Eye & Ear Flashcards

1
Q

Corne/o

A

cornea

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2
Q

Dacry/o

A

tears, tear duct

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3
Q

Ir/o

Irid/o

A

iris

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4
Q

Kerat/o

A

cornea

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5
Q

Lacrim/o

A

tears

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6
Q

Ocul/o
Ophthalm/o
Opt/o
Optic/o

A

eye

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7
Q

Palpebr/o

A

eyelid

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8
Q

Vitre/o

A

glassy

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9
Q

Ambly/o

A

dim, dull

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10
Q

Dipl/o

A

double

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11
Q

Mi/o

A

smaller, less

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12
Q

Mydr/o

A

widen, enlarge

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13
Q

Phot/o

A

light

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14
Q

Presby/o

A

old age

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15
Q

Scot/o

A

darkness

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16
Q

-opia

A

vision

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17
Q

-opsia

A

vision

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18
Q

-tropia

A

to turn

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19
Q

Accommodation

A

normal adjustment of the eye to focus from far to near

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20
Q

Ciliary body

A

structure surrounding the lens, contains muscles that control the shape of the lens and secretes aqueous humor

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21
Q

Cone

A

photoreceptor (color and central vision)

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22
Q

Rod

A

photoreceptor (vision in dim light and peripheral vision)

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23
Q

Macula

A

yellowish region on the retina, contains fovea centralis (area of clearest vision, composed largely of cones)

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24
Q

Light Path from Eye to Brain

A

Cornea (refraction) –> Anterior chamber & aqueous humor (refraction) –> Pupil –> Lens (refraction) –> Vitreous chamber and vitreous humor (refraction) –> Retina (rods/cones) –> Optic nerve fibers –> Optic chiasm –> Thalamus (relay center) –> Cerebral cortex (occipital lobe)

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25
Q

Inability of the eye to produce a focused image on the fovea or central part of the retina because the cornea is steeper in one meridian more than the other or the globe is not round. Visual blurriness occurs.

A

Astigmatism

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26
Q

Inflammation of the eyelid causing scaling, crusting, flaking, and erythema of lid margins. Treat with baby shampoo

A

Blepharitis

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27
Q

Blockage, inflammation, and infection of the nasolacrimal duct and lacrimal sac. Needs to be treated w/ oral antibiotics.

A

Dacryocystitis

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28
Q

Outward sagging and eversion of the eyelid leading to improper lacrimation causing corneal dryness and ulceration

A

Ectropion

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29
Q

Inversion of the eyelid, eyelashes rub against the eye. Can cause a corneal abrasion.

A

Entropion

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30
Q

Farsightedness. Short eyeball or refractive power of lens is too weak; light focuses behind the retina.

A

Hyperopia (Hypermetropia)

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31
Q

Nearsightedness. Eyeball is too long, or the refractive power of the lens is so strong that light rays focus in front of the retina.

A

Myopia

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32
Q

Impairment of vision as a result of age. The focusing power of the eye which depends upon the inherent elasticity of the lens is gradually lost as people age. People usually notice this condition around age 45 when they realize that they need to hold reading materials further away in order to focus on them. Natural part of the aging process that affects everybody.

A

Presbyopia

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33
Q

An opacity of the lens, usually bilateral. The most common cause of curable blindness worldwide. Symptoms include frequent change of eyeglasses, visual loss, painless blurred vision, glare, myopia, lens opacity.

A

Cataracts

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34
Q

An opaque central area of the lens.

A

Nuclear cataract

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35
Q

An opaque posterior part of the lens.

A

Subcapsular cataract

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36
Q

Most common type of cataract

A

Senile cataract

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37
Q

Generally painless, slowly enlarging nodule on the eyelid formed by inflammation of sebaceous glands

A

Chalazion

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38
Q

Chalazion formed from inflammation of the meibomian sebaceous glands

A

Deep chalazion

39
Q

Chalazion formed from inflammation of the zeis sebaceous glands

A

Superficial chalazion

40
Q

Pathological changes of the retina caused by systemic disease. Weakening or leaking of retinal vessels ultimately causing microaneurysms, neovascularization, hemorrhage, retinal deposits & edema. Can be managed by laser photocoagulation and vitrectomy.

A

Diabetic retinopathy

41
Q

Increased intraocular pressure causing optic nerve damage, leading to impaired vision that progresses to complete blindness

A

Glaucoma

42
Q

Restricted passage of aqueous humor outflow from the posterior chamber to the anterior chamber causing forward displacement of the iris. This is an emergency, if untreated results in severe and permanent visual loss in 2-5 days.

A

Primary angle-closure glaucoma

43
Q

The most common type of glaucoma (90%); a progressive increase of intraocular pressure resulting in optic atrophy with loss of vision varying from slight loss of peripheral vision to complete blindness

A

Open-angle glaucoma

44
Q

A localized infection or inflammation of the eyelid margin involving hair follicles of the eyelashes (external ____) or meibomian glands (internal ___). Often staphylococcal.

A

Hordeolum (stye)

45
Q

Drooping of upper lid margin that can be a result from neuromuscular problems or trauma

A

Ptosis

46
Q

Fluid accumulates between the choroid and the retina separating the pigmented and sensory portions of the retina. Superior temporal area is the most common site of detachment. May be trauma related or spontaneous, most commonly in persons >50 yo. Signs/symptoms: curtain down over eye, blurred vision, flashes (photopsia) and floaters (entopsia). Requires immediate ophthalmologic referral.

A

Retinal detachment

47
Q

Leading cause of irreversible, severe visual loss in persons over 65 yo; loss of central vision.

A

Macular degeneration

48
Q

Atrophy and regression of retinal cells w/ clumping of extracellular debri (drusen)

A

Dry macular degeneration

49
Q

Development of new blood vessels close to the macula

A

Wet macular degeneration

50
Q

Repetitive rhythmic movements of one or both eyes. May be vertical or horizontal. Causes include brain tumors or inner ear problems. Normal in newborns.

A

Nystagmus

51
Q

Abnormal deviation of the eye due to muscle weakness. Also known as a squint. Managed w/ corrective lenses, occlusion of the good eye to develop macular vision in the affected eye, and early surgery (2-24 months) for function cure. Deviations inward, outward, upward and downward have specific names: list them!

A

Strabismus (esotropia, exotropia, hypertropia, hypotropia)

52
Q

Raised yellowish plaque on the eyelid caused by a lipid disorder

A

Xanthelasma

53
Q

Eye test that uses an orange-colored fluorescent dye & a special camera to take pictures and analyze the blood circulation in the retina and choroid.

A

Fluorescein angiography

54
Q

Examination of the back part of the eyeball (fundus), which includes the retina, optic disc, choroid, and blood vessels.

A

Ophthalmoscopy

55
Q

A microscope w/ a light attached that allows the doctor to examine the eye under high magnification. Primarily used to view the anterior structures of the eye such as the cornea, iris and lens however w/ special lenses it is possible to examine the vitreous and the back of the eye.

A

Slit lamp microscopy

56
Q

Testing of the clarity/clearness of one’s vision. A measure of how well a person sees.

A

Visual acuity test (aka Snellen acuity)

57
Q

Test measuring the entire area of vision that one sees out of each eye, including the corners (peripheral vision)

A

Visual field test

58
Q

More precise visual field testing in which a person stares at the center of a black screen and registers their recognition of lights in the periphery.

A

Tangent screen or Goldmann perimeter

59
Q

Surgical removal of the eyeball from its orbit, used to treat tumors or if the eye has become blind and painful as a result from disease or trauma.

A

Enucleation

60
Q

Surgical repair of the cornea

A

Keratoplasty

61
Q

Corneal transplant

A

Penetrating keratoplasty

62
Q

Technique employed by retinal surgeons to treat a number of conditions including wet macular degeneration. Light rays cauterize vessels preventing further leakage. Does NOT restore lost vision so early treatment is necessary.

A

Laser photocoagulation

63
Q

Permanent reshaping of the cornea, A microkeratome (knife) is used to cut a flap in the cornea, a computer controlled laser vaporizes a portion of the stroma, and the flap is replaced.

A

LASIK (Laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis)

64
Q

Surgical treatment for cataracts in which a small incision is made in the eye and localized high frequency waves are generated to break up the cataract into minute fragments which are then sucked out. A thin capsule or shell is left behind after cleaning up the opaque area.

A

Phacoemulsification

65
Q

The most common technique used for treating retinal detachments in adults. A band of silicone rubber is sewn onto the outside of the eye, indenting the wall of the eye.

A

Scleral buckle

66
Q

Surgical removal of the vitreous. Used to clear blood/debris from the eye, to remove scar tissue, or to alleviate traction on the retina. After the procedure the vitreous is replaced as the eye secretes aqueous & nutritive fluids.

A

Vitrectomy

67
Q

Acous/o

A

hearing

68
Q

Aur/o

Auricul/o

A

ear

69
Q

Myring/o

A

eardrum, tympanic membrane

70
Q

Ot/o

A

ear

71
Q

Salping/o

A

eustachian tube

72
Q

Tympan/o

A

eardrum, tympanic membrane

73
Q
  • acusis

- cusis

A

hearing

74
Q

-otia

A

ear condition

75
Q

Abnormally large ears

A

Macrotia

76
Q

Pathway of sound from ear to brain

A

Pinna –> External auditory canal –> Tympanic membrane –> Malleus –> Incus –> Stapes –> Oval window –> Cochlea –> Auditory liquids & receptors in the organ of Corti –> Auditory nerve fibers –> Cerebral cortex

77
Q

A tumor arising from Schwann cells of the 8th cranial nerve. Symptoms include unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus & vertigo. Treatment is surgery or ablation.

A

Acoustic neuroma

78
Q

Collection of skin cells and cholesterol within the middle ear from chronic otitis media. Often perforations of the tympanic membrane are visible.

A

Cholesteatoma

79
Q

Nerve deafness from impairment of the cochlea or auditory nerve.

A

Sensorineural deafness

80
Q

Impairment of the middle ear ossicles and membranes responsible for transmitting sounds.

A

Conductive deafness

81
Q

Inner ear disorder in which there is an increase in volume and pressure of the inner-most fluid of the inner ear resulting in recurrent attacks of hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo and fullness. Usually unilateral.

A

Meniere disease

82
Q

Inflammation of the middle ear. Signs/symptoms include ear pain, hearing impairment, fever, erythema of the tympanic membrane, decreased movement on pneumatic otoscopy, bulging tympanic membrane, rupture of the TM. Treated w/ antibiotics.

A

Otitis media

83
Q

Primary bone dyscrasia involving the otic capsule. The leading cause of conductive hearing loss in adults. Hardening of the bony tissue of the labyrinth of the ear.

A

Otosclerosis

84
Q

Common condition typified by the perception of sound in the absence of an acoustic stimulus. Sound may be a buzzing, ringing, roaring, whistling, or hissing. Caused by damage to the inner ear or cochlea, middle ear infection, aneurysms, hardening of the arteries, medications, or unknown.

A

Tinnitus

85
Q

Dizziness w/ the sensation of spinning, different than lightheadedness. Two categories based on cause.

A

Vertigo

86
Q

Vertigo caused by a CNS lesion; drug toxicity, cerebellar stroke, brainstem stroke or ischemia.

A

Central vertigo

87
Q

Vertigo caused by inner ear lesion; Meniere’s disease, viral and bacterial labyrinthitis, benign paroxysmal postural vertigo, acoustic neuroma.

A

Peripheral vertigo

88
Q

Testing of a person’s ability to hear various sound frequencies.

A

Audiometry (administered by audiologist using audiometer)

89
Q

A small, complex electronic device surgically placed under the skin behind the ear that can help to provide a sense of sound to a person who is profoundly deaf or severely hard of hearing.

A

Cochlear implant

90
Q

The TM shares the same vascular supply that perfuse the hypothalamus, thus it is an accurate measure of core temperature. This temp can be read using ______.

A

Tympanic thermometer (TMT)

91
Q

Examination of the ear canal, performed by gently pulling the auricle upward and backward (in children downward and backward) to line the acoustic meatus up with the canal.

A

Otoscopy/Otoscopic exam (instrument = otoscope)

92
Q

Tuning fork placed at the midline forehead. Normally sound radiates to both ears equally. Sound lateralizing to one ear is abnormal signifying ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or contralateral sensorineural hearing loss.

A

Weber test

93
Q

Tuning fork held on mastoid while patient covers other ear, test repeated w/ fork held in the air near ear. Normally air conduction is better than bone conduction (lasts ~2x longer), referred to as “positive test”. When bone conduction is better than air conduction you have a “negative test” which suggests conductive hearing loss.

A

Rinne test