FAA Regulations Flashcards

1
Q

During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?

A

The pilot in command.

The pilot in command of an aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight.

FAR 91.7

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2
Q

You must turn on your anti-collision lights:

A

Day and night, except when the pilot-in-command determines that they constitute a hazard to safety.
Anyone operating an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light system, must have them turned on. However, the anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.
FAR Part 91

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3
Q

An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter and ADS-B Out are required in which airspace?

A

Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.
A transponder with Mode C and ADS-B Out is required in Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
FAR 91.215
FAR 91.225

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4
Q

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

A

pilot in command.
The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
FAR 91.3

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5
Q

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

A

Servicing landing gear wheel bearings.
Servicing landing gear wheel bearings, such as cleaning and greasing is part of preventive maintenance.
FAR 43 Appendix A

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6
Q

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

A

500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
Airways are controlled airspace and require 500’ below, 1,000’ above, and 2,000’ horizontally below 10,000’ MSL. An exception would be an airway in Class B airspace where clear of clouds is the requirement.
FAR 91.155
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-2

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7
Q

No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding

A

24 calendar months.
An ATC transponder may not be used unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, it has been tested, inspected, and found in compliance with FAR Part 43 requirements.
FAR 91.413

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8
Q

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A

The pilot in command.
The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight.
FAR 91.7

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9
Q

You must notify the NTSB immediately if the following occurs.

A

In-flight fire.
The operator of any civil aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB office of any serious incident including in-flight fire.
NTSB 830.5

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10
Q

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

A
**August 31, 5 years later.**
A third-class medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of the 60th month (5 years) after the month of the date of the examination if the person has not reached his 40th birthday on the date of the examination.
[FAR 61.23](https://www.ecfr.gov/cgi-bin/text-idx?SID=fc4a2342ef24691515bc456c43f20fd6&mc=true&node=pt14.2.61)
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11
Q

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

A

takeoffs and landings.
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. The crew members’ shoulder harnesses must be fastened for takeoff and landing.
FAR 91.105

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12
Q

As used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, examples of a “category” of aircraft would be:

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.
Category, as used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a broad classification of aircraft. Examples include: airplane; rotorcraft; glider; and lighter-than-air
FAR 1.1

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13
Q

No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft:

A

Within 8 hours of any alcohol consumption.
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage or while under the influence of alcohol.
FAR 91.17

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14
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

A

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
The minimum safe altitude to operate an aircraft anywhere is an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
FAR 91.119

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15
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

A

200 knots.
No person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500’ above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph.).
FAR 91.117

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16
Q

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have

A

received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person’s logbook.
No person may act as PIC of a high-performance airplane unless he has received and logged ground and flight training from an instructor in a high-performance airplane and received a one-time endorsement in his logbook.
FAR 61.31

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17
Q

In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight prohibited?

A

Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight below an altitude of 1,500’ AGL.
FAR 91.303

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18
Q

In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have

A

received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
No person may act as PIC of a high-performance airplane, one with more than 200 hp, unless he has received and logged ground and flight training from an instructor in a high-performance airplane and received a one-time endorsement in his logbook.
FAR 61.31

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19
Q

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the

A

airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
To fly an aircraft special VFR at night in Class D airspace, the pilot and aircraft must be certified for instrument flight.
FAR 91.157

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20
Q

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

A

an emergency.
A PIC may not deviate from an ATC clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.
FAR 91.123

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21
Q

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

A

1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
Federal airways normally begin at 1,200’ AGL and continue up to, but not including, 18,000’ MSL.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 5-3
FAR 71.11 by reference to TERPS

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22
Q

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

A

Aircraft having a maximum certified takeoff weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
A person who acts as a pilot in command of a large aircraft, defined as more than 12,500 lbs., must hold a type rating for that aircraft.
FAR 61.31

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23
Q

The person directly responsible for the pre-launch briefing of passengers for a flight is the

A

pilot in command.
The PIC of an aircraft must ensure that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person’s safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness.
FAR 91.107

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24
Q

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
Each PIC shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight.
FAR 91.103

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25
Q

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

A

In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
The PIC may carry a person who is under the influence of drugs in an emergency, or as long as they are a medical patient under proper care.
FAR 91.17

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26
Q

An operable 4096-code transponder, Mode C encoding altimeter, and ADS-B-Out are required in

A

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
A transponder with Mode C and ADS-B Out is required in Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-2
FAR 91.215
FAR 91.225

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27
Q

A pilot with a private pilot certificate:

A

Cannot carry passengers or property for compensation or hire.
No person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.
FAR 61.113

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28
Q

What flight visibility do you need in order to perform an acrobatic maneuver?

A

3 miles.
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight when flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.
FAR 91.303

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29
Q

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

A

Class A.
Each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must conduct that operation under IFR.
FAR 91.135
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-2

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30
Q

As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.
A PIC may not deviate from an ATC clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.
FAR 91.123

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31
Q

Which of the following avionics equipment is required to be installed in your airplane to fly in Class A airspace?

A

ADS-B Out equipment.
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in Class A airspace unless the aircraft has an Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B) Equipment Operating on the Radio Frequency of 1090 Megahertz (MHz).
FAR 91.225

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32
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and ADS-B Out.
Two-way radio communication, a transponder, an encoding altimeter, and ADS-B Out are required in Class C airspace.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-2
FAR 91.225
FARs 91.130 & 91.215

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33
Q

You are planning to go on a trip with friends to Canada. You’re the pilot in command and you’re operating under BasicMed. Can you go?

A

No, BasicMed is only valid in the United States, Mexico and the Bahamas.
The flight may not be conducted outside of the United States unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted.
FAR 61.113

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34
Q

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than

A

September 30, 2016.
An ATC transponder may not be used unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, it has been tested, inspected, and found in compliance with FAR Part 43 requirements.
FAR 91.413

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35
Q

A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

A

180 days.
An emergency parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 180 days.
FAR 91.307

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36
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?

A

70.
In the advisory circular system, the information covering airspace is issued under the subject number 70.
Advisory Circular Checklist (AC 00-2)

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37
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

A

60.
In the advisory circular system, the information covering airmen is issued under the subject number 60.
Advisory Circular Checklist (AC 00-2)

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38
Q

When flying through the lateral and vertical boundaries of Class C or B airspace, what additional equipment is your aircraft required to have installed, if any?

A

ADS-B Out equipment.
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within Class B and Class C airspace areas unless the aircraft has ADS-B Out equipment installed.
FAR 91.225

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39
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

A
**Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.**
In airmen certification, a class of aircraft is a group within a category having similar operating characteristics such as those listed in this answer.
[FAR 1](https://www.ecfr.gov/cgi-bin/text-idx?SID=b60b097d5cde3290b8e077a5aad51a44&mc=true&node=pt14.1.1)
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40
Q

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?

A

18,000 feet MSL.
At or above 18,000’ MSL, set the altimeter to 29.92” Hg.
FAR 91.121

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41
Q

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

A

An in-flight fire.
The operator of a civil aircraft must immediately notify the nearest NTSB field office when an in-flight fire incident occurs.
NTSB 830.5

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42
Q

The definition of nighttime is

A

the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
Night means the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the American Air Almanac, converted to local time.
FAR 1

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43
Q

Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

A

Flight control system malfunction or failure.
The operator of a civil aircraft must immediately notify the nearest NTSB field office when a flight control system malfunction or failure incident occurs.
NTSB 830.5

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44
Q

On landing, your tire blows and the wheel is dented. What action is required to comply with NTSB Part 830?

A

No notification or report is required.
This is an incident and not substantial damage. Substantial damage means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component.
NTSB Part 830

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45
Q

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

A

Owner or operator.
It is the aircraft owner or operator’s responsibility to maintain the aircraft in an airworthy condition including compliance with all pertinent ADs.
FAR 91.403
Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge Ch. 9

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46
Q

You must notify the NTSB if there has been substantial damage:

A

Which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.
FAR 830.2 Definitions—Substantial damage means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component.
NTSB Part 830

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47
Q

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
With respect to the certification of aircraft, these are classes - a broad grouping of aircraft having similar characteristics of propulsion, flight, or landing.
FAR 1

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48
Q

A third-class medical certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on

A
**August 31, 5 years later.**
A third class medical expires 60 months (5 years) after the month of the examination date if the person has not reached his 40th birthday on or before the examination date.
[FAR 61.23](https://www.ecfr.gov/cgi-bin/text-idx?SID=fc4a2342ef24691515bc456c43f20fd6&mc=true&node=pt14.2.61)
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49
Q

For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on

A
**July 31, 2 years later.**
Second-class medical privileges for private pilot operations expire at the end of the 24th month after the month of the date of the examination if the person has reached his 40th birthday on or before the date of the examination.
[FAR 61.23](https://www.ecfr.gov/cgi-bin/text-idx?SID=fc4a2342ef24691515bc456c43f20fd6&mc=true&node=pt14.2.61)
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50
Q

An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

A

180 days.
An emergency parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 180 days.
FAR 61.101

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51
Q

(Refer to Figure 59) You depart from Wood Co. airport (1G0 - area 5) and head northbound. You level off at 1,600’ MSL under the Toledo Class C airspace to circle your house. The ADS-B system on your airplane was marked inoperative in the maintenance log. Is this flight legal?

A

Yes - ADS-B Out is not required for this operation.
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport upward to 10,000 feet MSL; unless the aircraft has ADS-B Out equipment installed. Flight below the floor of Class C airspace is permitted without ADS-B Out equipment installed.
FAR 91.225

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52
Q

If a pilot wishes to fly in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC), he or she must possess:

A

An Instrument Rating or an Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) certificate.
No person may act as PIC under IMC unless that person holds the an appropriate instrument rating or ATP certificate for the category of aircraft flown.
FAR 61.3

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53
Q

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot

A

is cleared to land.
For an aircraft in flight, a steady green light signal means cleared to land.
FAR 91.125
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 4-3

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54
Q

An ATC clearance provides

A

authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
Air traffic clearance means an authorization by air traffic control, for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace.
FAR 1.1

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55
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

A

Owner or operator.
Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.
FAR 91.405

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56
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A

An aircraft in distress.
An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.
FAR 91.113

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57
Q

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is

A

at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
For special VFR, in Class D airspace, the pilot needs 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
FAR 91.157

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58
Q

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is

A

at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
For special VFR, in Class D airspace, the pilot needs 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
FAR 91.157

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59
Q

For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on

A
**October 31, 5 years later.**
A first-class medical certificate used for private pilot privileges expires at the end of the last day of the 60th month (5 years) after the month of the date of the examination if the person has not reached his 40th birthday.
[FAR 61.23](https://www.ecfr.gov/cgi-bin/text-idx?SID=fc4a2342ef24691515bc456c43f20fd6&mc=true&node=pt14.2.61)
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60
Q

The aircraft that always has right-of-way is the:

A

Aircraft in distress.
An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.
FAR 91.113

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61
Q

When does a plastic U.S. student pilot certificate expire?

A

Never.
A student pilot certificate issued after April 1, 2016 under part 61.19 is issued without a specific expiration date.
FAR 61.19

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62
Q

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

A

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
The pilot should use the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure.
FAR 91.121

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63
Q

To maintain BasicMed privileges, you must complete a BasicMed medical education course within the preceding:

A

24 calendar months.
To maintain BasicMed privileges, a pilot must complete the medical education course in the preceding 24-calendar months before acting as pilot in command.
FAR 61.23

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64
Q

The underlying principle of the right-of-way rules is to ensure:

A

That each person operating an aircraft will see and avoid other aircraft.
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under instrument flight rules or visual flight rules, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft.
FAR 91.113

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65
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

A

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
A high performance aircraft is one with more than 200 HP.
FAR 61.31

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66
Q

Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate

A

over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
FAR 91.319

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67
Q

While operating under BasicMed as pilot in command, the aircraft:

A

Must be limited to 6 seats and not certified for more than 6,000 lbs.
The aircraft must be authorized to carry not more than 6 occupants, has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 6,000 pounds, and is operated with no more than five passengers on board.
FAR 61.113

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68
Q

To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the

A

aircraft maintenance records.
Each registered owner or operator shall keep records of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration and records of the 100-hour, annual, progressive, and other required or approved inspections.
FAR 91.417

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69
Q

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

A

Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
The additional documents on board must be the operating limitations, in the form of an approved flight manual, markings, or placards, and the Registration Certificate.
FAR 91.203

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70
Q

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

A

May 31, 2 years later.
The 24th month after the month of the date of the examination if the person has reached his 40th birthday on or before the date of the examination.
FAR 61.23

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71
Q

A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to

A

return to the starting point on the airport.
For an aircraft on the ground, a flashing white means return to starting point.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 4-3
FAR 91.125

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72
Q

A friend wants to ride along on a flight with you. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding

A

90 days.
To act as PIC with passengers, the pilot needs to have made 3 takeoffs and landings in the preceding 90 days in the category, class, and type of aircraft, if a type rating is required.
FAR 61.57

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73
Q

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?

A

August 31, 2 years later.
To act as PIC, a biennial flight review must be accomplished every 24 months. A calendar month ends on the last day of the month.
FAR 61.56

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74
Q

An example of a “type” of aircraft would be:

A

DC-7, Cessna 172, and F-16.
As used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a specific make and basic model of aircraft, including modifications thereto that do not change its handling or flight characteristics.
FAR 1.1

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75
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than

A

3 miles.
No person may fly acrobatics when flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.
FAR 91.303

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76
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?

A

Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
Aircraft are required to be equipped with ADS-B when above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport.
FAR 91.225

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77
Q

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

A

.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
A person may not act as crew member while having .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
FAR 91.17

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78
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?

A

90.
In the advisory circular system, the information covering air traffic control and general operations is issued under the subject number 90.
Advisory Circular Checklist (AC 00-2)

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79
Q

To fly in formation:

A

Each PIC must have conferred with the other pilots as to what they would do in flight.
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
FAR 91.111

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80
Q

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

A

1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
For basic VFR in Class D airspace, the pilot needs a ceiling of 1,000’ and visibility of 3 miles.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1
FAR 91.155

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81
Q

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
During the night, the pilot needs enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.
FAR 91.151

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82
Q

Advisory Circulars (ACs) are issued to inform the public of nonregulatory material:

A

And are not binding.
Unless incorporated into a regulation by reference, the contents of an advisory circular are not binding on the public.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) Introduction

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83
Q

A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

A

3402.5 hours.
The 100-hour time frame may be exceeded by up to 10 hours while en route to a place for the inspection, but this must be deducted from the next 100-hour period. The next inspection is due within 100 hours of the original due time. 3302.5 + 100 = 3402.5.
FAR 91.409

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84
Q

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

A

an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability, and ADS-B out equipment.
No aircraft may fly within 30 miles of a Class B airport unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable coded radar beacon transponder with altitude encoding, and ADS-B Out equipment.
FAR 91.215
FAR 91.225

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85
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 knots.
No person may operate an aircraft below 10,000’ MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 m.p.h.).
FAR 91.117

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86
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same

A

category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
To act as PIC with passengers, the pilot needs to have made 3 takeoffs and landings in the preceding 90 days in the category, class, and type of aircraft, if a type rating is required.
FAR 61.57

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87
Q

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from

A

1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
For the purposes of recent experience, night flight begins one hour after sunset and ends one hour before sunrise.
FAR 61.57

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88
Q

An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

A

1359.6 hours.
The next 100-hour inspection is due 100 hours after the previous inspection. 1259.6 + 100 = 1359.6.
FAR 91.409

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89
Q

Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?

A

The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
The signature, and certificate number of the person approving the aircraft for return to service.
FAR 91.417
FAR 43.9

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90
Q

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

A

Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
The pilot and the required crew member(s) must possess on their person or readily accessible in the aircraft, a current pilot certificate.
FAR 61.3

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91
Q

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

3 miles.
Airways are controlled airspace and require 3 miles visibility below 10,000’ MSL.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-2
FAR 91.155
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1

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92
Q

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

A

steady red.
For an aircraft in the air, steady red means continue circling.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 4-3
FAR 91.125

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93
Q

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°?

A

Odd thousands plus 500 feet.
When cruising on a magnetic course between 0° and 179° use an altitude of odd thousands plus 500’.
FAR 91.159

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94
Q

The pilot in command is responsible for ensuring that each person on board applicable U. S. registered aircraft is briefed and instructed on how and when to

A

fasten and unfasten their seat belt and shoulder harness.
An airplane may not takeoff unless the PIC ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten their safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness.
FAR 91.107

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95
Q

To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in

A
**the same category and class of aircraft to be used.**
To fly as PIC with passengers at night, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and landings to a full stop at night in the same category, class, and type, if a type rating is required, within the last 90 days.
[FAR 61.57](https://www.ecfr.gov/cgi-bin/text-idx?SID=fc4a2342ef24691515bc456c43f20fd6&mc=true&node=pt14.2.61)
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96
Q

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

A

File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
If a pilot is given priority by ATC in an emergency, he must submit a detailed report if requested within 48 hours to the manager of the facility.
FAR 91.123

97
Q

You have completed your BasicMed requirements and plan on flying your friends to a football game. What is the maximum amount of passengers you can bring along?

A

5.
To operate under BasicMed, the aircraft may not be operated with no more than five passengers on board.
FAR 61.113

98
Q

In order to be eligible for BasicMed privileges, the pilot in command must:

A

Either hold or have held a valid medical certificate after July 14, 2006.
To be eligible for BasicMed privileges with a U.S. driver’s license, the pilot must either hold or have held a valid medical certificate after July 14, 2006. The medical certificate may be expired, but cannot have been suspended, revoked.
FAR 61.23

99
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A

Aircraft towing other aircraft.
An aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.
FAR 91.113

100
Q

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?

A

Yes, if allowed by the AD.
No person may operate a product to which an airworthiness directive applies except in accordance with the requirements of that airworthiness directive. Therefore, if the AD states the exception, the pilot may follow it.
FAR 39

101
Q

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of

A

15,000 feet MSL.
No person may operate a civil aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000’ MSL unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.
FAR 91.211

102
Q

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

A

an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
For a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must acquire weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, and alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed.
FAR 91.103

103
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD’s) are complied with?

A

Owner or operator.
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with AD’s.
FAR 91.403

104
Q

A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot’s logbook a minimum of

A

100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
To act as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot must have 100 hours of PIC time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
FAR 61.69

105
Q

(Refer to Figure 71, area 8.) You have a flight planned from Auburn airport (AUN - area 8) to Sacramento Mather airport (MHR - area 6) at 4,500’ MSL. What additional avionics equipment must your aircraft have installed?

A

None.
ADS-B Out is only required for flights within the designated lateral and vertical boundaries up to 10,000’ MSL of Class B, and C airspace, and Class E airspace above 10,000’ MSL (excluding at or below 2,500’ AGL) within the contiguous United States.
FAR 91.225

106
Q

(Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the TV towers in the congested area southwest of Savannah Hilton Head International (SAV)?

A

2,548 feet MSL.
Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. 1548+1000=2548.
FAR 91.119

107
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs

A

at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
No person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained.
FARs 91.126, FAR 91.127 & FAR 91.129

108
Q

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

A

VX.
VX means speed for best angle of climb. This is the airspeed that will yield the most altitude over a given distance.
FAR 1

109
Q

VSO is defined as the

A

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
VSO means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
FAR 1

110
Q

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

A

Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
Replenishing hydraulic fluid in the hydraulic reservoir is a part of preventative maintenance.
FAR 43 Appendix A

111
Q

An aircraft’s annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than

A

July 31, next year.
No person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had an annual inspection. A period of 12-calendar months extends from any day of a month to the last day of the same month the following year.
FAR 91.409
Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge Ch. 9

112
Q

Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?

A

VLE.
VLE means maximum landing gear extended speed.
FAR 1

113
Q

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?

A

After one-half the battery’s useful life.
Batteries used in ELTs must be replaced (or recharged, if rechargeable) when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour or when 50% of their useful life (or, for rechargeable batteries, 50% of their useful life of charge) has expired.
FAR 91.207

114
Q

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the

A

owner or operator.
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition.
FAR 91.403

115
Q

The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane

A

must be to a full stop.
Landings for recency of experience must be to a full stop, if the pilot is carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane.
FAR 61.57

116
Q

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

A

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug must provide a written report of the motor vehicle actions to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division within 60 days.
FAR 61.15

117
Q

To fly in Class B airspace:

A

The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.
The operator must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that Class B airspace.
FAR 91.131

118
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding

A

24 calendar months.
A flight review is necessary every 24 months.
FAR 61.56

119
Q

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

A

30 days after the date of the move.
A pilot must notify the FAA within 30 days of a permanent change of mailing address or he cannot exercise the privilege of his certificate.
FAR 61.60

120
Q

Maximum structural cruising speed is abbreviated as:

A

VNO
Upper limit of green arc (VNO)—the maximum structural cruising speed. Do not exceed this speed except in smooth air.
Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge Ch. 8
FAR 1

121
Q

(Refer to Figure 20.) You have a flight planned from Currituck Co. airport (area 3) to Norfolk International airport (area 1). What additional equipment is your airplane required to have, if any?

A

ADS-B Out.
Per 91.225, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in Class B or Class C airspace areas unless the aircraft has ADS-B Out equipment installed.
FAR 91.225

122
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

A

500 feet.
Class G airspace requires 500’ below clouds when above 1,200’ AGL.
FAR 91.155
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1

123
Q

(Refer to Figure 59, area 4.) You are flying along the coastline at 7,000’ under the 9,000’ MSL Class B shelf southeast bound (area 4). Are you required to have an ADS-B Out system?

A

Yes.
ADS-B Out is required for operations within 30 NM of a Class B airport from the surface upward to 10,000’ MSL. This is commonly known as the Mode C Veil.
FAR 91.225

124
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

A

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
To fly in Class B airspace, the PIC must hold at least a private pilot certificate. However, a pilot with a student or recreational certificate, who seeks private pilot certification and has met the requirements, may operate here as well.
FAR 91.131

125
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

A

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and ADS-B Out.
Two-way radio communication, a transponder, an encoding altimeter, and ADS-B Out are required in Class B airspace.
FARs 91.131 & 91.215
FAR 91.225
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-2

126
Q

While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

A

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
FAR 91.129

127
Q

When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace each pilot must make:

A

All turns to the left.
When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right.
FAR 91.126

128
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

A

3 miles.
At night under the conditions specified in the question, Class G airspace requires 3 miles flight visibility.
FAR 91.155
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1

129
Q

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

A

If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
No PIC may allow any object to be dropped from an aircraft that creates a hazard to persons or property but an object may be dropped if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.
FAR 91.15

130
Q

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

A

The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
To fly an aircraft special VFR at night in Class D airspace, the pilot and aircraft must be certified for instrument flight.
FAR 91.157

131
Q

Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a

A

Private Pilot Certificate.
No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered until an appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate flies the aircraft.
FAR 91.407

132
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months

A

at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
To act as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot must have made at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot who meets the requirements of this section.
FAR 61.69

133
Q

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

A

If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
A private pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization, for which the passengers make a donation to the organization.
FAR 61.113

134
Q

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD’s)?

A

They are mandatory.
No person may operate a product to which an airworthiness directive applies except in accordance with the requirements of that airworthiness directive.
FAR 39

135
Q

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.

A

5,500 feet.
When cruising on a magnetic course between 0° and 179° use an altitude of odd thousands plus 500’.
FAR 91.159

136
Q

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a ‘serious injury’?

A

48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
Serious injury means any injury which requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received.
NTSB 830.2

137
Q

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should

A

make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace, make all turns to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right.
FAR 91.126

138
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A

Glider.
If the aircraft are of different categories, a glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft.
FAR 91.113

139
Q

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A

1,000 feet.
VFR flight in Class E airspace above 10,000’ MSL requires 1,000’ above clouds.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1
FAR 91.155

140
Q

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-towered airport?

A

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
Each pilot of an aircraft must comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in FAR 93.
FAR 91.127

141
Q

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

A

1 mile.
VFR flight in Class E airspace above 10,000’ MSL requires 1 statute mile horizontally from clouds.
FAR 91.155
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1

142
Q

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

A

immediately.
The operator of a civil aircraft must immediately notify the nearest NTSB field office when an accident occurs resulting in substantial damage.
NTSB 830.5

143
Q

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate?

A

Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate.
For Experimental or Special light-sport aircraft, the operating limitations are attached to the Special Airworthiness Certificate (Form 8130-7) for the aircraft.
Airworthiness Certification of Products and Articles (Order 8130.2)
FAR 91.9
Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge Ch. 9

144
Q

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

A

Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
No person may operate an aircraft for hire, or give flight instruction for hire, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection and been approved for return to service.
FAR 91.409

145
Q

An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to

A

exercise extreme caution.
For an aircraft in flight, alternating red and green means exercise extreme caution.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 4-3
FAR 91.125

146
Q

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 knots.
When flying in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace, the maximum speed is 200 knots.
FAR 91.117

147
Q

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

A

VFE.
VFE means maximum flap extended speed.
FAR 1

148
Q

The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a

A

review of the maintenance records.
Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.
FAR 91.405

149
Q

To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?

A

The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.
Between sunrise and sunset, the person being granted the ATC clearance must hold an instrument rating and the aircraft must be equipped for instrument flight.
FAR 91.157

150
Q

When may an 121.5 MHz emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

A

During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
Aircraft operational testing is authorized on analog 121.5/243 MHz ELT’s only during the first 5 minutes after any hour. Digital 406 MHZ ELTs should only be tested in accordance with the unit’s manufacturer’s instructions.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 6-2

151
Q

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

A

8 hours.
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage.
FAR 91.17

152
Q

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

A

VY
VY means speed for best rate of climb. This is the speed that will provide the most altitude per unit of time.
FAR 1

153
Q

If a person is convicted of flying an airplane while intoxicated, he or she might expect:

A

Denial of an application for an FAA certificate or rating.
If a pilot is convicted of operating an aircraft under the influence of alcohol or drugs, it is grounds for denial of said application.
FAR 61.15

154
Q

Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by

A

an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
Each registered owner or operator shall keep a record of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration to the aircraft in the maintenance records.
FAR 91.417

155
Q

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
During the day, the pilot needs enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes.
FAR 91.151

156
Q

To exercise the privileges of BasicMed, what additional documents must the pilot in command have?

A

A current and valid U.S. driver’s license, the completed CMEC checklist and BasicMed medical certificate completion course in the pilot’s logbook.
Pilots operating under BasicMed may act as PIC as long as they possess a current and valid U.S. driver’s license, have completed the CMEC checklist and BasicMed medical course. The completed CMEC checklist and medical certificate completion course must be available in the pilot’s logbook.
FAR 61.113
FAR 61.23

157
Q

(Refer to Figure 78). You are performing a test flight in the vicinity of Onawa airport (K36) at 11,000’ MSL. What additional equipment does the aircraft need to have installed?

A

ADS-B Out.
Per 91.225, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft unless the aircraft has ADS-B Out equipment installed in Class E airspace within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface.
FAR 91.225

158
Q

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?

A

When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
Batteries used in ELTs must be replaced (or recharged, if rechargeable) when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour or when 50% of their useful life (or, for rechargeable batteries, 50% of their useful life of charge) has expired.
FAR 91.207

159
Q

ADS-B Out equipment is required when flying:

A

In Class E airspace at and above 3,000’ MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the U.S. coastline out to 12 NM.
ADS-B Out is required for flights within Class E airspace at and above 3,000 feet MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the United States out to 12 nautical miles.
FAR 91.225

160
Q

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A

2,000 feet.
Classes C, D, & E require a cloud clearance of 2000’ horizontally.
FAR 91.155
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1

161
Q

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

A

Normal, utility, acrobatic.
With respect to the certification of aircraft, a category is a grouping of aircraft based upon intended use or operating limitations.
FAR 1

162
Q

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

A

ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
For VFR in Class D airspace, the pilot needs a ceiling of 1,000’ and visibility of 3 miles.
FAR 91.155

163
Q

(Refer to Figure 78.) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?

A

1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
The Onawa airport is located in Class G airspace at the surface, which requires a minimum visibility of 1 statute mile and for you to remain clear of clouds.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1
FAR 91.155

164
Q

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

A

When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.
Each occupant must wear an approved parachute when the aircraft is intentionally placed in a nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30° relative to the horizon.
FAR 91.307

165
Q

Which restriction applies to private pilots flying without a current medical certificate under the guidance of BasicMed?

A
**You may not operate an airplane for compensation or hire.**
Pilots operating under BasicMed are subject to the prohibition on the carriage of passengers or property for compensation or hire under FAR 61.113(a) just as would be the case with a third class medical certificate.
[FAR 61.113](https://www.ecfr.gov/cgi-bin/text-idx?SID=fc4a2342ef24691515bc456c43f20fd6&mc=true&node=pt14.2.61)
166
Q

On taxi, takeoff, and landing:

A

All persons in an airplane must have a seatbelt and shoulder harness fastened.
No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, take off, or land a U.S.-registered civil aircraft unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board has been notified to fasten his or her safety belt and, if installed, his or her shoulder harness.
FAR 91.107

167
Q

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

A

Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. The crew members’ shoulder harnesses must be fastened for takeoff and landing.
FAR 91.105

168
Q

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A

The airship.
If the aircraft are of different categories, an airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or rotorcraft.
FAR 91.113

169
Q

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft’s operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

A

with passengers aboard.
No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics until test flown and approved for return to service.
FAR 91.407

170
Q

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any

A

local law enforcement officer.
Any local law enforcement officer or authorized representative of the TSA may request to view your certificates.
FAR 61.3

171
Q

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
If a pilot is given priority by ATC in an emergency, he must submit a detailed report within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
FAR 91.123

172
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

A

except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
FAR 91.111

173
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when

A

over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
A pilot may not fly acrobatics over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
FAR 91.303

174
Q

FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by

A

ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
The FAA Advisory Circulars that are for sale can be obtained from the Superintendent of Documents, Government Printing Office. Free ACs can be obtained from the U.S. Department of Transportation. Many are available on the Internet.
Advisory Circular Checklist (AC 00-2)

175
Q

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

A

Flight over a densely populated area.
No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft over a densely populated area.
FAR 91.313

176
Q

An airplane and a glider are on a head-on collision course. What should each pilot do?

A

Both pilots should give way to the right.
When aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right.
FAR 91.113

177
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding

A

90 days.
To act as PIC with passengers, the pilot needs to have made 3 takeoffs and landings in the preceding 90 days in the category, class, and type of aircraft, if a type rating is required.
FAR 61.57

178
Q

While operating under BasicMed, the pilot in command must have visited their primary care physician within the preceding:

A

48 calendar months.
To operate under BasicMed, the pilot must receive a comprehensive medical examination from a State-licensed physician during the 48 months before acting as pilot in command of an operation conducted under 61.113.
FAR 61.23

179
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

A

The elevation of the departure area.
The pilot should use the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure.
FAR 91.121

180
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

A

The elevation of the departure area.
The pilot should use the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure.
FAR 91.121

181
Q

For a student pilot solo flight, he or she must have the following on board:

A

Logbook with instructor endorsement, photo ID, student pilot certificate, and current medical certificate or other medical documentation acceptable to the FAA.
To fly solo, a student pilot must have on board; Student Pilot certificate, government issued photo ID, current instructor solo endorsement, a current medical certificate or other medical documentation acceptable to the FAA.
FAR 61.3

182
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

A

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
In an area other than a congested one, the pilot may not operate the aircraft closer than 500’ to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
FAR 91.119

183
Q

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may

A

deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency.
FAR 91.3

184
Q

In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

A

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expeditures, or rental fees.
The private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger, involving only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees.
FAR 61.113

185
Q

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

A

Class C.
In Class C airspace, the pilot must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC prior to entering that airspace and maintain communications while within that airspace.
FAR 91.130

186
Q

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?

A

4,500 feet.
When cruising on a magnetic course between 180° and 359° use an altitude of even thousands plus 500’.
FAR 91.159

187
Q

A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current

A

medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical (if required) are needed. A photo id is also required.
FAR 61.3

188
Q

Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?

A

An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
The operator of a civil aircraft must immediately notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.
NTSB 830.5

189
Q

What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

A

14 CFR Part 43.7.
A person holding at least a private pilot certificate may approve an aircraft for return to service after performing preventive maintenance under the provisions of §43.3.
FAR 43.7

190
Q

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

A

An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical (if required) are needed. A photo id is also required.
FAR 61.3

191
Q

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

A

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
Class G, day, 1,200’ or less above the surface, requires 1 statute mile, clear of clouds when the pilot has a private or higher pilot certificate.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1
FAR 91.155

192
Q

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the

A

owner or operator.
Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.
FAR 91.405

193
Q

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have

A

a biennial flight review.
To act as PIC, a flight review must be accomplished every 24 months.
FAR 61.56

194
Q

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

A

Flashing green.
Flashing green for a pilot on the ground means cleared to taxi.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 4-3
FAR 91.125

195
Q

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

A

Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
Each person on board must have a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.
FAR 91.107

196
Q

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

A

Upon request.
If the PIC deviates from a rule he shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
FAR 91.3

197
Q

A pilot convicted of the manufacture or distribution of drugs might expect:

A

Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.
A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under part 61.
FAR 61.15

198
Q

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least

A

1,000 feet and 3 miles.
No person may operate an aircraft VFR within the lateral boundaries of Class D airspace with a ceiling less than 1,000’ and visibilities less than 3 miles.
FAR 91.155

199
Q

Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?

A

Aircraft maintenance records.
The registered owner or operator must keep records containing the current status of applicable ADs including, for each, the method of compliance, the AD number, and revision date. For recurring ADs, the time and date when the next action is required.
FAR 91.417

200
Q

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

A

When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
ELT batteries must be replaced, when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour; or when 50% of their useful life has expired.
FAR 91.207

201
Q

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

A

5 miles.
Class E airspace requires 5 miles visibility above 10,000’ MSL.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1
FAR 91.155

202
Q

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

A

Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
Prior to the time the Board or its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, it may be moved to the extent necessary to protect the wreckage from further damage.
NTSB 830.10

203
Q

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

A

As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
Standard airworthiness certificates are effective as long as the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations are performed unless surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
FAR 21.181

204
Q

The required documents necessary to be onboard the airplane include:

A

Airworthiness Certificate, Registration, and Operating Handbook.
No person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it the following: An appropriate and current Airworthiness Certificate, a Registration Certificate, and an approved flight manual.
FAR 91.203

205
Q

VNO is defined as the

A

maximum structural cruising speed.
VNO means maximum structural cruising speed. It is the fastest speed that should be used in turbulent air.
FAR 1

206
Q

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 knots.
No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph).
FAR 91.117

207
Q

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?

A

August 31, 2 years later.
To act as PIC, a biennial flight review must be accomplished every 24 months. A calendar month ends on the last day of the month.
FAR 61.56

208
Q

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?

A

10.
The operator of a civil aircraft must file a report within 10 days after an accident.
NTSB 830.15

209
Q

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?

  1. Student or Recreational pilot.
  2. Private or Commercial pilot.
  3. None of the above.
A

2.
A person holding at least a private pilot certificate may approve an aircraft for return to service after performing preventive maintenance.
FAR 43.7

210
Q

(Refer to Figure 71.) Your planned flight overflies the Class C Sacramento International airport (SMF) from west to east at a cruising altitude of 9,500’ MSL. Does the flight require ADS-B out equipment?

A

Yes, the flight requires ADS-B out equipment.
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft above the ceiling of a Class C airspace area designated for an airport upward to 10,000 feet MSL unless the aircraft has ADS-B out equipment installed.
FAR 91.225

211
Q

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

A

magnetic course of 0° through 179°.
When cruising on a magnetic course between 0 and 179° use an altitude of odd thousands plus 500’.
FAR 91.159

212
Q

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

A

VA.
VA means design maneuvering speed.
FAR 1

213
Q

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

A

at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way.
FAR 91.113

214
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

A

500 feet.
In an area other than a congested one, the pilot may not operate the aircraft closer than 500’ to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
FAR 91.119

215
Q

To operate during the day in Class G airspace you need:

A

1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
Class G—1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude)—Day, 1 statute mile vis. and Clear of clouds.
FAR 91.155

216
Q

To operate during the day in Class G airspace you need:

A

1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
Class G—1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude)—Day, 1 statute mile vis. and Clear of clouds.
FAR 91.155

217
Q

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

A

taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
Each person on board must have a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.
FAR 91.107

218
Q

Who is responsible for briefing passengers regarding the use of seat belts?

A

The pilot-in-command.
No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person’s safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness.
FAR 91.107

219
Q

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during

A

that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
The required flight crew must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration.
FAR 91.211

220
Q

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

A

4 nautical miles.
Federal airways are 8 miles wide, 4 miles either side of center line provided that the changeover point is 50 nm or less from the VOR.
FAR 71.11 by reference to TERPS
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 5-3

221
Q

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

A

3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
VFR flight is allowed in Classes B, C, D, & E airspace. The controlled airspace minimums, other than Class B, are 500’ below and 1,000’ above with 3 miles visibility. Class B requires the pilot to remain clear of clouds. This answer is most correct.
FAR 91.155
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1

222
Q

What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

A

1,500 feet AGL.
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight below an altitude of 1,500’ AGL.
FAR 91.303

223
Q

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

A

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
The private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger, involving only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees.
FAR 61.113

224
Q

An aircraft’s annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than

A

July 31, next year.
No person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had an annual inspection. A period of 12-calendar months extends from any day of a month to the last day of the same month the following year.
FAR 91.409
Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge Ch. 9

225
Q

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

A

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
The operating limitations are specified in the approved Airplane Flight Manual, markings, and placards.
FAR 91.9
Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge Ch. 9

226
Q

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?

A

1 mile flight visibility.
For special VFR, in Class D airspace, the pilot needs 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
FAR 91.157

227
Q

While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should

A

exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
For an aircraft in the air, alternating green and red means exercise extreme caution. Flashing red means airport unsafe, do not land.
FAR 91.125

228
Q

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

A

determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.
Before any flight, the PIC must acquire information regarding runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance information.
FAR 91.103

229
Q

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

A

The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
The PIC of an aircraft must ensure that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten their safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, and make sure they have notified them to fasten the belts for taxi, takeoff, and landing.
FAR 91.107

230
Q

NTSB Part 830 states that an aircraft operator must immediately notify them:

A

In the case of an aircraft accident.
The operator of any civil aircraft shall immediately notify the nearest NTSB office when an aircraft accident or any serious incidents occur.
NTSB 830.5

231
Q

(Refer to Figure 82.) Based upon the altitude indicated by altimeter #3, which course direction is appropriate for this VFR cruising altitude?

A

080° magnetic.
The altimeter is indicating an altitude of 9,500 ft. Odd thousand plus 500 feet altitudes are required for flying a magnetic course between 0°-179°. The only answer that satisfies the rule is 080° magnetic.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1
FAR 91.159

232
Q

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

A

Sunset to sunrise.
Position lights must be displayed from sunset to sunrise.
FAR 91.209

233
Q

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A

1,000 feet.
VFR flight is allowed in Classes B, C, D, and E airspace. The minimum cloud distance above clouds, in controlled airspace other than Class B is 1,000’. Class B airspace requires the pilot to remain clear of clouds. This is the most correct answer.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 3-1
FAR 91.155

234
Q

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

A

The aircraft on the left shall give way.
When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude the aircraft to the other’s right has the right-of-way.
FAR 91.113

235
Q

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB

A

when requested.
A report on an incident requiring immediate notification of the NTSB is only needed when requested by the NTSB.
NTSB 830.15

236
Q

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is

A

1929.
For the purposes of recent experience, night flight begins one hour after sunset. Therefore, 18:30 + 59 minutes = 19:29.
FAR 61.57

237
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

A

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
To safely operate an aircraft over a congested area, the pilot must choose an altitude of 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000’ of the aircraft.
FAR 91.119

238
Q

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall

A

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
FAR 91.129