Eye and Ear Meds Flashcards
Ophthalmic anti-infectives including antibiotic and antiviral preparations are effective through which action?
A. Penetration of the ocular fluid and tissues
B. Systemic absorption
C. Metabolism by the liver
D. Excretion by the urinary system
A. Ophthalmic antibiotic and antiviral preparations generally penetrate only the ocular fluid and tissues.
Ocular antihistamines are selective for which receptor?
A. H1 histamine receptor
B. H2 histamine receptor
C. H3 histamine receptor
D. H4 histamine receptor
A. Ocular antihistamines are selective for the H1 histamine receptor. They block the H1 histamine receptors and inhibit histamine-stimulated vascular permeability in the conjunctiva.
Which organism most commonly causes ophthalmia neonatorum?
A. Staphylococcal
B. Streptococcal
C. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
D. Chlamydial
D. Ophthalmia neonatorum is defined as conjunctivitis occurring within the first 4 weeks of life. Infection is usually transmitted during passage through the birth canal, although ascending infection can occur. Chlamydia is the most common organism to cause ophthalmia neonatorum.
First-line treatment for uncomplicated conjunctivitis includes which agent?
A. Erythromycin ointment
B. Ganciclovir drops
C. Gentamicin ointment
D. Tobramycin drops
A. Uncomplicated conjunctivitis may be treated with erythromycin ointment, trimethoprim/polymyxin B (Polytrim), bacitracin/polymyxin B (Polysporin), or fluoroquinolone drops.
Which anti-infective agent can be prescribed to infants and children of all ages?
A. Polymyxin B
B. Erythromycin
C. Moxifloxacin
D. Azithromycin
B. Erythromycin and tobramycin are safe and effective in children.
Fluoroquinolone eye preparations (ciprofloxacin) are effective against which organism?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Moraxella
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. The fluoroquinolones are active against staphylococci, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, K. pneumoniae, Proteus species, Enterobacter species, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
When treating blepharitis with erythromycin ophthalmic ointment, the APN would include which information in patient instructions?
A. Apply the ointment twice a day until symptoms clear and then for an additional 10 days.
B. Apply the ointment twice a day until symptoms clear.
C. Apply the ointment twice a day until symptoms clear and then for an additional 7 days.
D. Apply the ointment twice a day until symptoms clear and then for an additional 3 days.
C. Blepharitis is an acute or chronic inflammation of the eyelash follicles and meibomian glands of the eyelids. Treatment consists of applying erythromycin ophthalmic ointment (0.25-in. ribbon to each eye twice a day) until the symptoms clear and then for an additional 7 days.
Which ophthalmic preparation may cause a rare adverse reaction called Stevens–Johnson syndrome?
A. Bacitracin
B. Sulfacetamide
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Fluoroquinolones
B. Sulfacetamide ophthalmic preparations may cause a hypersensitivity reaction in patients who have previously exhibited sensitivity to sulfonamides. Stevens–Johnson syndrome is a rare adverse reaction that has been reported with sulfacetamide ophthalmic ointment use.
Which agent can be prescribed only by specialists due to concerns regarding systemic absorption and complications of chronic conditions?
A. Ophthalmic antiglaucoma agents
B. Ophthalmic anti-infective agents
C. Ophthalmic antiviral agents
D. Ophthalmic anti-inflammatory agents
A. Ophthalmic antiglaucoma medications are absorbed, and systemic levels are reached in sufficient amounts to cause complications of chronic conditions.
Polysporin Ophthalmic contains which antibiotics?
A. Polymyxin B and trimethoprim
B. Polymyxin B and gentamicin
C. Polymyxin B and bacitracin
D. Trimethoprim and bacitracin
C. Polysporin Ophthalmic contains polymyxin B and bacitracin.
Beta blocker ophthalmic medications are contraindicated in patients with which chronic disease?
A. Epilepsy
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. HIV
B. The beta blocker ophthalmic medications are contraindicated in patients with asthma, a history of asthma, COPD, or other pulmonary disease.
Otitis externa (OE) is an acute painful condition of the external auditory canal. It is also referred to as which of the following?
A. Otomycosis
B. Tinnitus
C. Swimmer’s ear
D. Cerumen
C. OE is an acute, painful inflammatory condition of the external auditory canal, commonly known as swimmer’s ear.
Sulfacetamide is a synthetic sulfonamide eye drop that inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate synthetase. It is active against which susceptible organism?
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Moraxella species
B. Sulfacetamide is a synthetic sulfonamide that inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate synthetase. It is active against the following susceptible organisms: streptococci, staphylococci, Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Pseudomonas pyocyanea, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and C. trachomatis.
Which medication is used for the treatment of simple viral conjunctivitis caused by adenovirus?
A. Azithromycin 1% solution
B. Polytrim ointment
C. Sulfacetamide 10% solution
D. Erythromycin ointment 0.5%
C. Viral conjunctivitis is usually caused by an adenovirus, herpes simplex virus (HSV), or herpes zoster. Simple viral conjunctivitis caused by adenovirus is treated with sulfacetamide 10% solution or ointment.
Which ophthalmic preparation is incompatible with products containing silver salts, including silver nitrate?
A. Sulfacetamide
B. Erythromycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Polymyxin B
A. Sulfacetamide is incompatible with silver-containing preparations and should not be used in conjunction with ophthalmic products containing silver salts, including silver nitrate.
