[F] Week 13: Enzyme Histochemistry and Diagnostic Application - Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the marker commonly requested in the laboratory?

A
  • Keratin
  • Epithelial Membrane Antigen (EMA)
  • Carcinoembryogenic Antigen (CEA)
  • Thyroid Transcription Factor-1 (TTF -1)
  • Prostatic Specific Antigen (PSA)
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2
Q

A highly sensitive marker for epithelial cells, and is present in all carcinomas including:
- Epithelial tumors
- Non-epithelial tumors (such as mesotheliomas and non-seminomatous germ cell tumors)

A

Keratin

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3
Q

What are the types of keratin?

A
  • CK7 (Cytokeratin 7)
  • CK20 (Cytokeratin 20)
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4
Q

Keratin

Specify what CK
* colon
* lung, breast, uterus, RCC
and ovaries

A
  • CK20
  • CK7
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5
Q

Keratin

CK that are usually positve for:
- Urothelial carcinomas of the bladder
- Gastric
- Mucinous ovarian tumors

A

CK7 and CK20

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6
Q

Keratin

CK that are usually negative for:
- Hepatocellular carcinomas
- prostatic adenocarcinomas,
- squamous cell carcinomas (skin, lung, and esophagus)

A

CK7 and CK20

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7
Q

Determine what Tumor

CK7 = +
CK20 = +

A
  • Transitional cell carcinoma of bladder
  • mucinous ovarian tumors, stomach
  • pancreas
  • gallbladder
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8
Q

Determine what Tumor

CK7 = -
CK20 = -

A
  • Renal cell carcinoma
  • hepatocellular carcinoma
  • prostatic adenocarcinoma
  • thyroid carcinoma
  • squamous cell carcinoma (skin, lungs, and esophagus)
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9
Q

Epithelial Tumor Markers

  • High molecular weight protein that is helpful in determining the site of tumor
A

Epithelial Membrane Antigen (EMA)

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10
Q

Epithelial Membrane Antigen (EMA) is positive for?

A

adenocarcinomas of the breast, lung, and
kidneys

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11
Q

Epithelial Membrane Antigen (EMA) is non-reactive for?

A

hepatocellular carcinomas, adrenal
carcinomas or embryonal carcinomas, and non-epithelial tumors

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12
Q

Epithelial Tumor Markers

Oncofetal antigen that is present in carcinomas of the:
- gastrointestinal tract
- pancreas
- lung
- breast
- ovary
- uterus
- cervix

positive in adnocarcinoma

A

Carcinoembryogenic Antigen (CEA)

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13
Q

Epithelial Tumor Markers

  • Mostly for adenocarcinomas
  • Lung adenocarcinomas vs mesotheliomas (for lung)
A

Thyroid Transcription Factor-1 (TTF-1)

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14
Q

Epithelial Tumor Markers

POSITIVE: thyroid, lung, and neuroendocrine tumors (medullary thyroid carcinomas, carcinoid tumors, and small cell tumors of the lung)

A

Thyroid Transcription Factor-1 (TTF-1)

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15
Q

Epithelial Tumor Markers

  • Extremely useful in the diagnosis of prostatic adenocarcinoma
  • POSITIVE: certain pancreatic and salivary gland tumor
A

Prostatic Specific Antigen (PSA)

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16
Q

what are the Intermediate Filament Markers

A
  1. Actin
  2. Vimentin
  3. Desmin
  4. Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
  5. Neurofilament (NF)
  6. S-100 protein
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17
Q

Intermediate Filament Markers

It is a sensitive marker for muscle
differentiation and can be used to identify tumors derived from smooth, skeletal, and cardiac muscle

A

Actin

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18
Q

Intermediate Filament Markers

  • 57kD intermediate filament that is present in normal mesenchymal cells and their neoplastic counterparts
  • Non-specific for mesenchymal cells
  • Counterpart of AMA
A

Vimentin

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19
Q

Intermediate Filament Markers

  • 53 kD intermediate filament expressed by smooth and striated (skeletal and cardiac muscle)
  • Leiomyoma and rhabdomyosarcoma
A

Desmin

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20
Q

Intermediate Filament Markers

  • 51 kD intermediate filament protein expressed by central nervous system gl cells (Brain tissue), particularly astrocytes
  • Positive: Astrocytoma, ependymomas, oligodendrogliomas, medulloblastomas
  • Non-CNS tumors (meningiomas, metastatic carcinomas, and lymphomas) stain negative for GAP
A

Glial Fibrillary Acidic Protein
(GFAP)

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21
Q

Intermediate Filament Markers

Expressed in cells of neural origin, particularly neurons, neuronal processes, peripheral nerves, sympathetic ganglia, adrenal medulla, and neuroendocrine
cells

A

Neuro-filament (NF)

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22
Q

Intermediate Filament Markers

  • Mostly for CNS
  • Low molecular weight calcium-binding
    protein
  • CNS glial cells, Schwann cells, melanocytes, histiocytes, chondrocytes, skeletal and cardiac muscle, myoepithelial cells, and some epithelial cells of breast, salivary, and sweat gland epithelium
A

S-100 protein

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23
Q

What are the neuroendocrine markers

A
  1. Neuron Specific Enolase (NSE)
  2. Chromogranin
  3. Synaptophysin
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24
Q

NEUROENDOCRINE MARKERS

  • Isoenzyme marker
  • Neural or neuroendocrine differentiation
A

Neuron- Specific Enolase (NSE)

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25
Q

NEUROENDOCRINE MARKERS

  • Neural secretory granules of endocrine tissues, and is recognized as a marker for neuroendocrine differentiation
A

Chromogranin

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26
Q

NEUROENDOCRINE MARKERS

38 kD transmembrane protein associated with presynaptic vesicles of neurons

A

Synaptophysin

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27
Q

What are the Germ cell tumor markers

A
  1. HCG (Human chorionic gonadotropin)
  2. APP (Alpha-fetoprotein)
  3. PLAP (Placenta-like alkaline phosphatase)
28
Q

Germ cell tumor markers

  • Synthesized by placental syncytiotrophoblasts
  • Choriocarcinoma
A

HCG (Human chorionic gonadotropin)

29
Q

Germ cell tumor markers

  • Normal hepatocyte
  • Endodermal sinus tumors showing yolk sac differentiation, embryonal carcinomas
A

Alpha-Fetoprotein
(APP)

30
Q

Germ cell tumor markers

  • Placental syncytiotrophoblasts in late pregnancy
  • Germ cell tumors, particularly germinomas
  • Seminoma
A

PLAP (Placenta-like alkaline phosphatase)

31
Q

what are the Mesenchymal tumor markers

A
  • Myogenic Tumors
  • Fibrohistiocytic Tumors
  • Vascular Tumors
  • Melanomas
  • Lymphomas
32
Q

Mesenchymal Tumor Markers

  • Tumors of skeletal muscle origin
  • Muscle specific actin and desmin
A

Myogenic Tumors

33
Q

Mesenchymal Tumor Markers

  • CD68 or FAM 56
A

Fibrohistiocytic Tumors

34
Q

Mesenchymal Tumor Markers

VII-related antigen, CD31, and Ulex europaeus 1 (UEA)

A

Vascular Tumors

35
Q

Mesenchymal Tumor Markers

S100 protein, Melanosome (HMB-45), Melan-A (MART-1)

36
Q

Mesenchymal Tumor Markers

  • LCA (leukocyte common antigen) or CD45
  • T cells (CD3, CD4, CDS)
  • B cells (CD19, CD20, CD23)
  • Reed-Sternberg cells (CD15, CD30)
  • Immunoglobulin light and heavy chains
37
Q

Requested for abnormal mitotic proliferation since counting is sometimes difficult for identification of abnormal mitosis tumors especially spindle-shaped tumors.

A

Cell proliferation markers

38
Q

Cell Proliferation Markers

the most common immunohistochemical markers
used to assess proliferation of
tumor cells

A
  • Ki-67 (MIB-1)
  • PCNA (proliferating cell nuclear antigen)
39
Q

OTHERS

  • P53, c-erbB-2, c-myc
  • hepatitis A virus, hepatitis B surface and core antigens, hepatitis C virus, human papilloma virus, cytomegalovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, toxoplasma, pneumocystis carinii, helicobacter pylori, cryptosporidium, cryptococcus neoformans, histoplasma, entamoeba histolytica, and mycobacteria
A
  • Cancer-associated genes
  • Infectious Agent Markers
40
Q

Tissue Controls

  1. Contains the target protein
  2. does not contain the relevant antigen
  3. “built in”; contains the target marker in the tumor & adjacent normal elements
A
  1. Positive control
  2. Negative control
  3. Internal tissue control
41
Q

TISSUE CONTROLS

  • Located near the label in
    the glass slide
  • from supplier or known positive prepared by histotechs
A

Positive control

42
Q

TISSUE CONTROLS

  • Seen in the tissue; should not stain
  • E.g in breast tissue, we have ERPR so in normal breast ducts should not be stained
A

Negative control

43
Q

TISSUE CONTROLS

  • Built in contains the target marker in the tumor and adjacent normal elements
  • From the patient (not tumor cell)
A

Internal tissue
control

44
Q

TISSUE CONTROLS

TOF

  • Tissue should have positive malignancy and abnormal structures like normal glands in the slide
  • The positive and Internal tissue control are the ones given to the laboratory coming from the patient
  • processed identically as the unknown
  • +/- controls test for specificity of antibodies and avoid misinterpretations due to false +/- results
A
  • F (normal)
  • F (negative)
  • T
  • T
45
Q

CHROMOGENIC METHOD

TOF

Chromogenic (brightfield) and fluorescence detection techniques are used in the determination of the presence and cellular location of an increasing number of proteins within a single biopsy

A

F (subcellular not cellular)

46
Q

Chromogenic multi immunohistochemical staining:

A

immunoenzymatic reaction with chromogen and enzyme

47
Q
  • Can generate dense deposits that are easy to detect but difficult to quantitate
  • More sensitive method than immunofluorescence
  • less convenient because it includes more incubation and blocking steps
A

Chromogenic Method

48
Q

CHROMOGENIC METHOD

Usually incubated with a chromogen using standard histochemical method to produce a stable-colored
reaction.

A

ENZYME LABELING

49
Q

CHROMOGENIC METHOD

Enzyme labeling of antibodies with

A

horseradish peroxidase

50
Q

Enzyme labeling of antibodies with horseradish peroxidase, followed by staining with appropriate substrate or chromogen mixture such as

A

diaminobenzidine (DAB) - dark brown

51
Q

CHROMOGENIC METHOD

Optimal incubation time for enzyme labelling

A

30 to 60 minutes at room
temperature

52
Q

what are the IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TECHNIQUES

A
  1. Direct Technique
  2. Indirect Technique
53
Q

Direct Technique

Conjugate the primary antibody directly to the label, such as?

A

` fluorochrome or horseradish peroxidase

54
Q

Direct Technique

TOF

The main advantage is that it is simple and quick. It requires two application of the reagent, followed by the appropriate chromogen substrate solution.

A

False (one only)

55
Q

why direct technique are not routinely used?

A

less sensitive and unstable

56
Q

what is the technique used for direct labelling?

A

Enhanced Polymer One-Step Stainng (EPOS) method

not commonly used

57
Q

IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TECHNIQUES

  • More commonly used
  • Two (2) or three (3) step procedure that involves application of the unconjugated primary antibody, followed by a
    labeled antibody directed against the first antibody.
A

Indirect Technique

58
Q

IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TECHNIQUES

  • It is inexpensive and more sensitive.
  • Horseradish peroxidase is the most commonly used enzyme for indirect antibody enzyme-complex techniques.
A

Indirect Technique

59
Q

Two or Three indirect tenchnique

  • Unconjugated primary antibodies first bind to the antigen.
  • There are two enzymes bound.
  • An enzyme-labeled secondary antibody directed against the primary antibody (now the antigen) is then applied, followed by
    the substrate - chromogen solution.
A

Two-step Indirect
Technique

60
Q

Two or Three indirect tenchnique

  • This procedure is considered as a better procedure.
  • Instead of two enzymes, there are three enzymes bounded. The second one acts as the bridge to the third antibody.
  • Second enzyme-conjugated antibody is added to the previously described indirect technique.
  • Further amplify the signal.
A

Three-step Indirect
Technique

61
Q

OTHER TECHNIQUES

  • Utilize preformed soluble enzyme-anti-enzyme immune complex.
  • In this method, the staining sequence involves an unconjugated primary antibody and then a secondary antibody which serves as a glue for binding of soluble enzyme-anti-enzyme complexes.
A

Soluble Enzyme Immune Complex Techniques (Unlabeled Antibody Techniques)

62
Q

OTHER TECHNIQUES

  • Most commonlyused in the laboratory
  • Standard method among most laboratories, especially in combination with frozen section processing for immunofluorescence of renal and skin biopsies
  • Alcohol is not widely used as a fixative for routine histological techniques because of its poor penetrating ability.
A

Paraffin Wax Section Immunoperoxidase Technique

63
Q

OTHER TECHNIQUES

  • Soluble peroxidase-antiperoxidase complex is bound to unconjugated primary antibody by a second layer of “bridging” antibody that then binds to both the primary antibody and the rabbit PAP complex.
  • Bridge is used.
A

Peroxidase-Antiperoxidase (PAP) Technique

64
Q

Binding of the primary antibody to amino acids other than those within the desired epitope of the antigen.
- Antibody is already attached where it should not be. Normal serum, non-fat dry milk, BSA or gelatin is used as a reagent for it to block and remove those that are not bound.

A

BLOCKING OF UNWANTED NON-SPECIFIC STAINING

65
Q

Blocking of Unwanted Non-specific

Staining

In the context of antibody-mediated antigen detection, nonspecific binding causes?

A

high background staining that can mask the detection of the target antigen

66
Q

Blocking of Unwanted Non-specific

Staining

TOF

Endogenous enzymes or fluorochromes, endogenous biotin,
endogenous antibody binding activity and cross reactivity of
the secondary reagents with endogenous proteins