Eyes Ears and Nose Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

Counseling point on time to effect for patients utilizing intranasal steroids?

A

Can take up to a week to get full relief

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2
Q

What is the adult dosing of 1st gen Benadryl?

A

25 mg PO Q4-6 H or 50 mg PO Q 6- 8H

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3
Q

What is the benadryl age cutoff for utilizing OTC?

A

Less than 6 years of age

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4
Q

What patient should use benadryl with caution?

A

CVD, Glaucoma, Prostate Enlargement

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5
Q

Most sedating 2nd generation antihistamines:

A

certirizine and levocertirzine

fastest onset as well

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6
Q

Least sedating second generation antihistamines:

A

fexofenadine and Loratadine

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7
Q

what is the age cut off for Pseudophedrine and phenylephrine?

A

< 2 years FDA
< 4 packages

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8
Q

If a patient utilizes afrin for more than 3 days what could happen?

A

Rebound congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa)

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9
Q

Expectorants are used when:

A

a productive cough is present. Helps thin mucus.

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10
Q

What is a well known expectorant that is used?

A

Guaifensin

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11
Q

When do you use cough suppressants?

A

when there is a non productive cough present

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12
Q

Names of cough suppressants

A

dextromethorphan, codeine, benzonatate, benadryl

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13
Q

1 drop is = to

A

0.05 mL

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14
Q

prostaglandin analogs MOA:

A

increase aqueous humor outflow

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15
Q

Lumigan

A

Bimatoprost

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16
Q

Latisse

A

Bimatoprost that is utilize only for eye lash growth

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17
Q

Which prostaglandins require refridgeration before use?

A
  • prost

latanoprost, latanoprostene (Vyzulta) , tafluprost (zioptan)

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18
Q

BB MOA in glaucoma

A

reduce aqueous humor production

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19
Q

Timolol + Dorzolamide brand name

A

Cosopt

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20
Q

When using BB eye gel how do you prepare it?

A

shake once, wait ten min after administering other eye drops before using gel

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21
Q

Which BB drop is selective?

A

Betazolol (Betoptic S)

less likely to cause pulmonary ADR in patients with pulm disposition

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22
Q

Cholinergics (Miotics) MOA in glaucoma

A

increase aqueous humor outflow

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23
Q

Carbachol (Miostat) and Pilocarpine (isopto carpine) have what SE?

A

Cholinergics cause vasoconstriction leading to poor vision at night

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24
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitor MOA (glaucoma)

A

reduce aqueous humor production

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25
Q

Dorzolamide

A

trupost

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26
Q

Dorzolamide and other - zamide ending Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors have what warning?

A

caution in sulfonamide allergies

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27
Q

Acetazolamide an oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is rarely used in glaucoma but rather in ____

A

the treatment and prevention of acute mountain sickness

28
Q

What is a good way to remember that CA inhibitors have a sulfonamide concern?

A

-zolamide= -sulfonAMIDE

29
Q

Adrenergic alpha 2 agonist MOA in glaucoma:

A

-nidine

increase aqueous humor outflow, reduce aqueous humor production

30
Q

What are the treatment options for bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

Pink eye

Moxifloxacin (vigamox)

Maxitrol (neomycin/polymyxin B/dexamethasone)

Polytrim (trimethoprim/polymyxin B)

ofloxacin ( ocuflox)

31
Q

What is commonly used for chronic dry eye

A

cyclosporine (restasis)

32
Q

What are two common drugs that cause retinal changes/retinopathy:

A

chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine

33
Q

What drugs give you BROWN skin colorations

A

entacapone
levodopa
methyldopa

34
Q

What drugs give you Brown/Black/Green skin colorations/ secretions

A

iron - black stool

methocarbamol

35
Q

What drugs give you BROWN/Yellow skin colorations / secretions

A

Nitrofurantoin

36
Q

What drugs give you Yellow/Green secretions/skin

A

propofol

37
Q

How long does it generally take for retinoid to work in acne?

A

4 to 12 weeks and may worsen acne initially

38
Q

What is winlevi?

A

Clacoterone is a topical androgen receptor inhibitor.

39
Q

Azelex / Finacea

A

Azelaic acid is a topical dicarboxylic acid cream or gel used for acne or rosacea

40
Q

What are the two most common topical retinoids?

A

Differin and tretinoin (atralin, renova, retin - A)

41
Q

Docosanol (abreva) application:

A

apply 5 times a day at the first sign of outbreak

42
Q

Tinea Pedis

A

Athletes foot

43
Q

Tinea Cruris

A

Jock itch

44
Q

Tinea Corporis

A

ringworm

45
Q

OTC fungal: Lamisil AT

A

Terbinafine

46
Q

OTC fungal: Lotrimin Ultran

A

Clotrimzaole

47
Q

OTC fungal: Lotrimin AF

A

miconazole

48
Q

OTC fungal: Tinactin

A

Tolnaftate

49
Q

OTC fungal: Toelieva

A

Undecylenic acid

50
Q

RX antifungal: Lotrisone

A

Betamethasone/Clotrimazole

51
Q

RX antifungal: Extina

A

Ketoconazole

52
Q

Treatment for onychomycosis:

A

Itraconazole and Terbinafine

53
Q

itraconazole BBW:

A

can exacerbate HF

54
Q

OTC to treat fungal vaginal infection: Gyne-Lotrimin

A

Clotrimazole

55
Q

OTC to treat fungal vaginal infection: Monistat - 3

A

Miconazole

56
Q

How do you identify pinworm?

A

anal itching in children that requires a “TAPE test”

identify eggs via sticking a piece of tape around the anus in the morning. It can take up to three attempts to identify

57
Q

RX treatment for Pinworm:

A

Albenza (albendazole)

Bebendazole (Emverm ) - hepatoxic

58
Q

What can also be given with with pinworm rx treatment?

A

due to the toxicity of treatment if treating a CNS infection steroids and AEDs should be utilized

59
Q

Ovide - Malathion in lice:

A

can irritate the skin and is flammable.

60
Q

Ivermectin oral is used to treat ___

A

Scabies while the topical is an OTC used for lice treatment

61
Q

Stromectol

A

oral ivermectin

62
Q

2 very high potency steroids:

A

Clobetasol Propionate 0.05%(clobex, temovate, olux)

Fluocinoninde 0.1% cream (Vanos)

63
Q

3 high potency steroids:

A

Betamethasone Dipropionate 0.05% cream

Fluocinonide 0.05% ointment

Mometasone Furoate 0.1% ointment

64
Q

High - Medium Potency steroid:

A

Fluocinonide 0.05% cream (Lidex-E)

65
Q

2 medium potency steroids:

A

Mometasone furoate 0.1% cream

Triamcinolone Acetonide 0.1% cream (kenalog)

66
Q

Lowest potency steroid:

A

Hydrocortisone 1%