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Fire Alarm Systems > F/A 9-12 > Flashcards

F/A 9-12 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three sides of the fire triangle?

A

Oxygen, Fuel, and Ignition Source.

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2
Q

What are the three products of combustion?

A

Heat, Radiant Energy, and Smoke.

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3
Q

Smoke particles are typically within ____ to _____ microns in size.

A

.01 to 5,000

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4
Q

A condition where a burning fuel produces smoke without flames (smoldering) is known as ____.

A

Pyrolysis

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5
Q

What kind of detector is most appropriate for an elevator lobby in an apartment building?

A

A spot-type smoke detector.

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6
Q

What kind of detector is most appropriate for an unenclosed, unheated parking garage?

A

A heat detector.

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7
Q

What is it called when smoke reaches the same temperature as the air in the ceiling and no longer rises, but spreads out?

A

Stratification

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8
Q

The most appropriate type of detection for a computer room is_____.

A

Air-sampling smoke detector.

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9
Q

Temperatures lower than ____ and higher than ____ are not suitable for smoke detectors.

A

32 and 100 degrees Fahrenheit

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10
Q

T/F: Smoke detectors are suitable to be used in pool rooms.

A

False, the corrosive nature of chlorine can cause nuisance alarms and premature failure of devices.

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11
Q

Concealed duct smoke detectors mounted more than ____ above the floor must be provided with a remote indicator.

A

10’

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12
Q

Which of the following is likely to create nuisance alarms for smoke detectors?

a. ) Cigar smoke
b. ) Diesel exhaust
c. ) Humidity in excess of 93%
d. ) All of the above

A

d.) all of the above

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13
Q

What types of locations are radiant energy sensing fire detectors used in?

A

Very flammable locations. Woodworking shops, grain-elevator areas, paint spraying areas, etc.

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14
Q

What kind of detector is most appropriate for an atrium?

A

A projected-beam type smoke detector.

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15
Q

The three signals that air-sampling smoke detectors put out are?

A

Alert, take action, and alarm.

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16
Q

Where area-specific smoke detectors are used for door releasing magnets, they must be mounted ____.

A

Both sides of the door.

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17
Q

Which of the following is an example of a smoke control function?

a. Door unlocking
b. Elevator recall
c. Elevator shunt trip
d. Stair pressurization

A

d.) Stair pressurization

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18
Q

Duct smokes are required when minimum air flow exceeds ____

A

2,000 cfm

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19
Q

Before testing a protected premises system connected to a master box, what operation must be accomplished?

A

The box must be “plugged out” to avoid an accidental alarm.

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20
Q

Central station service is provided only by a contract between the ____ and the subscriber.

A

Prime Contractor.

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21
Q

For central station service, the prime contractor indicates compliance by ____ the system.

A

Certificating or Placarding

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22
Q

T/F: Underwriters Laboratories inspects every certified system.

A

False.

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23
Q

Central station operators must re-transmit an alarm signal to the public fire dispatcher within ____.

A

90 Seconds

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24
Q

Which of the following property types would be permitted to be monitored by a proprietary supervising station?

a. ) Chain of hardware stores under one ownership
b. ) College campus under one ownership
c. ) Large manufacturing corporation with multiple plants across the country
d. ) All of the above

A

d.) all of the above.

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25
Q

The secondary power supply for a proprietary supervising station must have a minimum capacity of ____.

A

26 hours.

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26
Q

Proprietary supervising stations must retain records for not less than ____.

A

1 year.

27
Q

What city had the first operational public emergency alarm reporting system in 1852.

A

Boston

28
Q

The primary purpose of dwelling fire warning equipment is ___.

A

Life Safety

29
Q

Single-station smoke alarms for dwelling use became available in the ____.

A

1970’s

30
Q

Heat alarms or detectors installed on ceilings that consist of beams or joists must be installed ____.

A

On the bottoms of the beams or joists.

31
Q

Areas of a dwelling over ____ square feet require additional smoke alarms or detectors.

A

1000.

32
Q

What kind of device, when actuated and interconnected to another similar device, will cause the other device to actuate?

A

Multiple-Station alarms.

33
Q

T/F: Single-station and multiple-station smoke alarms can be used in an office building to provide occupant warning.

A

False, they are only listed for household use.

34
Q

Smoke alarms for DWELLINGS can be installed in ambient temperatures between ____ and ____.

A

40 - 100 degrees Fahrenheit

35
Q

The most appropriate type of detection in dwelling garages, unfinished attics, or crawl spaces is ____

A

Heat detection.

36
Q

Wall-mounted heats should be installed so that the top of the detector is between ____ and ____ from the ceiling.

A

4” - 12”

37
Q

What is the maximum number of unmonitored smoke alarms that can be interconnected?

A

12

38
Q

Smoke alarms or detectors on peaked ceilings must be within ____ of the peak.

A

3’

39
Q

Heat detectors and alarms mounted on a ceiling must be mounted at least ____ from a wall

A

4”

40
Q

For the purpose of life safety, detection in dwellings is required to be ____ detection

A

Smoke

41
Q

The fire alarm signal in a dwelling sleeping room must be not less than ____ at the pillow.

A

75 Dba

42
Q

DWELLING heat detectors must be selected to operate at a temperature not less than ____ above the maximum expected ambient temperature in the protected space.

A

25 Degrees Fahrenheit

43
Q

Smoke alarms/detectors within ____ of ranges/stovetops must be of the photoelectric type or have a silence feature.

A

20’

44
Q

A primary power source for smoke detector equipment in dwellings may consist of?

a. a non-rechargeable battery
b. a rechargeable battery
c. commercial light and power
d. any of the above

A

d.) any of the above

45
Q

Who is responsible to ensure that the fire alarm system is tested properly?

A

The owner

46
Q

What are the three types of fire alarm tests?

A

Acceptance, Re-acceptance, and Periodic

47
Q

When testing audible and visible notification appliances, they should be actuated for how long?

A

Only long enough to test them.

48
Q

At the time of system completion, a ___% test is required.

A

100%

49
Q

How often must control equipment be tested?

A

Once a year.

50
Q

How often should non-restorable, fixed temperature heat detectors be tested?

A

Every 15 years.

51
Q

Wet sprinkler system flow switches are tested how?

A

By opening the inspector’s test valve.

52
Q

Fire alarm equipment must be maintained according to ____

A

The manufacturer’s published instructions.

53
Q

The site-specific software must be provided to ___ at completion of the system.

A

The owner or their representative.

54
Q

Records of inspection and test must be retained by the service company ____.

A

Until the next test and one year after.

55
Q

The owner must retain the record of inspection and test for ___

A

The life of the system.

56
Q

In most cases, a short between conductors on an IDC will result in ____

A

An alarm signal.

57
Q

What can cause a ground fault?

A

Conduit burrs, Improper insulation types, wet conduit

58
Q

Improperly connected ground shields can result in ____

A

Erratic operation

59
Q

Removal of a device on an SLC circuit will give a ____ signal.

A

Trouble

60
Q

While always discouraged, the only type of circuits that T-tapping is allowed on is ____

A

Class B SLC

61
Q

Waterflow switches and valve supervisory switches should be tested ___ times a year.

A

2

62
Q

Manual fire alarm boxes (pull stations) should be tested once every _____.

A

Year

63
Q

Wall mounted horn strobes in sleeping rooms of dwellings must be ____ cd if mounted above 24” from the ceiling, if below 24” from the ceiling, the device is set at ____ cd.

A

177 cd, 110 cd

Fire Alarm Systems (3 decks)

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