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FA Micro I Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of peptidoglycan

A

gives rigid support, protects against osmotic pressure, sugar backbone with cross linked peptide side chains

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2
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of cell wall/cell membrane in gram positive bacteria

A

major surface antigen, peptidoglycan for support, teichoic acid induces TNF and IL-1

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3
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of the outer membrane in gram negative bacteria

A

site of endotoxin (LPS), major surface antigen, lipid A induces TNF and IL-1, polysaccharide is the antigen

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4
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of the plasma membrance in bacteria

A

side of oxidative transport of enzymes, lipoprotein layer

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5
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of the bacterial ribosome

A

protein synthesis, 30S and 50S subunits

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6
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of bacterial periplasm

A

space between cytoplasmic membrane and peptidoglycan wall in gram neg bacteria contains many hydrolytic enzymes, including beta lactamases

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7
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of the bacterial capsule

A

protects against phagocytosis, polysaccharide (except for B. anthracis which contains D-glutamate)

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8
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of bacterial pilus/fimbria

A

mediate adherence of bacteria to cell surface;sex pilus forms attachment between 2 bacteria during conjugation, glycoprotein

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9
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of bacterial flagellum

A

motility, protein

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10
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of bacterial spore

A

provides resistance to dehydration, heat and chemicals; keratin like coat; dipicolinic acid

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11
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of plasmid

A

contains a variety genes for antibiotic resistance, enzymes and toxins; DNA

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12
Q

What is the fxn and chemical composition of the bacterial glycocalyx

A

mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces like indwelling catheters; polysaccharide

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13
Q

What cell wall structures are common to both gram pos and gram neg bacteria

A

flagellum, pilus, capsule, peptidoglycan, cytoplasmic membrane

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14
Q

What cell wall structures are found only in gram pos bacteria

A

teichoic acid

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15
Q

What cell wall structures are found only in gram neg bacteria

A

endotoxin/LPS, the periplasmic space (location of many beta lactamases)

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16
Q

what are the gram pos coccus (genus)

A

streptococcus, staphylococus

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17
Q

What are the gram neg coccus (genus)

A

Neisseria

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18
Q

What are the gram pos bacilli

A

clostridium, cornybacterium, bacillus, listeria, mycobacterium (acid fast)

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19
Q

Of the gram neg bacillus, which are not enterics

A

haemophilus, legionella, bordetella, francisella, brucella, pasteurella, bartonella, garderella

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20
Q

Of the gram neg bacillus, which ones are enterics

A

E. coli, shigella, salmonella, yersinia, klebsiella, proteus, enterobacter, serratia, vibrio, campylobacter, helicobacter, pseudomonas, bacteroides

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21
Q

Which gram pos bacteria have branching filamentous morphology

A

actinomyces and nocardia (weakly acid fast)

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22
Q

Which gram neg bacteria have pleomorphic morphology

A

rickettsiae, chlamydia (Giemsa)

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23
Q

Which gram neg bacteria are spiral

A

leptospria, borrelia, treponema

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24
Q

Which bacteria have no cell wall

A

mycoplasma - have sterols

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25
Q

What makes up the cell membrane of mycobacterium

A

mycolic acid, high lipid content

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26
Q

Which bacteria do not gram stain well because they are intracellular

A

rickettsia, legionella, chlamydia (lacks muramic acid in cell wall)

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27
Q

Which bacteris do not gram stain well because there is no cell wall

A

mycoplasma

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28
Q

Which bacteria don’t stain well because they are too thin to be visualized

A

treponema

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29
Q

What bacteria requires acid fast stain to visualize

A

mycobacterium

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30
Q

What stain shows legionella

A

silver stain

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31
Q

What is the technique to visualize treponema

A

darkfield microscopy and fluoresecent

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32
Q

What organisms do Giemsa stain pick up

A

borrelia, plasmodium, tryapanosomes, chlamydia

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33
Q

What organisms stain with PAS

A

used to diagnose Whipple’s disease - tropheryma whippelii

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34
Q

What organisms stain with Ziehl-Neelson

A

acid fast organisms

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35
Q

What organisms stain with india ink

A

cryptococcus neoformans

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36
Q

What organisms stain with silver stain

A

fungi (pneumocystis), legionella

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37
Q

What does PAS actually stain for

A

glycogen, mucopolysaccharides

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38
Q

what bug grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin)

A

h. flu

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39
Q

What bug grows on thayer-martin (or VPN) media - what does VPN stand for

A

N. gonorrhea - vancomycin (inhibits gram pos) polymyxin (inhibits gram neg), nystatin (inhibits fungi)

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40
Q

What bug grows on bordet-genou (potato) agar

A

bordetella pertussis

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41
Q

What bug grows on tellurite plate, lofflers media

A

C. diptheriae

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42
Q

What bug grows on lowenstein jensen agar

A

M. tuberculosis

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43
Q

What bug grows on eaton’s agar

A

m. pneumoniae

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44
Q

what bug grows pink colonies on MacConkey’s agar

A

lactose fermenting enterics

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45
Q

what bug grows blue black colonies on eosin-methylene blue agar with metallic sheen

A

E. Coli

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46
Q

what bug grows on charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine

A

legionella

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47
Q

What bug grows on sabouraud’s agar

A

fungi

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48
Q

What bugs are obligate aerobes

A

Nocardia, pseudomonas, m. tuberculosis, bacillus - nagging pests must breathe

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49
Q

In what clinical scenarios do you see Pseudomonas

A

burn wounds, nosocomial pneumonia, pneumonias in cystic fibrosis

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50
Q

Where does reactivation TB usually go, and what can precipitate reactivation

A

apices of lung, immune system compromise, or anti-TNF alpha use

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51
Q

What are the obligate anaerobes and what do they lack (and hence suscpetible to)

A

clostridium, bacteroides, actinomyces, lack catalse and superoxide dismutase and susceptible to oxidative damage

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52
Q

What are characteristics of obligate anaerobes

A

foul smelling (short chain fatty acids), difficult to culture, produce gas in tissues (CO2, H2)

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53
Q

Which Abx are ineffective against obligate anaerobes and why - where are anaerobes nl found

A

aminoglycosides, require O2 to enter bacterial cell - nl found in GI tract

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54
Q

What bugs are obligate intracellulars and why

A

rickettsia and chlamydia - can’t make out ATP

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55
Q

What bugs are the facultative intracellular

A

salmonella, neisseria, brucella, mycobacterium, listeria, francisella, legionella

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56
Q

What does the quellung reaction test for and what does a positive result indicate

A

encapsulated or not - positive if encapsulated bug is present; capsule swells when specific anticapsular antisera are added

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57
Q

What organisms are encapsulated

A

strep pneumo, klebesiella, H flu type b, N. meningititides, salmonella, group B strep

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58
Q

How do bacterial capsules function

A

antiphagocytic virulence factor

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59
Q

What is a capsule conjugated with a protein

A

antigen in vaccines

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60
Q

Why is the polysaccharide capsule conjugated to a protein

A

promote T cell activation and subsequent class switching - alone only IgM antibodies would be produced

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61
Q

What is in pneumovax

A

H. flu type B, meningococcal vaccines

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62
Q

What bugs are urease pos

A

proteus, klebsiella, H. pylori, ureaplasma - particular kinds have urease

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63
Q

What bugs produce yellow sulfur granules composed of a mass of filaments and formed in pus

A

actinomyces isreallii

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64
Q

What bug produces a yellow pigment

A

S. aureus

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65
Q

What bug produces a blue-green pigment

A

pseudemonas aeruginosa

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66
Q

What bug produces a red pigment

A

serratia

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67
Q

What virulence factor binds Fc region of Ig, prevents opsonization and phagocytosis and what bug has it

A

Protein A - S. aureus

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68
Q

What bugs can colonize the respiratory mucosa and why

A

S. pneumo, H. flu type b, Neisseira- SHiN - IgA protease cleaves IgA

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69
Q

What does M protein do, who has it

A

prevents phagocytosis - group A strep

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70
Q

This substance binds directly to MHC II and T cell receptor simultaneously, activating large numbers of T cells to stimulate release of IFN gamma and IL-2

A

superantigen

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71
Q

What is toxic shock syndrome, what bug secretes what substance to cause it

A

fever, rash, shock - S aureas, TSST-1

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72
Q

What toxins does S. aureus secrete

A

enterotoxins, TSST-1, exfoliatin which causes scalded skin syndrome

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73
Q

What bug secretes scarlet fever erythrogenic toxin and what does it cause

A

S. pyogenes, toxic shock-like syndrome

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74
Q

What do ADP-ribosylating A-B toxins do

A

interfere with host cell function, binding component binds to a receptor on surface of host cell enabling endocytosis - active portion attaches an ADP-ribosyl to a shost cell protein altering protein function

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75
Q

What kind of exotoxin does corneybacterium have and what does it do

A

ADP-R AB toxin - inactivates EF-2; causes pharyngitis and pseudomembrane in the throat (similar to pseudomonas exotoxin A)

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76
Q

What kind of exotoxin does V. cholerae have and what does it do

A

ADP ribosylation of G protein stimulates adenylyl cyclase, inc Cl- secretion into gut and dec Na absorption, H20 into gut lumen, voluminous rice water diarrhea

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77
Q

What kind of exotoxin does E. coli have and what does it work

A

ADP-R AB toxin: heat labile, stimulates adenylate cylcase, heat stable toxin stimulates guanylate cyclase - both cause watery diarrhea

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78
Q

What kind of exotoxin does bordetella pertussis have and what does it do

A

ADP-R AB toxin: inc cAMP by inhibiting Galpha1, causes whooping cough, inhibits chemokine receptor, causing lymphocytosis

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79
Q

What toxin does clostridium perfringens have and what does it do

A

alpha toxin, a lecithinase that acta s a phospholipase to cleave cell membranes and causes a gas gangrene

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80
Q

What do you see on blood agar with C. perfringens

A

double zone of hemolysis

81
Q

What kind of exotoxin does C. tetani have and what does it do

A

tetanus toxin blocks the release of inhibitory GABA and glycine, causes lockjaw

82
Q

What kind does exotoxin from C. botulinum do

A

blocks the release of ACH, causes anticholinergic symptoms, CNS paralysis, especially cranial nerves

83
Q

Where are spores of C. botulinum found

A

canned food, honey (causing floppy baby)

84
Q

What kind of exotoxin does b. anthracis have

A

edema factor, part of the toxin complex, is an adenylate cyclase

85
Q

What does shiga toxin do and what bugs produce it

A

cleaves host cell rRNA (inactivates 60S ribosome), also enhances cytokine release causing HUS - shigella and E. Coli 0157:H7

86
Q

What organism secretes streptolysin O and what is it used for

A

S. pyogenes, hemolysin antigen for ASO antibody which is used in the dx of rheumatic fever

87
Q

What does vibrio cholerae do to Gs

A

toxin permanently activates causing rice water diarrhea via induction of cAMP - turns the on on

88
Q

What does pertusses toxin do to Gi

A

permanently disables causing whooping cough via induction of cAMP - turns the off off

89
Q

What toxin from E. Coli induces cAMP

A

heat labile toxin

90
Q

What is the difference in mechanism between cholera, pertussis and E. coli with anthrax

A

the first 3 act via ADP ribosylation causing permenately activating adenylate cyclase, while anthrax edema factor is itself an adenylate cyclase causing an inc in cAMP

91
Q

What is endotoxin

A

A lipopolysaccharide found in the outer membrance of gram neg bacteria

92
Q

What 3 pathways does endotoxin activate

A

macrophages, complement pathway and hageman factor

93
Q

What happens when macrophages activate macrophages

A

IL-1 - lever, TNF - fever/hemorrhagic tissue necrosis, NO - hypotension

94
Q

What happens when endotoxin activates the complement pathway

A

C3a - hypotension, edema and C5a - neutrophil chemotaxis

95
Q

What happens when endotoxin activates hagemans factor

A

coagulation cascade - DIC

96
Q

In the bacterial growth curve, what happens in the lag phase

A

metabolic activity without division

97
Q

In the bacterial growth curve, what happens in the log phase

A

rapid cell division

98
Q

In the bacterial growth curve, what happens in the stationary phase

A

nutrient depletion slows growth, spore formation in some bacteria

99
Q

In the bacterial growth curve, what happens in the death phase

A

prolonged nutrient depletion and buildup of waste products leads to death

100
Q

What is the ability to take up DNA from evironment in bacteria

A

transformation or competence

101
Q

What bacteria in particular have the ability to transform

A

SHiN - strep pneumo, h flu, neisseria

102
Q

What is the difference between F+ x F- and Hfr x F- conjugation

A

transfer of just plasmid in F+ and transfer of plasmid plus some flanking genes in Hfr x F-

103
Q

How is Hfr made

A

F+ plasmid can become incorportated into bacterial chromosome DNA

104
Q

Segment of DNA that can jump from one location to another, can transfer genes from plasmid to chromosome and vice versa

A

transposition - some flanking genes can be gained and lost, and transferred in conjugation

105
Q

Lytic phage infects bacterium, cleavage of bacterial DNA and synthesis of viral proteins, parts of bacterial chromosome may become packaged in viral capsid

A

generalized transduction - a packaging event

106
Q

lysogenic phage infects bacterium, viral DNA incorporated into bacterial chromosome, when phage DNA is excised can bring portions of bacterial chromosome into capside

A

specialized transduction - an excision event

107
Q

Genes for which 5 bacterial toxins are encoded in a lysogenic phage

A

shiga like toxin, botulinum toxin, cholera toxin, diptheria toxin, erythrogenic toxin of s. pyogenes

108
Q

With staph grown on novobiocin, which is resistant and which is sensitive

A

saprohyticus resistant, epidermidis is sensitive - NO StRES

109
Q

With strep grown on optichin, which are sensitive and which are resistant

A

Viridans is resistant and pneumo is sensitive - OVRPS (overpass)

110
Q

With strep grown on bacitracin, which are sensitive and which are resistant

A

group B are resistant, group A are sensitive - B-BRAS

111
Q

Which bacteria are alpha hemolytic

A

strep pneumo and viridans

112
Q

Which bacteria are beta hemolytic

A

S. aureus, Strep pyogenes, group B strep, listeria monocytogenes

113
Q

What associations go with listeria monocytogenes

A

tumbling motility, meningitis in newborns, unpasteurized milk

114
Q

What does catalase do

A

degrades H2O2 before it can be converted to micorbicidal products by the enzyme myeloperoxidase

115
Q

Which bacteria make catalase and which do not

A

staph make it, strep don’t

116
Q

Which staph make coagulase, and which don’t

A

aureus does, epidermidis and group B do not

117
Q

What kind of microbes cause recurrent infections in patients with chronic granulomatous disease and why

A

catalase pos organisms - remove H2O2 leading to infection - staph

118
Q

What bacteria has protein A and what does it do

A

s. aureus, virulence factor, binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis

119
Q

What does inflammatory diseases do staph aureus cause

A

skin infections, organ abscesses, pneumonia

120
Q

What toxin mediated diseases does staph aureas cause

A

toxic shock syndrome (TSST-1), scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin), rapid onste fod poisoning (enterotoxin

121
Q

What s. aureus infection is an imporant cause of serious nosocomial and community-acquired infections

A

MRSA - resistant to beta lactams due to altered penicillen binding protein

122
Q

How does TSST work

A

superantigen that binds MHCH II and T cell receptor resulting in poly colonal T cell activation

123
Q

What is S. aureus food poisoning due to

A

ingestion of preformed toxin

124
Q

What specific infections are likely to be staph aureus

A

acute bacterial endocarditis and osteomyelitis

125
Q

Infects prosthetic devices and intravenous catheters by producing adherent biofilms - what bacteria and where do you normally find it

A

staph epi - normal skin flora, contaminates blood cultures

126
Q

What does MOPS stand for with s pneumo

A

meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia, sinusitis OR - Most Optichin Sensitive

127
Q

What color sputum, and sepsis in which patients is associated with pneumococcus,

A

rusty sputum, sepsis in sickle cell after splenectomy

128
Q

What shape are s pneumo, do they have a capsule and what protease do they have

A

lancet shaped, encapsulate, IgA protease

129
Q

Where are strep viridans normal flora and what do they cause

A

nl flora in oropharynx, cause dental carries (mutans), subacute bacterial endocarditis (sanguis)

130
Q

What pyogenic infections does s pyogenes cause

A

pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo

131
Q

What toxigenic infections does s pyogenes cause

A

scarlet fever, toxic shock-like syndrome

132
Q

What immunolgic infections does s pyogenes cause

A

rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis

133
Q

What laboratory test distinguishes strep pyogenes from group B strep, and what causes the immunologic response

A

bacitracin sensitive, antibodies to M protein enhance host defenses, but can give rise to rheumatic fever

134
Q

What titer can detect recent s pyogenes infection

A

ASO titer

135
Q

What is the clinical picture of rheumatic fever

A

subcutenous plaques, polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, chorea, carditis - no “rheum” for SPECCulation

136
Q

How do group B strep respond to bacitracin

A

resistant

137
Q

How do group B strep grow on blood agar

A

beta hemolytic

138
Q

Where does group B strep colonize

A

vagina

139
Q

What does group B strep cause

A

pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis in babies

140
Q

What does group B strep produce and what does it cause

A

CAMP factor enlarges area of hemolysis formed by S. aureus

141
Q

When do you screen pregnant women and what do you treat them with if they are are pos

A

35 to 37 weeks, intrapartum pen prophylaxis

142
Q

What bacteria are considered enterococci, where are they found, and what do they cause

A

enterococci (E. faecalis, E. faecium) nl colonic flora, pen G resistant, cause UTI and subacute endocarditis

143
Q

What are VRE and what do they cause

A

vanc resis enterococci and are important cause of nosocomial infection

144
Q

How can you distinguish enterococci from nonenterococcal group D

A

grow in 6.5% NaCl and bile

145
Q

Which bacteria is an important cause of subacute endocarditis and bacteremia in colon cancer patients

A

strep bovis, also group D

146
Q

What is diptheria exotoxin coded by and what does it do

A

coded by beta prophage, inhibits synthesis via ADP ribosylation of EF-2

147
Q

What are the symptoms of diptheria

A

pseudomembranous (grey-white membrane) pharyngitis with lymphadenopathy

148
Q

What is the lab diagnosis of C. dipetheria

A

gram pos rods with metachromatic (blue and red) granules

149
Q

What vaccine can prevent diptheria

A

toxoid vaccine

150
Q

What C. diptheria grow on

A

tellurite agar

151
Q

When do gram pos rods form spores

A

when nutriets are limited

152
Q

What are spores highly resistant to, and what can be done to overcome it

A

resistant to destruction by heat or chemicals, need to autoclave to kill by steaming at 121C for 15 minutes

153
Q

What acid is in the spore core

A

dipicolinic acid

154
Q

What gram pos rods form spores in soil

A

b anthracis, c. perfringens, c tetani (b cereus and c botulinum also form spores

155
Q

gram pos, spore forming, obligate anaerobes

A

clostridia

156
Q

produces tetanospas an exotoxin causing tetanus

A

c tetani

157
Q

How does tetanus toxin cause tetanus

A

blocka glycine and GABA release - inhibitory NTs from Renshaw cells in spinal cord

158
Q

What kind of paralysis does tetanus toxin produce

A

spastic, trismus (lockjaw and risus sardonicus)

159
Q

What does botulinum toxin do and what is it characterized by

A

heat labile toxin that inhibits ACH release from NMJ causing a flaccid paralysis

160
Q

What is the difference in route of infection of botulism in adults vs babies

A

adults - preformed toxin, babies - ingestion of spores in honey

161
Q

What does c perfringens produce and what does it do

A

alpha toxin (lecithinase) that can cause myonecrosis (gas gangrene) and hemolysis

162
Q

What two toxins does C. diff produce andw what do they do

A

Toxin A - enterotoxin binds to brush border of the gut, Toxin B - cytotoxin, destroys the cytoskeletal structure of enterocytes, causing pseudomembranous colitis

163
Q

What often causes infection with C. diff and how is it dx

A

often secondary to Abx use - diagnosed by detection of one or both toxins in the stool

164
Q

usage of which Abx can lead to c diff

A

clindamycin or ampicillin

165
Q

What is the treatment for c. diff infection

A

metronidazole

166
Q

What is the only bacterium with a polypeptide capsule and and what does it cause

A

b anthracis - anthrax -cutaneous is black eschar ulcer (painless) can progress to bacteremia or death, pulmonary anthrax is inhalation of spores producing flu-like sx that rapidly progress to fever pulmonary hemorrhage, mediastinitis and shock

167
Q

What are the black skin lesions in anthrax caused by

A

black necrosis surrounded by edematous ring, caused by letha factor and edema factor

168
Q

Why is anthrax called woolsorters disease

A

inhalation of spores from contaminated wool

169
Q

How is listeria acquired, what does it form, and how is motility characterized

A

facultative intracellular microbe, ingestion of unpasteureized milk/cheese and deli meats or by vaginal transmission - forms actin rockets, cell to cell movements and tumbling motility

170
Q

What does listeria infection cause

A

in pregs - amnionitis, septicemia, spontaneous abortion, granulomatous infantiseptica, neonatal meningitis in neonates, immunoCised - meningitis, healthy people - mild gastroenteritis

171
Q

Which two bacteria are gram pos rods forming long braching filaments resembling fungi

A

actinomyces and nocardia

172
Q

gram pos anaerobe, causes oral-facial abscesses that may drain through sinus tracts of skin, yellow sulfur granules - nl oral flora

A

actinomyces israeli

173
Q

gram pos, weakly acid fast aerobe in soil, causing pulmonary infection in immuncompromised patients

A

nocardia asteroides

174
Q

How do you treat actinomyces or nocardia

A

SNAP - sulfa for nocardia and actinomyces get pen

175
Q

Which lobe of the lung does primary TB usually occur in

A

lower lobe

176
Q

What is the Ghon complex

A

TB granulomas (Ghon focus + lobar and perihilary lymph node involvment) - primary infection or exposure

177
Q

What happens when primary TB heals by fibrosis

A

immunity and hypersensitivity, tuberculin positive

178
Q

in what instance does primary TB become progressive lung disease and what happens

A

HIV, malnutrition, death

179
Q

How does miliary TB occur and what happens

A

severe bacteremia, death

180
Q

How do dormant tubercle bacilli end up in multiple organs, and what happens

A

preallergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination, reactivation in adult life

181
Q

What kind of lesion is characteristic of secondary pulmonary tuberculosis

A

fibrocaseous cavitary lesion in upper lobe

182
Q

What are the sites for extrapulmonary TB

A

CNS - parenchmal tuberculoma or meningitis, vertebral body (pott’s disease), lymphadenitis, renal, GI

183
Q

What does neg PPD indicated

A

no infection, anergic (steroids, malnutrition, immunoCised, sarcoidosis)

184
Q

What are the symptoms of TB

A

ferver, night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis - can be drug resistant

185
Q

which mycobacterium is also pulmonary with TB-like symptoms and not M. tuberculosis

A

M. kansasii

186
Q

mycobacterium causing disseminated disease in AIDS, resistant to multiple drugs, cannot be grown in vitro

A

M. avium intracellulare

187
Q

What prophylactic treatment is given to AIDS pts to prevent M. avium intracellulare

A

azithromycin

188
Q

Which mycobacterium are acid fast

A

all of them

189
Q

What kind of temperatures do m. leprae like, what tissues do they infect, and what is the resevoir in the US

A

cool temps, infects skin and superficial nerves, armadillos

190
Q

What is the TX for leprosy and what is the toxicity of this TX

A

dapsone - hemolysis and methemoglobinemia or rifampin and combination clofazimine + dapsone

191
Q

What are the two forms of Hansens disease and which patients get which

A

lepromatous - diffusely over skin and is communicalbe (immunoCised) tuberculoid limited to a few hypoesthetic skin nodules (immunoCtent

192
Q

Which form of Hansens disease is lethal

A

lepromatous

193
Q

Which bacteria grow pink colonies on MacConkey’s agar

A

lactose fermeting enterics - citrobacter, klebsiella, E. coli, enterobacter, serratia

194
Q

What enzyme breaks down lactose and which bacteria produces it

A

E. Coli produces beta galactosidase

195
Q

What Abx does the gram neg outer membance inhbit entry of, but which derivatives of that same class might they be sensitive to

A

pen G and vanc - may be sens to ampicillin

196
Q

What sugars do the various neisseria bacteria ferment and what enzyme do they both produce

A

MeninGococci - maltose and glucose, Gonococci - only glucose - both produce IgA protease

197
Q

Which neisseria has a polysaccharide capsule

A

meningococci

198
Q

What neisseria is there a vaccine for

A

meningococci

199
Q

Why is there no vaccine for gonococci

A

rapid antigenic variation of pilus proteins

First Aid Microbiology (4 decks)

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