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Private Pilot Lab (102) > FAA Written > Flashcards

FAA Written Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

Standby Altimeter needle lengths and readings

A

Short skinny: 10,000s
Short fat: 1,000s
Long skinny: 100s

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2
Q

“Nimbus” suffix indicates what about a cloud?

A

RAIN! Precipitation!

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3
Q

Are winds aloft reported in true or magnetic?

A

TRUE

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4
Q

Daytime collision avoidance scanning should consist of:

A

10 degree sections with at least 1 second of viewing

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5
Q

Unless authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an Experimental Certificate in this area:

A

Over densely populated areas or in congested airways

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6
Q

What condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a LOWER altitude than true altitude?

A

When air temperature is warmer than standard temp

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7
Q

The most frequent type of ground or surface based temp inversion is that which is produced by:

A

Terrestrial radiation on a clear, calm night

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8
Q

Warm air being lifted aloft rapidly in the vicinity of mountainous terrain is described as:

A

Convective activity

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9
Q

An airplane said to be inherently stable will:

A

Require less effort to control. (No effect on stalling or spinning)

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10
Q

As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a plane will stall in a particular configuration will:

A

Remain the same regardless of altitude. Air DENSITY is the main factor in aircraft performance. As air density decreases, plane stalling speed increases.

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11
Q

Preflight action as required for all flight away from the vicinity of an airport shall include:

A

An alternate COURSE OF ACTION if the flight cannot be completed as planned

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12
Q

Steady red light gun signal:

A

In Flight: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

On Ground: Stop

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13
Q

If durning run up at a high elevation airport you experience engine roughness that is effected during the carburetor check, you should:

A

Try a leaner mixture setting since air is less dense at higher altitudes

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14
Q

No person may takeoff or land under basic VFR at an airport in class D airspace unless:

A

Ground visibility is at least 3sm

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15
Q

What kind of wind would be expected underneath a temperature inversion?

A

Smooth air, because there is usually little vertical movement due to the inversion.

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16
Q

CATEGORIES of aircraft, with respect to the certification of the AIRCRAFT itself, include:

A

Normal, utility, acrobatic

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17
Q

CATEGORIES of aircraft, with respect to the certification of AIRMEN, include:

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider

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18
Q

CLASSES of aircraft, with respect to the to the certification of the AIRCRAFT itself, include:

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon

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19
Q

What is the advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

A

(Controllable pitch prop) Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance

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20
Q

Should it become necessary to hand prop an airplane, a competent pilot should:

A

Be at the controls in the cockpit

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21
Q

FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by:

A

Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office. (Issued with the purpose of informing the public of nonregulatory material of interest)

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22
Q

The four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft are:

A

Straight and level flights, turns, climbs and decents

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23
Q

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is:

A

Idk

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24
Q

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

A

Cumulonibus

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25
Q

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a:

A

Heat exchange

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26
Q

Heliport beacons can be identified by:

A

Green, yellow and white rotating beacon

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27
Q

Light gun signal clearing a pilot on the ground to taxi:

A 
Flashing Green
(Steady Green = Cleared for takeoff)
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28
Q

Is it legal to fly on the dealers registration after a buyer purchases an airplane?

A

No

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29
Q

The width of federal airways from either side of the centerline is:

A

4nm (8nm total width)

30
Q

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A

A stable layer of air

31
Q

If the heading indicator is off, it can be reset by:

A

PUSHING the cage knob

32
Q

If unstable air is force up, what kinds of clouds can be expected?

A

Clouds with considerable vertical development & associated turbulence

33
Q

Left turning tendency caused by P-Factor is the result of:

A

Propeller blade descending on the right and producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left

34
Q

An airplane loaded to the most aft CG will cause:

A

Less stability at all airspeeds

35
Q

What characteristics are associated with stable air?

A
  • Stratiform clouds
  • Continuous precipitation -Smooth air
  • Fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke
36
Q

Errors on magnetic compasses in the northern hemisphere occur when:

A

On east and west headings

37
Q

Centrifugal force acts:

A

Inward of the turn, opposite of the horizontal component of lift.

38
Q

What force makes an airplane turn?

A

The horizontal component of of lift

39
Q

Applying carb heat will:

A

Enrich the fuel/air mixture

40
Q

What characteristics are associated with UNstable air?

A
  • Cumuliform clouds
  • Showery percip
  • Turbulence
  • Good visibility, except in blowing obstructions
41
Q

Will enriching the fuel mixture aid in cooling an overheating engine?

A

Yes!

42
Q

The MATURE stage of a thunderstorm begins with:

A

The start of percip!

43
Q

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

A

Cumulonimbus (thunderstorm clouds!)

44
Q

What effect does high density altitude have on propeller efficiency and why?

A

Decreases efficiency, prop exerts less force at higher density

45
Q

Lines of latitude are:

A

East - West

Lat = Flat

46
Q

Lines of longitude are:

A

North - South

47
Q

FAA advisory circulars are issued under which subject number?

A

Airmen - 60
Airspace - 70
Air Traffic Control - 90

48
Q

Where can locations for VOR test facilities be found?

A

A/FD

49
Q

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as:

A

Safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

50
Q

CLASSES of aircraft, with respect to the to the certification of the AIRMEN, include:

A

Single engine land/sea, multi engine land/sea

51
Q

How should contact with a flight watch station be established and what services would be expected?

A

Call flight watch on 122.0 for info regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along the route

52
Q

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an INCIDENT is required to submit a report to the NTSB:

A

When requested

53
Q

How soon after conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

A

60 days

54
Q

Under what conditions may a pilot fly through a restricted area?

A

With the controlling agencies authorization

55
Q

With certain exception, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during:

A

Taxi, takeoffs, and landings

56
Q

Which records or documents shall the owner/operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable AD?

A

Aircraft maintenance records

57
Q

Special VFR through class D requires:

A

3sm and clear of clouds

58
Q

In an inflight emergency that requires deviation form ATC clearance, is the PIC required to submit a report to the administrator?

A

Only if requested

59
Q

During what time period are position lights required to be displayed and lit?

A

Sunset to sunrise

59
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

A

Engine with greater than 200 horse power

60
Q

In which airspace is aerobatic flying prohibited?

A

Class E below 1,500’ AGL

61
Q

Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and harnessed fastened during:

A

Takeoffs & landings

62
Q

What should the air borne accuracy of a VOR be?

A

+/- 6 degrees

63
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within class B?

A

2-way radio, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

64
Q

For into about glider operations at an airport, you can check the:

A

A/FD

65
Q

When may an ELT be tested?

A

During the first 5 minutes past the hour

66
Q

What INCIDENT requires an immediate notification to the NTSB?

A

Flight control system malfunction or failure

67
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures either in the air or in the ground will:

A

Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and damage to engine

68
Q

Generally speaking, what effect will the use of carb heat do to engine performance?

A

Decrease engine performance

69
Q

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

A

WARMER temps increase pressure levels, and indicated altitude becomes LOWER than true altitude. (Better of the two)

70
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed below 10,000’ msl?

A

250 knots

71
Q

Thermals are dependent upon:

A

Solar heating!

Private Pilot Lab (102) (5 decks)

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