F/Arms, Taser, Sudden Death, Policing Act, Victims Rights Act - Chapter 2

Question 1

S.40 - On demand by Police person in POSSESSION of firearm, airgun, pistol, or restricted weapon to give name, address, and date of birth

Answer 1

(1) Every person in POSSESSION of any firearm, airgun, pistol, or restricted weapon shall, on demand, give his full name, address, and date of birth to any member of the Police who is in uniform or who produces evidence that he is a member of the Police.

(2) If any person REFUSES to give his name, address, or date of birth OR GIVES FALSE particulars thereof, any member of the Police –
(a) May CAUTION that person; and
(b) If that person persists in such refusal or fails or continues to fail to give the correct particulars, –
may ARREST him without warrant.
(3) Every person commits an offence and is liable on conviction to IMPRISONMENT for a term not exceeding 3 months or to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or to both who, in response to a demand under subsection (1) of this section, refuses to give his name, address, or date of birth or gives false particulars thereof to any member of the Police.

Question 2

S.66 – OCCUPIER of premises or driver of vehicle deemed to be in possession of firearm, airgun, pistol, imitation firearm, restricted weapon, or explosive found therein

Answer 2

For the purposes of this Act every person in occupation of any LAND or BUILDING or the DRIVER of any vehicle on which any firearm, airgun, pistol, imitation FIREARM, restricted weapon, or explosive IS FOUND shall, though not to the exclusion of the liability of any other person, BE DEEMED TO BE IN POSSESSION of that firearm, airgun, pistol, imitation firearm, restricted weapon, or explosive, unless he PROVES that it was not his property and that it was in the possession of some other person.

Question 3

Case Law - In summary, James Heta and Natalie Hepi were convicted of: unlawful possession of a firearm and explosive pursuant to s 45(1)(b) of the Arms Act 1983 and appellants appealed on the grounds of?

Answer 3

(a) misdirection on s 66 Arms Act in the judges summing up AND (b) misdirection as to the meaning of “OCCUPANCY” in s 66.

Question 4

What was the outcome for the appeal in Heta v R?

Answer 4

It was HELD
The DC misdirected the jury on the meaning of possession which resulted in potentially an unsafe verdict; with regard to firearms and explosive. Convictions quashed.

Question 5

Hepi v R case serves to show?

Answer 5

How S.66 operates as a ‘deeming’ provision; whereby an alleged offender can be ‘deemed’ to be in possession of arms/ammunition if proven that the alleged offender was in occupation of the relevant property. A presumption of such possession can be rebutted by the defence proving, on the balance of probabilities, that the arms/ammunition was in the possession of someone else, NOT the alleged offender(s).

Question 6

Who can be deployed with firearms?

Answer 6

Only certified L1 RESPONDERS may deploy and use a Police firearm.

Question 7

When can firearms be carried?

Answer 7

when their PCA OF A SITUATION or the immediate operating environment is that it IS in, or likely to escalate to be WITHIN, the DEATH/GBH RANGE as specified by the TOF in the Use of Force overview

Question 8

A constabulary employee may carry firearms when on duty as a member of?

Answer 8

• AOS and STG
• DPS authorised by the supervisor of that squad
• Airport duties at any airport that is ‘security designated’ under the Civil Aviation Act 1990
• the role of ESCORTS and GUARDS for people CARRYING VALUABLES as authorised by a District Commander
• to DESTROY ANIMALS in circumstances set out in the Animals chapter
• for TRAINING purposes.

Question 9

What are Police responsibilities when firearms are carried?

Answer 9

MUST:

• advise their immediate supervisor and COMM’s of their decision to deploy with firearms ASAP
• deploy with a TASER where one is available.

Question 10

What must be worn when carrying firearms?

Answer 10

BALLISTIC ARMOUR
With the exception of specialist groups, employees must wear the approved hard armour plate (HAP) system in association with stab resistant body armour (SRBA) when deploying to an incident where they believe firearms are or could be present. This includes circumstances where routine carriage of firearms has been authorised in response to a specific threat.

Question 11

When can Police use firearms?

Answer 11

• Training
• animal destruction
• as a tactical option

Question 12

When dealing with an armed offender or an offender believed to be armed, you should observe these basic principles:

Answer 12

• Conduct an ongoing TENR assessment during the course of an incident.
• It is better to TAKE the matter too SERIOUSLY than too lightly.
• Caution is NOT COWARDICE.
• When the offender’s actions permit, focus on de-escalation, communication, and prevention, cordon the area, and adopt the wait and appeal role in order to NEGOTIATE a surrender.
• NEVER go unnecessarily into danger. However, if the offender is acting in a way that makes CASUALTIES likely, police must act immediately to prevent this.
• Treat all armed offenders or offenders believed to be ARMED, as DANGEROUS and hostile unless there is definite evidence to the contrary.
• Where practical, police should not use a firearm unless it can be done without endangering other persons.

Question 13

‘Fire Orders’ previously known as F61 means?

Answer 13

Is operationally specific instructions on the circumstances in which Police employees may use firearms.
Fire orders must be given accordingly…

Question 14

Orders to be given during OPERATIONAL SITUATIONS…

Answer 14

• When firearms are issued before the start of authorised routine carriage and pre-planned operations, fire orders must be given by operation or unit commanders as part of the operation briefing.
• In all other operational situations where firearms are carried, if time and circumstances permit, supervisors must draw attention to the fire orders printed on the inside cover of the Police issue notebooks.

Question 15

Orders to be given during TRAINING…

Answer 15

-Every time employees receive formal firearms training they must be asked by the instructor to demonstrate their thorough knowledge and understanding of fire orders

Question 16

Orders that should be given…The responsibility for KNOWING when firearms may be used

Answer 16

Every Police employee issued with a firearm is personally responsible for ensuring they are thoroughly conversant with relevant law, particularly
S.39 Effecting arrest,
S.40 Preventing escape,
S.41 Preventing suicide,
S.48 Self defence, and
S.62 Excess force, of the Crimes Act 1961

Question 17

Conditions of circumstances to be satisfied before using a firearm?

Answer 17

The circumstances justifying police firing at an offender can change very rapidly. Any employee who FIRES A SHOT MUST BE personally SATISFIED through THEIR PCA that there EXISTS JUSTIFICATION for doing so.

Question 18

An offender must not be shot without first considering…

Answer 18

COMMUNICATION
-they must have first been asked to SURRENDER (unless it is impractical or unsafe to do so), and

LESS VIOLENT ALTERNATIVES
(Proportionality)
-it must be clear they CANNOT BE DISARMED OR ARRESTED WITHOUT FIRST BEING SHOT, and

DELAY (Necessity)
-it must be clear that FURTHER DELAY in apprehending the offender would be DANGEROUS or impractical

Question 19

Police must only use a firearm for these lawful purposes…

Answer 19

S.39 Effecting arrest
S.40 Preventing escape
S.48 Self defence or others
Destroying animals

Question 20

Restrictions on firing at an offender when there is no longer?

Answer 20

There is NO justification for FIRING at a suspect when they are NO LONGER A THREAT TO LIFE. This applies REGARDLESS OF the suspect’s previous ACTIONS.

Question 21

As a general rule, warning shots should not be fired however, there may be circumstances where a WARNING SHOT MAY BE APPROPRIATE e.g…

Answer 21

-the suspect has been ASKED TO SURRENDER (if practical) AND HAS NOT done so, and
-it can be CLEARLY AIMED as a warning shot.
Take EXTREME CAUTION to safeguard the safety of others.

Question 22

Can Police shoot at motor vehicles?

Answer 22

Shots may only be fired at moving vehicles in EXCEPTIONAL CIRCUMSTANCES

It is extremely DIFFICULT TO DISABLE A VEHICLE by discharging a firearm AT TYRES or other parts. The small target area and the margin for error impose a HIGH PROBABILITY OF MISDIRECTION or RICOCHET increasing the risk of causing death, injury or damage.

Question 23

Discharge involving death or
injury has been caused through the DISCHARGE of a firearm BY a POLICE employee or when an employee has FIRED SHOTS that could have caused death or injury to any person, the INCIDENT CONTROLLER present or the person appointed to do so must:

Answer 23

1. take CONTROL of the scene
2. ensure FIRST AID is rendered
3. MANAGE the scene according to the principles contained in the Police involvement in deaths and serious injuries chapter
4. inform the DISTRICT COMMANDER who in turn will initiate alcohol and drug testing of employees involved in the shooting in accordance with Commissioner’s Circular - Testing Police employees for alcohol and illegal drugs after a Police shooting.

Question 24

In all other instances of firearms discharge (except for training and animal destruction) the incident controller present or the person appointed to do so must take control of the scene and then…

Answer 24

1. MARK the discharging employee’s POSITION, empty cartridge CASES, bullet FRAGMENTS, and any other items or people associated with the discharge.
2. PRESERVE the cartridge CASES and, where possible, the bullet or bullet FRAGMENTS.

3.SECURE the FIREARM and REMAINING ROUNDS making the firearm safe as soon as practicable RECORDING any action taken.
Note: On no account is the firearm to be altered or items/accessories removed.

4. PRESERVE and PHOTOGRAPH the SCENE where it is believed this may be necessary or relevant for subsequent enquiries.
5. Advise the employee’s immediate SUPERVISOR who will advise the District Commander. Report this use of force in compliance with the Use of Force reporting requirements. If the discharge has been unintentional, follow the procedure for Reporting and investigating unintentional discharges (no death or injury)

6.Commence review / INVESTIGATION into the incident.
Note: The scope and scale of the review / investigation will depend largely on the nature of the discharge and whether there was any potential for injury.

7.Conduct a DEBRIEF in compliance with the Debriefs chapter.

Question 25

An UNINTENTIONAL DISCHARGE of firearms (no death or injury) may occur through?

Answer 25

• OPERATOR ERROR e.g. a failure to follow procedure and ensuring a firearm is in the unload state before conducting a pre-op check, leading to an unintentional discharge.
• MECHANICAL FAULT with the firearm leads to a discharge.

Question 26

REPORTING and INVESTIGATING unintentional discharges (no death or injury)

In the event of an unintentional discharge (other than in training), the OPERATOR involved in the discharge must NOTIFY their supervisor or senior employee present ASAP. The supervisor (or senior employee present until the supervisor’s arrival) must then follow these steps:

Answer 26

1.Follow steps 1 – 5 as applicable for all other instances of firearms discharge.
2.NOTIFY IPCA MANAGER.
3.INSTIGATE A REVIEW (debrief) of the facts surrounding the incident.
Note: The scope and scale of the review will depend largely on the nature of the discharge and whether there was any potential for injury.
4.SEND F/A TO ARMOURY. The firearm and any bullets and cartridge cases to the Police Armoury FOR EXAMINATION. Enclose a detailed AND REPORT covering the circumstances or incident with items sent to the Police Armoury for examination.

Question 27

A TOR must be submitted by the EMPLOYEE in possession of a firearm on these occasions…

Answer 27

PRESENTATION
Each time a firearm is presented at another person other than in training, with the exception of AOS and STG whilst employed in their role.
DISCHARGE
Each time a firearm is discharged other than in training.
UNINTENTIONAL DISCHARGE
Each time there is an unintentional discharge of a firearm (except where in training) and it is clearly established the discharge was unintentional and no injury is involved.
DESTRUCTION OF ANIMALS
Each time a firearm is used for the destruction of animals.

Question 28

When must a TOR be submitted by a SUPERVISOR?

Answer 28

A TOR (Fatality or Non-fatal Police Shooting MUST BE SUBMITTED BY A SUPERVISOR (not the person who used the force) whenever a firearm has been discharged resulting in death or injury.

Question 29

In relation to using or showing a taser, who must you notify if you live rural?

Answer 29

Whenever a TASER is shown or used, the OPERATOR must notify a supervisor ASAP. In the case of employees in RURAL or remote locations, NOTIFY THE NEAREST ON DUTY SUPERVISOR.

Question 30

When notified of an operational USE of the TASER, the SUPERVISOR should follow these steps.

Answer 30

1. Consult with the operator involved as to whether your PHYSICAL ATTENDANCE is necessary at the scene (CONSIDER using mobility, e.g. FACETIME).
2. Ensure that proper AFTERCARE and appropriate MEDICAL ATTENTION where necessary is provided.
3. Ensure that:
   - the SCENE IS PRESERVED and PHOTOGRAPHED where it is believed this may be necessary or relevant for subsequent enquiries
   - ALL EVDIENCE including discharged cartridges, wires, probes and sufficient (4-5) cartridge identification tags (CIT), ARE RECOVERED from the scene and secured.
4. Ensure:
   - subjects exposed to the application of TASER are EXAMINED BY A REGISTERED MEDICAL DOCTOR (or where not available, an Intermediate Life Support (ILS) qualified ambulance officer), and
   - the EXAMINATION IS RECORDED on a POL 42 - Post TASER Exposure Medical Examination Form.
5. Ensure the OPERATOR COMPLETES the details of all INSTANCES OF USE in the TASER REGISTER.
6. Ensure the OPERATOR, or individuals involved SUBMIT a TOR (standard TOR, or TOR used on an animal) in compliance with reporting requirements in the Use of Force overview.
7. Ensure the OPERATOR(s) involved:
   - UPLOADS the incident into Evidence.Com via Evidence Sync
   - CATEGORISES the uploaded data including the TOR and event details
   - SHARES the event in Evidence.com with their supervisor.
8. REVIEW the TASER footage and TOR, determining whether the use of the TASER was in accordance with these instructions noting on the TOR form a summary of the outcome of the review.

Question 31

When notified of an operational SHOW of the TASER the SUPERVISOR should follow these steps…

Answer 31

1.Ensure the OPERATOR or individuals involved SUBMITS a TOR
2.Ensure the OPERATOR COMPLETES the details of all instances of arcing in the TASER REGISTER.
3.Ensure the operator(s) involved:
-UPLOADS the incident into Evidence.Com via Evidence Sync
-CATEGORISE the uploaded data including the TOR and event details
-SHARE the event in Evidence.com with their supervisor.
4.DEBRIEF the officer involved on the incident and REVIEW the TASER footage along with the TOR.
Determine whether the show of the TASER was in accordance with these instructions, noting on the TOR form a summary of the outcome of the review.

Question 32

An unintentional discharge may occur as a result of OPERATOR ERROR or MECHANICAL FAULT…

Answer 32

OPERATOR ERROR for example, a failure to follow procedure by ensuring a TASER is in the unload state before conducting a pre-op check, leading to an unintentional discharge
MECHANICAL FAULT a fault with the device leads to a discharge

Question 33

In the event of an U.D (other than in training), the OPERATOR involved in the discharge MUST NOTIFY theIE SUPERVISOR ASAP. The supervisor will then…

Answer 33

1.PRESERVE AND PHOTOGRAPH THE SCENE where it is believed this may be necessary or relevant for subsequent enquiries.
2.Immediately WITHDRAW the TASER FROM SERVICE and CONSULT WITH the Police national Armoury as to whether or not the particular TASER and associated evidence is forwarded to them for examination and a report.
3.Ensure that ALL EVIDENCE, including the subject TASER, discharged cartridges, wires, probes and sufficient (4-5) cartridge identification tags (CIT), ARE RECOVERED from the scene and secured.
4.Instigate a REVIEW of the FACTS surrounding the INCIDENT.
Note: The scope and scale of the review will depend largely on the nature of the discharge and whether there was any injury or potential for injury.
5.Ensure the OPERATOR(s) involved SUBMITS A TOR for U.D
6.Ensure the OPERATOR(s) involved UPLOADS the incident into Evidence.Com via Evidence Sync and CATEGORISES the uploaded data including the TOR and event details.
7.Ensure the OPERATOR COMPLETES the details of the discharge in the TASER REGISTER.
8.Notify the District Police Professional Conduct Manager - IPCA

Question 34

S.4(1) A coroner’s ROLE in relation to a death is too?

Answer 34

• receive a REPORT of the death FROM the POLICE
• decide whether to direct a POST MORTEM and, if one is directed, whether to authorise certain people (other than the pathologist) to attend
• authorise the RELEASE OF BODY
• decide whether to OPEN an INQUIRY, and if one is to be conducted, whether an INQUEST should be held

Question 35

S.4(2) The purpose of a coroner’s INQUIRY is too?

Answer 35

ESTABLISH:

• that a person has DIED
• the person’s IDENTITY
• WHEN and WHERE the person DIED
• C.O.D
• the CIRCUMSTANCES of the death.
• make specified RECOMMENDATIONS or comments under the Act
• determine whether the PUBLIC INTEREST would be served by the death being investigated by other investigating authorities

Question 36

S.13, Coroners Act 2006 - These deaths must be reported to Police and in turn by Police to a coroner, if they occur IN NZ or ON SPECIFIED (NZ) - S.C.U.M.B.I

Answer 36

• a death that appears to have been without known cause, or SUICIDE, or unnatural or violent
• a death for which no doctor has given a doctor’s CERTIFICATE (defined in s2(1) Burial and Cremation Act 1964)
• a death that occurred UNDER-GOING medical, surgical or dental treatment
• MATERNITY any death while the woman concerned was giving birth, or that appears to have been a result of that woman being pregnant or giving birth
• INSTITUTIONS a death in official custody or care

Question 37

S.C.U.M.B.I requirements apply to deaths on or from?

Answer 37

• an AIRCRAFT REGISTERED in NZ under the Civil Aviation Act 1990, or
• a NZ SHIP (s 2(1) Maritime Transport Act 1994), or
• an AIRCRAFT or SHIP of the ARMED FORCES (as defined in s2(1) Armed Forces Discipline Act 1971).

Question 38

A person who FINDS A BODY in NZ must report that finding to Police ASAP unless they believe the death:

Answer 38

• is ALREADY KNOWN to Police, or
• WILL BE REPORTED to Police
• Any person may report to Police the death OUTSIDE of NZ of a person whose body is IN NZ

Question 39

INITIAL PROCEDURE when attending a sudden death -

Answer 39

1.Ensure SAFETY to the public, responding staff, emergency services and contractors.
2.Use PPE and refer to ‘hygiene precautions when handling bodies’ in this chapter and the ‘Hazardous substances management’ chapter. If you need additional equipment, i.e. gowns, obtain before attending to the deceased and scene.
3.Check for SIGNS OF LIFE and depending on the circumstances consider whether to attempt resuscitation. If alive, give emergency medical assistance and call an ambulance. If it is clear that medical treatment or RESUSCITATION is not feasible or appropriate, CALL a DULY QUALIFIED PERSON to complete verification of death.
Note: Only a duly qualified person can verify that a person is deceased.
4.Inform your supervisor at the earliest opportunity, that you are attending a sudden death.
5.If the death appears SUSPICIOUS, contact the duty/on CALL CIB member and your SUPERVISOR.
Freeze, guard and preserve the scene until CIB arrive. In other circumstances, start an investigation into the cause of death.
6.A duly qualified person completes a VOD declaration of a Sudden death or provide an equivalent according to the wording.
A duly qualified person should verify that life is extinct recorded on a VOD form before the body is moved. When this is not possible, Police must maintain control of the body until this VOD is obtained.
7.When the deceased has been UNDER TREATMENT for an illness that has caused the death, the doctor who was attending the deceased before the death will generally issue a Medical Certificate of COD (HP4720).
Note: If the death must be reported to the coroner, the doctor can only give a doctor’s certificate for the death if the coroner has decided not to open an inquiry into the death.
8.If the doctor issues a HP4720, the coroner does not have to be advised of the death. Instead you must advise immediate family and, if necessary, ensure the deceased’s property is secure. If attending Police still have concerns, contact the coroner to discuss.
9.Determine if the death is one that must be reported to the coroner and if so, immediately notify the duty coroner on 0800 266 800. (See Reporting the death to the coroner below).
As a general guide, do not move the body before notifying the coroner.

Question 40

The following people are duly qualified to VERIFY death and can SIGN A VOD that a person is deceased:

Answer 40

• Registered Medical Practitioner
• Nurse (Practitioner, Registered, or Enrolled)
• Registered Midwife
• Intensive Care Paramedic
• Paramedic
• Emergency Medical Technician

Question 41

Procedure when EXAMINING THE BODY AND SCENE

Answer 41

IMPORTANT: Always PRESERVE evidence until the COD has been established.
Follow these steps when examining the body and scene:
1.Consider factors that may cause you to suspect a criminal act. IF the death is SUSPICIOUS, VIOLENT or CRIMINAL or if you have any DOUBT about the cause of death, notify CIB and take appropriate action to SECURE THE SCENE. (See Part 1- Initial response to homicide or serious crime in the Homicide and Serious Crime Investigations chapters).
Note: Homicide investigations must be reported by the O/C case to the National Manager: Criminal Investigations, via the District Manager, Criminal Investigations.
2.NOTE the POSITION of the body. PHOTOGRAPH the body - this is useful information for a coroner.
3.NOTE all FACTORS that may EXPLAIN the DEATH, e.g. the body’s CONDITION, medicine bottles and ITEMS IN the IMMEDIATE VICINITY of the body. Ensure you SEIZE all medicines as some mask the presence of others. (See Exhibits and property in this chapter).
4.Obtain full particulars from WITNESSES, exploring any likelihood of ANYONE ELSE BEING INVOLVED either maliciously or innocently
5.If the death is NOT suspicious, obtain statements ASAP (notebook statements are NOT acceptable). Early statements may negate the need to re-interview later, and will provide the basis for evidence produced at a coroner’s inquest

Question 42

Some FACTORS that may indicate a CRIMINAL ACT are:

Answer 42

• a death with NO APPARENT CAUSE
• POISONING, but NO known MOTIVE for suicide
• a body in a BURNED BUILDING
• SIGNS OF INJURY INCONSISTENT with an accident
• an apparent SUICIDE in an UNUSUAL POSITION position.

Question 43

FIREARMS SAFETY - Before moving or touching a firearm, assess whether you are…

Answer 43

If you are NOT qualified
-Secure the firearm and seek assistance.
If you ARE qualified
-Assume the firearm is LOADED.
-With your FINGER OFF THE TRIGGER, uplift the firearm and ensure it is always pointed in a SAFE DIRECTION
-EMPTY the magazine and action to make the firearm safe.
-LABEL the firearm, ammunition and other exhibits.
-SECURE the firearm and EXHIBIT in an appropriate exhibit store.

Question 44

Removing and securing the body. CUSTODY of the body

Answer 44

When a death is one that Police must report to the coroner under section 13 , the CORONER THEN HAS EXCLUSIVE RIGHT to custody of the body.

Question 45

S.20 - Coroners Act 2006, REMOVING the body

Answer 45

For the purpose of a POST MORTEM of a body directed under the Coroners Act, a CORONER may GIVE any DIRECTIONS they think fit about removal of the body (e.g. directions about removal to a mortuary).

NOTE: that a body must not be taken from the place of death to a mortuary via a funeral home unless such a direction has been given by a coroner under section 20.

Question 46

NO suspicious circumstances about a death…

Answer 46

If the person has died and there are NO SUSPICIOUS CIRCUMSTANCES the immediate FAMILY CAN make arrangements for the body to be REMOVE from the place of death to their preferred funeral home provided:

• the deceased’s doctor is located and a certificate as to COD IS ISSUED, and
• it is NOT A CORONERS MATTER
• If the deceased’s DOCTOR CANNOT BE LOCATED or contacted, DO NOT leave the body with the immediate family on the expectation that the doctor, when located, will issue a certificate as to the COD. Consult the coroner immediately as to the appropriate course of action.

Question 47

If the immediate family DOES NOT allow you to remove the body or allow you to seize evidence relevant to the death, you have a power to:

Answer 47

• REMOVE the body (with warrant), and
• SEIZE evidence (without warrant).

NOTE: You must CONSULT WITH DUTY CORONER AND USE ALL OTHER MEANS OF NEGOTIATION BEFORE INVOKING POWERS e.g. call Maori Pacific Ethnic Service Officer MPES or Victim Support to help work through the issues and requirements with the immediate family. The warrant must be executed in a sensitive manner.

Question 48

S.128 - You can apply to a District Court judge for a warrant to remove a body from a specified place if:

Answer 48

• a coroner has given DIRECTIONS about the REMOVAL of the body under section 20, and
• you have RGTB the body is BEING HELD in that place contrary to the directions, and
• you have USED NEGOTIATION and all other reasonable means to have the body released in accordance with the directions.

Question 49

Warrantless power to SEIZE evidence relevant to a post-mortem
You can, WITHOUT WARRANT seize evidence using reasonable force if necessary, if you are:

Answer 49

• complying WITH A DIRECTION to remove a body UNDER S.20, or
• executing a WARRANT FOR the REMOVAL of a body under S.128.

The evidence must be:

• ON or IN the immediate VICINITY of the body and relevant to the post-mortem of the body
• DELIVERED to the coroner.

Question 50

S.131 - what should you do when seizing property?

Answer 50

You must take all reasonable steps, WITHIN 5 working days of the seizure, to INFORM either the owner or occupier of the place from which the body was removed, or the person from whose POSSESSION or CONTROL the thing was seized, of the fact that the thing WAS SEIZED and FROM WHERE it was seized. This may be done IN PERSON or by WRITTEN NOTICE.

Question 51

Police responsibility to inform immediate family of death

Answer 51

If a death is subject to the Coroners Act 2006 and must be reported, Police assist the coroner by informing immediate family as soon as possible of that death.
If the deceased is a foreign national refer to Death of foreign nationals in New Zealand section.
When reporting to the coroner is not required, Police must inform the deceased’s immediate family as soon as the deceased’s identity is confirmed.
In the case of estrangement within the immediate family, Police should consider informing all parties and not rely on family members to inform other immediate family of the deceased.