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ENT Specialties MAIN > Facial Dermatology > Flashcards

Facial Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

How many stages are required for completion of the Juri flap

A

4

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2
Q

Normally, how many hair follicles are contained within 1 cm3 of scalp

A

200

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3
Q

What is the incidence of hematoma after rhytidectomy

A

0.3 - 15°/o.

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4
Q

What is the incidence of facial nerve injury during rhytidectomy

A

0.4% - 2.6%.

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5
Q

How many hairs are contained in a micrograft

A

1 -2.

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6
Q

What are the primary theories on the etiology of infraorbital bags

A
  1. Congenitally excess fat. 2. Weakening of the orbital septum and attenuation of the orbicularis oculi. 3. Weakening of global support resulting in enophthalmos and lower lid pseudohemiation 4. Weakening and descent of the Lockwood suspensory ligament.
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7
Q

What are 5 lower lid blepharoplasty techniques that help prevent postoperative retraction

A
  1. Horizontal alignment of lower lid incisions. 2. Preservation of a strip of orbicularis attached to the tarsal plate. 3. Draping of the flap medially and superiorly. 4. Placement of a suspension suture between the deep surface of the orbicularis and the orbital periosteum. 5. Triamcinolone injection into plane of orbital septum.
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8
Q

How long does it take for hair to start growing after transplantation

A

10 - 16 weeks.

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9
Q

How long do side effects last after C02 and Er: Y AG laser

A

3 - 6 months after C02 laser; 2 - 4 weeks after Er: Y A G laser.

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10
Q

How long does injectable collagen remain in the tissue

A

3 - 6 months.

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11
Q

How many hairs are contained in a minigraft

A

3 - 8.

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12
Q

What is the incidence of positive responses to skin tests for injectable collagen

A

3%.

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13
Q

What is the incidence of temporary facial nerve paralysis after deep plane rhytidectomy

A

3.6%.

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14
Q

Approximately what % of hair follicles must be lost before hair loss is noticeable

A

30%.

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15
Q

What % of patients develop postinflammatory hyperpigmentation

A

33% (more for darker skin types).

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16
Q

How much time should be allotted between transplantation sessions

A

4 months.

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17
Q

When does hypopigmentation after laser skin resurfacing present

A

6 - 12 months after treatment.

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18
Q

What % of patients develop contact dermatitis after laser resurfacing

A

65%.

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19
Q

What is the average gain in soft-tissue projection after implant placement

A

70% of the size of the implant.

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20
Q

What skin preparations have been shown to significantly improve the overall severity of photodamaging but have not been shown to affect wrinkles

A

8 - 10% alpha hydroxy acids.

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21
Q

How is infection managed after chin implantation

A

A I 0-day course of antibiotics is given, and if the infection does not resolve, the implant should be removed. 1 f a micro porous implant is used, the implant is removed without delay.

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22
Q

What is ochronosis

A

A potential adverse reaction to hydroquinone characterized by a reticulated, sooty pigmentation of the cheeks, forehead, and periorbital regions.

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23
Q

What is cryptotia

A

Absence of the retroauricular helix.

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24
Q

What is the most common cause of lower lid retraction after blepharoplasty

A

Accumulation of small amounts of blood in the middle lamellar plane.

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25
Q

What is the pathophysiology of androgenetic alopecia

A

Affected scalp follicles inhibit androgen, causing terminal hairs to convert to veil us hairs.

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26
Q

When should micro and minigrafts be placed in relation to flap or reduction procedures

A

After the flap or reduction procedures have healed.

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27
Q

What is the ideal age for unilateral microtia correction

A

Age 6.

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28
Q

What is the safest plane of dissection in the malar region

A

Along the superficial surface of the elevators of the upper lip (zygomaticus major and minor).

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29
Q

What is the most common cause of hair loss in men and women

A

Androgenetic alopecia or male pattern baldness.

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30
Q

Where in the midface is the facial nerve most vulnerable during SMAS undermining

A

Anterior to the parotid gland.

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31
Q

What does the Converse technique attempt to reconstruct during surgery for the prominent ear

A

Antihelix of the auricle.

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32
Q

How much time should be allotted before removing an implant due to improper size

A

At least 3 months.

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33
Q

How much cartilage should be preserved during a complete strip procedure

A

At least a 4 - 5 mm strip or 75% of the original cartilage volume.

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34
Q

Which major tip support mechanism is violated by the inter- and transcartilaginous incisions

A

Attachment of the caudal edge of the upper lateral cartilages to the cephalic edge of the alar cartilages.

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35
Q

Which major tip support mechanism is violated by the complete transfixion incision

A

Attachment of the medial crura to the caudal septum.

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36
Q

Which bleaching agent is also an effective treatment for acne

A

Azelaic acid.

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37
Q

In what region is division of the frontalis muscle prohibited

A

Between the lateral brow and the temporal hair line.

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38
Q

Between which layers of the scalp are tissue expanders placed

A

Between the periosteum and the loose areolar tissue.

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39
Q

What is lobule colobomata

A

Bifid lobule.

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40
Q

How is it treated

A

Bland emollients (avoid topical antibiotics), topical class I corticosteroids, cool and wet compresses.

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41
Q

What is the mechanism of action of hydroquinone

A

Blocks the conversion of dopa to melanin.

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42
Q

Which laser causes the most intense and prolonged side effects

A

C02 laser.

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43
Q

Reduction of what structure accomplishes the majority of profile changes in patients requesting reduction rhinoplasty

A

Cartilaginous dorsum.

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44
Q

What is one way to improve the stability of a columellar strut

A

Carve the base into a V or fork or rest a large strut on a cartilage platform (plinth).

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45
Q

What are the major adjunctive procedures for tip rotation

A

Caudal septal shortening, upper lateral cartilage shortening, high septal transfixion with septal shortening, reduction of convex caudal medial crura.

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46
Q

What is the mechanism of action of retinoids

A

Cause a 70% inhibition of AP- 1 transcription factor binding to DNA, which decreases the activation of metalloproteases such as collagenase, gelatinase, and stromatolysis.

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47
Q

What is the most feared complication of otoplasty

A

Chondritis.

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48
Q

What are the complications of radical septal resections

A

Columellar retraction, dorsal saddling, airway collapse, increased nasal width, loss of tip support, and septal perforation.

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49
Q

What is a pixie or satyr earlobe

A

Common complication of rhytidectomy where the earlobe is elongated and directly attached to the facial cheek skin.

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50
Q

What are the minor adjunctive procedures for tip rotation

A

Complete transfixion incision, wide skin sleeve undermining, excision of excessive vestibular skin, proper tip taping, plumping grafts, columellar strut, division of the septi depressor muscle.

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51
Q

What are the different approaches used in septoplasty

A

Complete, partial, hemi- and high transfixion incisions.

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52
Q

How does release of the arcus marginalis affect eye contour

A

Creates a more convex, youthful eye contour.

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53
Q

What are the clinical effects of tretinoin

A

Decrease in fine wrinkling, roughness, and mottled hyperpigmentation after 6 months of use.

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54
Q

What effect does the complete transfixion incision have on tip projection and rotation

A

Decreases tip projection and increases tip rotation (resulting in nasal shortening).

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55
Q

Which approach to rhytidectomy improves the nasolabial folds

A

Deep plane rhytidectomy.

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56
Q

What is the proper plane of dissection during rhinoplasty

A

Deep to the subcutaneous tissue and SMAS layers.

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57
Q

What effect does SMAS suspension have on the nasolabial folds

A

Deepens them.

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58
Q

What are the two major approaches to tip surgery

A

Delivery and nondelivery.

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59
Q

What other factors increase the risk of scarring

A

Development of wound infection or contact dermatitis, recent use of isotretinoin, history of radiation therapy, history of keloids.

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60
Q

What is the most likely cause of dimpling of the skin following liposuction of the jowls

A

Directing the opening of the extractor towards the skin.

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61
Q

What can be done for the patient whose lateral crura are concave

A

Dissect lateral crura completely free and reverse them 180 degrees.

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62
Q

What is the most crucial factor limiting surgical correction of a congenitally short nose

A

Dorsal skin shortness.

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63
Q

How deep can a 20°/o TCA solution penetrate

A

Down to the papillary dermis.

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64
Q

What is the major complication of laser resurfacing of darker skinned individuals

A

Dyspigmentation (hyper- or hypo-).

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65
Q

Patients who have previously undergone blepharoplasty are at increased risk for which complication after laser skin resurfacing

A

Ectropion.

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66
Q

What are the normal side effects of laser skin resurfacing

A

Erythema, edema, serous discharge, and crusting.

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67
Q

What is the most common complication of submental liposuction

A

Excessive submental wrinkling.

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68
Q

T/F: Closed suction drains are associated with a significantly lower incidence of hematoma after rhytidectomy

A

False.

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69
Q

What medication used to treat androgenetic alopecia can reduce libido

A

Finasteride.

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70
Q

When do most major hematomas occur after rhytidectomy

A

First 12 hours postoperatively.

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71
Q

Alopecia in which area of the scalp is not improved by scalp reduction

A

Frontal.

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72
Q

What causes melasma

A

Genetic predisposition, exposure to UV radiation, pregnancy, oral contraceptives, thyroid dysfunction, cosmetics, phototoxic and antiseizure drugs.

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73
Q

What are the main indications for collagen injection

A

Glabellar frown lines, nasolabial lines, crow’s feet, and saucer-shaped acne scars.

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74
Q

What happens to the position of the globe when 2.5 cc of fat is removed

A

Globe moves 1 mm inferiorly and 2 mm posteriorly.

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75
Q

What is the most commonly injured nerve during rhytidectomy

A

Greater auricular nerve.

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76
Q

What is the most common complication of rhytidectomy

A

Hematoma.

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77
Q

What is the major problem of using Mersilene mesh for genioplasty

A

High potential for resorption.

78
Q

Which of these is preferred when the anatomy of the tip - infratip lobule and related structures is ideal

A

High septal transfixion with septal shortening.

79
Q

What treatments can be used to help this problem

A

Hydroquinone or retinoic acid plus a topical class I corticosteroid, glycolic acid.

80
Q

What are the initial manifestations of systemic phenol toxicity from a chemical facial peel

A

Hyperreflexia and hypertension.

81
Q

What are the 5 stages in the repair of 3rd degree microtia

A

I - auricular reconstruction. II - lobule transposition. III - atresia repair. IV - tragal construction. V - auricular elevation.

82
Q

What are the 3 basic categories of auricular defects as defined by Weerda

A

I 51 , 2”d, and 3’d degree dysplasia.

83
Q

What is the significance of the labiomental fold in chin implantation

A

If the fold is high, implantation can enlarge the entire lower face.

84
Q

What is the difference between SMAS imbrication and SMAS plication

A

Imbrication involves undermining and cutting the SMAS prior to suspension; plication involves folding the SMAS on itself.

85
Q

Why is the gain reduced

A

Implant settling, bone resorption, and soft-tissue compression.

86
Q

In which patients is sliding genioplasty indicated

A

In patients with excess or insufficient vertical mandibular height, extreme microgenia, hemifacial atrophy or mandibular asymmetry, and in those who fail alloplastic chin augmentation.

87
Q

When can the transcartilaginous incision not be used

A

In patients with widely divergent intermediate crura where the domes need exposure for narrowing.

88
Q

How does the facelift incision differ between men and women

A

In women, the incision runs along the posterior margin of the tragus (post-tragal); in men, the incision is placed in the preauricular crease (pre-tragal) so that facial hair does not grow on the tragus postoperatively. Also, a margin of non-hair-bearing skin is preserved around the inferior attachment of the earlobe in men.

89
Q

What is the most common complication of otoplasty

A

Inadequate correction.

90
Q

What effects do alpha hydroxy acids have on the dermis

A

Increase collagen and glycosaminoglycan production.

91
Q

Identification of what structure is essential in safely exposing the medial and central fat pads during a transconjunctival lower eyelid blepharoplasty

A

Inferior oblique muscle.

92
Q

Which anatomic areas are more prone to scarring after laser treatment

A

Infraorbital area, mandible, and anterior neck.

93
Q

What is isolagen

A

Injectable autologous soft tissue material derived from cultured human fibroblasts.

94
Q

Which incisions can be used for exposure and delivery of the alar cartilages

A

Intercartilaginous and marginal incisions.

95
Q

What are the three primary incisions used in tip surgery

A

Intercartilaginous, transcartilaginous, and marginal incisions.

96
Q

Which technique results in greater cephalic tip rotation: interrupted or complete strip

A

Interrupted strip.

97
Q

What is the Goldman technique for increasing tip projection

A

Interrupted strip~ borrowed cartilage from the lateral crus is sutured into the medial crus, resulting in elongation of the medial crura.

98
Q

Skin that rarely burns and tans more than average is which Fitzpatrick’s class

A

IV.

99
Q

What transposition flap restores the frontal hairline

A

Juri flap.

100
Q

Which bleaching agent is produced by Aspergillus and Penicillium

A

Kojic acid.

101
Q

What is melasma

A

Large, symmetric macules on the cheeks, forehead, upper lip, nose, and chin.

102
Q

What are the various interrupted strip techniques

A

Lateral division, medial division, multiple vertical interrupting cuts, both medial and lateral division with a resection of a lateral segment, rotation of a segment of lateral crus into medial crus.

103
Q

What are the 4 levels of TCA peels

A

Level 0 - no frost, skin appears slick and shiny representing removal of the stratum corneum. Level I - irregular light frost with some erythema; 2 - 4 days of light peeling. Level 2 - pink white frost, full thickness epidermal peel, 5 days of peeling. Level 3 - solid white frost, papillary dermis.

104
Q

What procedure is normally performed prior to extensive scalp reductions

A

Ligation of the occipital vessels 2 - 6 weeks before the reduction.

105
Q

What can be used to treat scarring after laser skin resurfacing

A

lntralesional or topical corticosteroids, 585 nm pulsed-dye laser (2 to 3 treatments at 6 - 8 week intervals).

106
Q

What is the consequence of overly aggressive resection of upper lid skin

A

Loss of crease definition.

107
Q

What are the relative contraindications to the coronal forehead lift

A

Male-pattern baldness in men and high hairlines in women.

108
Q

What is Binder’s syndrome

A

Maxillonasal dysplasia with inadequate projection, absent nasal spine, premaxillary hypoplasia, severe columellar-lobular disproportion.

109
Q

Which technique is ideal for patients with an over-projected tip due to overdeveloped alar cartilages

A

Medial and lateral division with resection of lateral segment.

110
Q

What techniques can be used to augment the effects of the complete strip, without sacrificing tip projection

A

Medial triangle excision, alternating incomplete incisions, crosshatching, gentle morselization, transdomal suture narrowing.

111
Q

Which patients are good candidates for the midforehead lift

A

Men with deep rhytids in whom a coronal lift is contraindicated.

112
Q

What are the 2 most common complications of dermabrasion

A

Milia and hypopigmentation. cos ETIC SURGERY

113
Q

What is the definition of 1st degree dysplasia

A

Minor deformities that usually do not require additional skin or cartilage for reconstruction.

114
Q

What medication used to treat androgenetic alopecia is also used to treat HTN

A

Minoxidil.

115
Q

How do chin implants used in women differ from those used in men

A

More oval in women, squarer and larger in men.

116
Q

What is the advantage of leaving a small amount of soft tissue on the auricular graft

A

More rapid host bed fixation.

117
Q

What technique involves placing several horizontal mattress sutures along the scapha to create an antihelical sulcus

A

Mustarde technique.

118
Q

What is the difference in outcome between these approaches

A

No significant difference in outcome.

119
Q

When should lid malposition after blepharoplasty be corrected

A

No sooner than 6 months after the initial surgery.

120
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the intraoral approach to chin implantation

A

No visible scars; increased potential for contamination; suture line irritation; requires larger incision than the external approach; unable to stabilize the implant internally.

121
Q

What is the definition of 3rd degree dysplasia

A

None of the structures of a normal auricle are recognizable and total reconstruction requires the use of additional skin and large amounts of cartilage.

122
Q

What is the most commonly used system to classify alopecia

A

Norwood’s system.

123
Q

What should be done if bony resorption occurs under the implant

A

Nothing.

124
Q

What factors affect the risk of complications after laser skin resurfacing

A

Number of laser passes, energy densities, degree of pulse or scan overlap, preoperative skin condition, anatomic areas.

125
Q

What is the most common cause of alar margin elevation

A

Overaggressive resection of the lateral crus.

126
Q

Which patients are better served by 15 - 20°/o alpha hydroxy acids

A

Patients with sebaceous, Fitzpatrick type III and IV skin.

127
Q

Which area of the face is C02 laser most effective for treating rhytids

A

Periorbital.

128
Q

Which alloplastic implant material has been reported to cause the least amount of bony resorption

A

Porous polyethylene.

129
Q

In which plane is the neck dissected during deep plane rhytidectomy

A

Pre-platysma).

130
Q

In what direction are the flaps pulled during SMAS suspension

A

Primarily superiorly and partially posterior.

131
Q

What are the mild complications of laser skin resurfacing

A

Prolonged erythema, acne or milia, contact dermatitis, pruritus.

132
Q

What factors predispose to lid malposition after lower lid blepharoplasty

A

Proptosis or unilateral high myopia; preexisting scleral show; malar hypoplasia; lower lid laxity from previous surgery; females >65 years and all males.

133
Q

What effect does excessive surgical reduction of the nasal bridge have on the eyes

A

Pseudohypertelorism.

134
Q

What are the advantages of lateral interruption techniques

A

Reduced likelihood of uneven tip-defining points becoming evident months after surgery; faster symmetrical healing; less loss of projection; avoidance of notching and pinching.

135
Q

What are two major limitations of the transconjunctival approach to lower lid blepharoplasty

A

Redundant skin cannot be removed and orbicularis hypertrophy cannot be treated.

136
Q

What factors increase the risk of prolonged erythema

A

Regular use of tretinoin or glycolic acid, rosacea, multiple passes, inadvertent pulse stacking, aggressive intraoperative rubbing.

137
Q

How deep does Jessner’s solution penetrate

A

Remains intraepidermal.

138
Q

What are the advantages of using a nondelivery approach

A

Requires minimal dissection ensuring more symmetric and predictable healing; resists cephalic rotation; single incision; preserves existing tip projection; resists tip retrodisplacement and postoperative tip ptosis.

139
Q

What are the components of Jessner’s solution

A

Resorcinol, salicylic acid, lactic acid, and ethanol.

140
Q

What are the two types of lower lid malposition after blepharoplasty

A

Retraction and ectropion.

141
Q

What is the difference between retraction and ectropion

A

Retraction is vertical lid shortening due to fibrosis in the middle lamellar plane; ectropion is lid eversion caused by shortening of the anterior lamella, skin, and orbicularis oculi.

142
Q

Which is more common

A

Retraction.

143
Q

What is the most severe, yet rarest complication of blepharoplasty

A

Retrobulbar hemorrhage… incidence 0.04%.

144
Q

What problem can occur with overzealous tightening of the superior and inferior third of the ear

A

Reverse telephone ear.

145
Q

What is the most common cause of nasal valve collapse

A

Rhinoplasty.

146
Q

Which of these techniques is best for thick-skinned patients with abundant soft tissue and a wide, under-projected tip

A

Rotation of a segment of lateral crus into the medial crus.

147
Q

What techniques can be used to decrease tip projection

A

Sacrifice of major tip support mechanisms, reduction of a large nasal spine, resection of a small amount of cartilage from the lateral alar crus, softening the domes by serial crosshatching, reduction of overdeveloped cartilaginous dorsum.

148
Q

What is the primary advantage of AlloDerm

A

Semi-permanent (20 - 50% persistence beyond I year).

149
Q

In the delivery approach, what are the indications for using a complete, rather than hemi-, transfixion incision

A

Severely deviated caudal septum; when access to the nasal spine is necessary; when tip rotation and nasal shortening are desired.

150
Q

When should a posterior incision be used to harvest auricular cartilage

A

Small grafts and when epithelial and soft tissues are to be incorporated with the graft.

151
Q

Which alloplastic implant material forms a surrounding capsule

A

Solid silicone.

152
Q

What is the definition of 2”d degree dysplasia

A

Some structures of a normal auricle are recognizable and partial reconstruction requires the use of additional skin or cartilage.

153
Q

What is the typical prophylactic antiviral regimen

A

Starting 1 - 2 days preprocedure, 250 mg BID famciclovir for 7 - I 0 days (if no history of HSV)… 500 mg BID if history positive for HSV.

154
Q

In which plane is the midface dissected during deep plane rhytidectomy

A

Subcutaneous for 2 - 3 em anterior to the tragus, then immediately superficial to the orbicularis and zygomaticus muscles.

155
Q

What is the plane of dissection in the coronal forehead lift

A

Subgaleal.

156
Q

In which plane is the lower face dissected during deep plane rhytidectomy

A

Sub-SMAS plane.

157
Q

What should be used to prevent this problem

A

Sunscreen (pretreatment regimens have not been proven to help).

158
Q

What is the blood supply to this flap

A

Superficial temporal artery.

159
Q

How should an outbreak of HSV be treated

A

Switch to a different antiviral and administer the maximum dose.

160
Q

What are the disadvantages of using a nondelivery approach

A

Technically more difficult if inexperienced.

161
Q

What complication is caused by too much flexion of the midportion of the antihelix and inadequate flexion at the superior and inferior poles

A

Telephone ear.

162
Q

In what region of the face can transection of the SMAS directly injure a branch of VII

A

Temporal region.

163
Q

Where should the chin implant lie in relation to the lower incisors

A

The anterior surface should not lie beyond the labial surface of the lower incisors.

164
Q

What is the basic method of the Converse technique

A

The antihelix is created using an island of cartilage.

165
Q

What landmark is used to determine the correct position of the natural hairline

A

The apex of the frontotemporal triangle should fall on a vertical line intersecting the lateral canthus.

166
Q

How much auricular cartilage can be harvested without affecting the structural integrity of the ear

A

The entire concha can be removed as long as the antihelix is kept intact.

167
Q

What is the difference between the hemitransfixion incision and the Killian incision

A

The hemitransfixion incision is made unilaterally at the junction of the caudal septum and the columella, whereas the Killian incision is made unilaterally 2 - 3 mm cephalic to the mucocutaneous junction.

168
Q

What are the histologic features of photoaged skin

A

Thickened stratum corneum, thinner atrophic epidermis with atypia, irregular dispersion of melanin, decreased glycosaminoglycans, abnormal elastic fibers in the dermis (solar elastosis).

169
Q

What are the characteristics of photoaged skin

A

Thicker than normal with wrinkling, roughness, sallowness, telangiectasias, mottled hyperpigmentation, and loss of elasticity.

170
Q

What are the risk factors for developing bossae or horns after rhinoplasty

A

Thin skin, strong cartilages, and bifidity.

171
Q

What are the histologic effects of tretinoin

A

Thinner stratum corneum, thickened epidermis, increased collagen, angiogenesis, and more uniform dispersion of melanin granules.

172
Q

Which hair follicles are most likely to be involved in androgenetic alopecia

A

Those in the frontotemporal and crown regions of the scalp.

173
Q

Which patients are good candidates for direct brow lift

A

Those with brow asymmetries ( ie, from facial nerve paralysis) and marked ptosis of the lateral eyebrow.

174
Q

Why should extra caution be taken during lateral dissection of the upper lid

A

To avoid prolapsing the lacrimal gland.

175
Q

What is the purpose of application of topical vitamin C after skin resurfacing

A

To decrease the inflammation associated with prolonged erythema (must wait until reepithelization is complete before applying).

176
Q

What are the two types of nondelivery approaches

A

Transcartilaginous and retrograde.

177
Q

What are the disadvantages of the open approach

A

Transcolumellar external scar; risk of disturbing normal anatomy in the infratip lobule and caudal aspects of the alar cartilages; prolonged edema in thick-skinned patients; potential for excess trauma to the tip and dorsal skin flap~ increased operative time; increased difficulty in judging the exact tip-supratip relationship after skin flap replacement~ grafts must be suture-fixated.

178
Q

What maneuver can be done to help prevent this complication

A

Transdomal suture to narrow the tip.

179
Q

T /F: Complete avoidance of sunlight can reverse some of the histologic signs of photoaging.

A

True.

180
Q

T/F: Hematoma after rhytidectomy is more common in males than females

A

True.

181
Q

What is cockleshell ear

A

Type III cup ear where the ear is mal formed in all directions.

182
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of medial interruption techniques

A

Useful in more extreme anatomic situations to normalize tip projection but almost always result in a moderate to major loss of tip projection and have the potential for notching and pinching.

183
Q

Defects of the nasal valve involving what structures can be repaired with a composite graft from the auricle

A

Vestibular skin and alar cartilage.

184
Q

What complication results from pulling too far posteriorly

A

Widening and flattening of the oral commissure.

185
Q

What are the advantages to the open approach

A

Wider exposure, allowing the use of binocular vision, bimanual dissection, and microcautery for hemostasis; enables direct vision of the domes and the nasal profile; can secure tip grafts directly with suture and approach the septum from above-down as well as from below-up.

186
Q

When are cardiac arrhythmias that develop during a phenol peel most likely to occur

A

Within 30 minutes of the start of the procedure.

187
Q

What is the proper plane of dissection in the temporal region to avoid injury to VII

A

Within the subaponeurotic plane (deep to the temporoparietal fascia).

188
Q

What is the safest plane of dissection in the temporal region when exposure of the zygomatic arch is necessary

A

Within the superficial temporal fat pad deep to the superficial layer of the deep temporal fascia.

189
Q

Which patients are good candidates for the pretrichial forehead lift

A

Women with a high hairline and long vertical height to the forehead.

190
Q

Which patients are not good candidates for endoscopic brow lift

A

Women with high hairlines, patients with male-pattern baldness or tight, thick skin with extensive bony attachments (more common in Asians and Native Americans).

ENT Specialties MAIN (17 decks)

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