controlled airspace

50
Q

Airborne report on radar SID requires what?

A

For a radar SID, the direction of turn and assigned heading must be advised in the airborne report

51
Q

Do you automatically get an AR approach if one is approved?

A

10.1.4 Unless the pilot requests an alternative approach, flights that have included PBN/T1 in Field 18 of the flight notification form will normally be issued a STAR with an RNP AR termination (where published) or an expectation of an RNP AR approach.

Note: At some locations traffic complexity may prevent allocation

52
Q

Can you do an orbit when cleared a DME arrival?

A

11.2.2 When cleared for a DME or GNSS Arrival in controlled airspace an aircraft must not orbit, enter a holding pattern, or use holding pattern entry procedures. ATC will not issue a clearance for a DME or GNSS Arrival that involves the use of a holding pattern entry procedure

53
Q

When can you manoeuvre to align with centreline when on DME arrival?

A

Where the track being flown is not aligned with the landing runway, a clearance for a DME or GNSS Arrival includes a clearance to manoeuvre within the circling area to position the aircraft on final for landing

54
Q

Do DME arrivals protect you from CTA +500’?

A

Where possible, DME and GNSS Arrival Procedures are designed to contain the aircraft within controlled airspace and provide 500FT separation from the CTA lower limit. However, there are locations where the procedure commences in Class G airspace, or which can take aircraft into Class G airspace on descent. Pilots should check procedures to ensure that aircraft are contained in CTA where required

55
Q

Light signals
Steady green
steady red
flash green
flash red
white flash

A
56
Q

What do flashing runway or taxilights mean re light signals?

A

Light Signals to Vehicles and Pedestrians

Flashing runway or taxiway lighting:

Vacate the runway or taxiway and observe the tower for light signal

This is basically an emergency signal if ground traffic hasn’t observed normal light signals:

57
Q

When should you automatically switch to tower on approach?

A

3.15 Unless otherwise instructed, the pilot in command should change automatically to tower frequency, provided that:

a. the aircraft is established on the final approach track and has

been cleared for final approach; and

b. air-ground communications congestion or failure has not allowed the pilot to report ESTABLISHED, or obtain a clearance to transfer to tower; and

c. transfer to tower shall not be prior to 4NM from touchdown

58
Q

ATC assigns 290 kts descending through 12T for 8T, are you required to slow to 250/10T

A

Yes.

An ATC-issued speed control instruction, whilst in force, explicitly cancels published speed restrictions.

Note: Airspace speed limitations still apply

59
Q

When can you slow from ATC speed restriction on approach?

A

A pilot will be advised when a specific ATC-issued speed control instruction is no longer necessary. Unless otherwise stated, an ATC-issued speed control instruction applies until the aircraft reaches the point in the descent profile where the speed would normally be reduced below that assigned by ATC. Except for a STAR, a DME arrival, or unless otherwise specified, a clearance for final approach or a clearance for a visual approach terminates speed control.

60
Q

Why shouldn’t you select 7700 in an emergency?

A

The pilot of an aircraft encountering an emergency in flight, other than loss of two way communications, should select code 7700 unless they have specific reason to believe that maintaining the assigned code would be the better course of action

61
Q

Transponder code for IFR in class G

A

2000

62
Q

IFR altimeter check:

A

With an accurate QNH set, the altimeter(s) should read the nominated elevation to within 60FT. If an altimeter has an error in excess of ± 75FT, the altimeter must be considered unserviceable.

1.2.2 When two altimeters are required for the category of operation, one of the altimeters must read the nominated elevation to within 60FT. When the remaining altimeter has an error between 60FT and 75FT, flight under the IFR to the first point of landing, where the accuracy of the altimeter can be re-checked, is approved. In the event that the altimeter shows an error in excess of 60FT on the second check, the altimeter must be considered unserviceable for flight under the IFR

63
Q

Can you get a block in Class E?

A

Civil IFR flights will not be allocated block levels in Class E airspace.

64
Q

What is ‘standard rate’ of climb/desc.

A

The phrase “STANDARD RATE”, when included in a

clearance, specifies a rate of climb or descent of not less than

500FT per minute, except that the last 1,000FT to an

assigned level must be made at 500FT per minute

65
Q

When a new COBT has been received should you notify ATC?

A

If a new COBT has been issued after receiving airways clearance, pilots are to advise ATC of the amended COBT when calling for a start/pushback/taxi clearance

66
Q

What type of airborne traffic delays can you expect if non compliant with COBT?
Earlys and Lates?

A

Notwithstanding actions taken under 3.2.3 and 3.2.4 to achieve compliance, flights departing non-compliant can expect delays en route. Non-compliant flights will be allocated the next available slot time up to a maximum delay as follows:

a. Early non-compliant - 60MIN; or

b. Late non-compliant - published traffic holding delay

67
Q

COBT compliance windows?
Arr SY, BN, ML, PH
Dep PH

A

Arrivals (SY, BN, ML, PH) -5MIN to +15MIN

Departure (PH) -5MIN to +10MIN

68
Q

What airports are subject to slot times?
What about Ground Delay Program ie COBT?

A

Sydney, Brisbane and Perth
All arrivals and departures

Adelaide and Darwin
All international and scheduled domestic flights

Cairns, Gold Coast and Melbourne
All Intl flights.

GDP:

The NOMC publishes GDP for:

a. arrivals to Sydney, Brisbane, Melbourne and Perth Airports;

and

b. departures from Perth Airport.

Note: Additional operating procedures are contained in ERSA FAC for the specified airport

69
Q

When crossing a waypoint with a crossing time what is your speed window and what speed should you cross?

A

When ATC allocates a waypoint crossing time, aircraft must adjust speed to cross the waypoint at the specified time or up to 30 seconds early. Speed adjustment to meet a waypoint crossing time only applies to the specified waypoint. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, pilots must cross the waypoint at the lesser of 250KT or profile speed

70
Q

What is the minimum weather reports you need before departure?
Can you depart without dest TAF ?

A

TAF Dep, Dest and Alt if using one.
Area forcast or sig weather chart
Wind/temp chart.
Yes, TAF within dep+30 and u can do air return max 1hr.

1.2.1 Forecast information must include:

a. an aerodrome forecast for the:

(i) departure

(ii) destination; and

(iii) when required, any alternate aerodromes; and

b. one of the following:

(i) a flight forecast; or

(ii) a GAF (at and below A100); or

(iii) a SIGWX forecast (above A100); and

c. a wind and temperature forecast

For a flight to a destination for which a prescribed instrument approach procedure does not exist, the minimum requirement is a GAF.

Note: A wind and temperature forecast may be obtained from Wind and Temperature Charts, Grid Point Wind and Temperature Charts, Route Sector Winds and Temperatures Forecasts, a NAIPS Wind and Temperature Profile (applicable for the flight), as well as from approved flight planning systems that derive data from the Bureau of Meteorology or the WAFS.

1.2.2 For flights for which a forecast is required and cannot be obtained, the flight is permitted to depart provided the pilot is satisfied that the weather at the departure point will permit the safe return of the flight within one hour of departure. The flight is permitted to continue provided:

a. for Part 121 operations – the authorised weather forecasts for the route, destination and any planned alternate aerodromes, are obtained within 30 minutes after departure

For flights to a destination for which an aerodrome forecast is required and cannot be obtained, the flight is permitted to depart provided an alternate aerodrome meeting all the requirements specified in ENR 1.1 Section 10.7 is provided

71
Q

What period must TAFs cover dest and alt airports?

A

A pilot in command must ensure that the forecasts cover the period of the flight and that the aerodrome forecasts for the destination and alternate aerodromes, to be nominated in the flight plan, are valid for a period of not less than 30 minutes before and 60 minutes after the planned ETA

72
Q

When preflight briefing is obtained more than one hour prior to EOBT, what should you do…

A

pilots should obtain an update before each departure to ensure that the latest information available can be used for the flight. The update should be obtained by NAIPS pilot access, telephone, or, when this is impracticable, by radio

73
Q

What are RA conditional statuses 1,2,3?
Restricted areas…

A

RA1 Pilots may flight plan through the Restricted Area and, under normal circumstances, expect a clearance from ATC.

RA2 Pilots must not flight plan through the Restricted Area unless on a route specified in ERSA GEN FPR or under agreement with the controlling authority. Even so, a clear-ance from ATC is not assured. Other track-ing may be offered through the Restricted Area on a tactical basis.

RA3 Pilots must not flight plan through the Restricted Area and clearances will not be available.

Note 1: NOTAM may be issued to indicate changes to the conditional status, which should be checked prior to flight planning.

Note 2: In a declared emergency, every effort will be made to obtain approval to transit a Restricted Area, irrespective of its conditional status

74
Q

Can you fly through a danger area in Class G?

A

Approval for flight within an active Danger Area outside controlled airspace is not required. However, it is the responsibility of the pilot in command to be aware of the dangerous activity and take appropriate precautions