Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common mechanism of antibiotic resistance in penicillin?

A

Beta-lactamases produced by bacteria, such as Staphylococcus aureus. These enzymes degrade the beta-lactam ring of penicillin, rendering them ineffective.

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2
Q

Which antibiotic is the standard therapy for primary, secondary, or early latent syphilis?

A

A single dose of benzathine penicillin G

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3
Q

Which form of penicillin is orally administered and more stable in acidic conditions?

A

Penicillin V. It is typically used for minor infections due to its poor bioavailability, narrow spectrum, and requirement of multiple daily dosing.

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4
Q

What is the degree of cross-reactivity between penicillin and cephalosporins in patients with a penicillin allergy?

A

10%

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5
Q

Which test is positive when autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs as an adverse effect of penicillin administration?

A

Direct Coombs Test. When autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs due to antibodies binding to the surface of red blood cells as an adverse effect of penicillin administration, the direct Coombs test would be positive.

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6
Q

What best describes the mechanism of bacterial resistance against penicillinase-resistant penicillins acquired by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

A

MRSA contains altered penicillin binding proteins, which prevents drug binding and renders these drugs ineffective.

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7
Q

What feature is taken by anti-staphylococcal penicillins (i.e. nefcillin) to evade beta-lactamase?

A

Bulky R-groups that prevent beta-lactamase from binding to their molecule, thus allowing them to evade the antibiotic-degrading actions of beta-lactamase.

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8
Q

For which of the following bacterial infections is empiric treatment with nafcillin, oxacillin, or dicloxacillin most appropriate?

A

Mild to moderate localized staph skin and soft tissue infections.

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9
Q

When compared to other penicillins, piperacillin and ticarcillin have important additional indications due to activity against which of the following bacteria?

A

Pseudomonas is a gram-negative aerobic bacteria that can cause a wide variety of serious infections, including pneumonia, urinary tract infection, and otitis externa. Piperacillin and ticarcillin are extended-spectrum penicillins, which unlike other penicillins, can be used to treat Pseudomonas infections.

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10
Q

What is the mechanism by which Enterococcus may become resistant to ampicillin?

A

B-lactamase. Ampicillin-resistant strains of Enterococcus produce β-lactamase, which cleaves the β-lactam ring and prevents β-lactam antibiotics from blocking bacterial transpeptidase peptidoglycan cross-linking. Resistant Enterococcus infections may be treated with ampicillin plus sulbactam or with vancomycin.

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11
Q

What is the difference in oral bioavailability of amoxicillin and ampicillin?

A

Amoxicillin has better oral bioavailability. Ampicillin is IV.

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12
Q

What are the 4 most common adverse events for ampicillin and amoxicillin?

A

Steven Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, skin rash with viral illness, and drug-induced liver injury.

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13
Q

What is the benefit of pairing aminopenicillins with tazobactam or sulbactam?

A

Tazobactam and sulbactam inhibit bacterial β-lactamases. These drugs protect penicillin antibiotics from destruction by β-lactamases, enabling penicillin-based therapy for bacteria such as methicillin-sensitive Staph aureus.

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14
Q

Aztreonam is most effective in treating infections caused by which pathogens?

A

Aerobic gram-negative rods

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15
Q

List the top 3 side effects of imipenem

A
  1. skin rash
  2. GI - N,V,D
  3. Lowers seizure threshold
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16
Q

Does Vancomycin treat gram-neg or gram-pos bacteria?

A

Gram-positive

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17
Q

Which Abx should be paired with Vancomycin to treat bacterial meningitis (in otherwise healthy adult)?

A

Ceftriaxone. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in healthy adults aged 6-60 years old. Because of the increasing prevalence of penicillin resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae, vancomycin is used while awaiting culture and sensitivity testing. Vancomycin should be paired with a third generation cephalosporin such as ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or ceftazidime to cover common gram negative causes of bacterial meningitis.

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18
Q

Which pathogen would vancomycin NOT be effect against?
1. Enterococcus faecalis
2. MRSA
3. MSSA
4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A
  1. Pseudomonas because it is a gram-neg bacteria.
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19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vancomycin?

A

Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic which obstruct the synthesis of bacterial cell walls. Vancomycin binds to the cell wall precursors D-alanine-D-alanine. By binding to these oligopeptides, vancomycin inhibits the synthesis of peptidoglycan necessary to make up the cell wall.

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20
Q

Which medication is specifically used for uncomplicated UTIs in women?

A

Fosfomycin

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21
Q

A patient is referred for one of the following complaints, leading you to suspect recent fluoroquinolone usage. What is the referral for?
A. Hearing loss
B. Tendon rupture
C. Osteonecrosis
D. Oliguria

A

B. Tendon Rupture. One of the most significant potential adverse effects of fluoroquinolones is tendon rupture, particularly in elderly patients and those on glucocorticoids.

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22
Q

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?
A. They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis.
B. They disrupt bacterial protein synthesis.
C. They inhibit bacterial topoisomerases (DNA replication).
D. They inhibit bacterial folic acid synthesis.

A

C. Inhibit topoisomerases. Fluoroquinolones inhibit bacterial topoisomerases, such as DNA gyrase. This disrupts DNA replication and transcription and leads to the death of the bacteria. They do not affect protein or cell wall synthesis or folic acid metabolism.

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23
Q

In which of the following conditions are fluoroquinolones contraindicated?
A. Pregnancy
B. Diabetes
C. Hypertension
D. Asthma

A

A. Pregnancy. Fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in pregnancy because they can potentially cause harm to the fetus. They are also not usually recommended for use in children under the age of 10 due to the risk of damage to growing cartilage.

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24
Q

A patient being treated with fluoroquinolones for pneumonia is found to have an abnormal EKG. What is the most likely abnormality?
A. ST-segment elevation
B. Pathologic Q waves
C. Prolonged QT interval
D. Peaked T waves

A

C. Prolonged QT interval. Quinolones can prolong the QT interval by blocking certain cardiac potassium channels. It is especially important to consider this risk in patients who are taking other QT-prolonging medications.

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25
Q

Fluoroquinolones should be given a few hours before or after the ingestion of:
A. Meat
B. Fruit
C. Dairy
D. Vegetables

A

C. Dairy. The oral absorption of fluoroquinolones is affected by divalent and trivalent cations such as calcium, iron, and magnesium. For this reason, these medications should be taken a few hours before or after ingesting milk (dairy), antacids, or iron supplements.

26
Q

Macrolide antibiotics are most strongly associated with which of the following adverse effects?
A. Cholestatic liver injury
B. Paralytic ileus
C. Skin eruption with basophilia
D. Vitamin B6 deficiency

A

A. Liver injury. Macrolides can induce intrahepatic biliary duct injury, resulting in biliary obstruction and leading to acute cholestatic hepatitis, which can present with jaundice. Patients with acute cholestatic hepatitis have elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels, with variable elevations in aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Macrolides can also directly injure hepatocytes, which can compromise liver function and lead to fulminant acute liver failure.

27
Q

Which 2 macrolide Abx are used for pertussis?

A

Azithromycin or Clarithromycin.

28
Q

Which macrolide Abx is good for C. Diff because it is poorly absorbed and stays in the intestines?

A

Fidaxomicin.

29
Q

The first-line drug choice for a previously healthy adult patient diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia would be?

A

Azithromycin

30
Q

Bacteriostatic antibiotics are preferred in immunocompromised patients, True or False?

A

False

31
Q

Cephalexin (Keflex) is a ___-generation cephalosporin

A

1st generation

32
Q

Fluoroquinolones have a boxed warning regarding ________.

A

Tendon rupture

33
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is most often associated with the development of clostridium difficile colitis?

A

Clindamycin

34
Q

Which class of antibiotic should be avoided in patients that have had a type 1 (immediate, anaphylactic) reaction to any penicillin due to a possible cross sensitivity reaction.
a) Cephalosporins
b) Fluoroquinolones
c) Macrolides
d) Tetracyclines

A

A. Cephalosporins

35
Q

The drug of choice for treatment of primary or secondary syphilis is:
Question 10 options:

a) Ceftriaxone intramuscular (IM)
b) Benzathine penicillin G IM
c) Oral azithromycin
d) Oral ciprofloxacin

A

Benzathine PCN G IM

36
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes is isolated from the wound of a 48-year-old man with necrotizing cellulitis. In addition to penicillin, the patient is also started on which antibiotic for synergistic coverage?
A. Clindamycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Rifampin

A

A. Clindamycin. Patients with serious monomicrobial Streptococcus pyogenes cellulitis can be treated with a combination of penicillin and clindamycin. Penicillin and clindamycin is part of the standard antibiotic therapy for treating streptococcal necrotizing fasciitis with and without associated toxic shock syndrome. Penicillin is effective against many gram positive organisms including Streptococcus, while clindamycin exerts an antitoxin effect by inhibiting protein synthesis. Clindamycin may also enhance opsonization and phagocytosis of bacteria, even at lower drug concentrations insufficient to inhibit bacterial growth.

37
Q

Which of the following conditions would NOT be an appropriate indication for clindamycin?
A. Aspiration pneumonia caused by Bacteroides fragilis
B. Bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis
C. Cellulitis caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
D. Urinary tract infection caused by Enterococcus faecalis

A

D. UTI. Clindamycin is not effective against Enterococcus species. Depending on local resistance patterns, Enterococcus may be treated with ampicillin, vancomycin, linezolid, tigecycline or piperacillin/tazobactam.

38
Q

For which of the following clinical scenarios is treatment with clindamycin most appropriate?

A. A 20-year-old college student has severe cystic acne that persists despite oral doxycycline treatment.
B. A 30-year-old entomologist finds an Ixodes tick on her leg while hiking along the Mississippi River Valley. She later develops fatigue, jaundice, and dark colored urine.
C. A 67-year-old man develops profuse crampy, watery diarrhea after completing treatment for cellulitis.
D. A hiker is bitten by a dog tick while hiking in West Virginia. He develops a fever and headache followed by diffuse maculopapular rash including the palms and soles.

A

A. Topical clindamycin may be used to treat moderate to severe inflammatory acne vulgaris. Topical clindamycin is often used in combination with a retinoid or benzoyl peroxide gel to achieve a synergistic effect.

39
Q

Which of the following antibiotics may cause pseudomembranous colitis?

A. Amoxicillin only
B. Ampicillin and clindamycin only
C. Clindamycin only
D. Clindamycin, ampicillin and amoxicillin

A

D. Clindamycin is the most commonly cited causative agent in antibiotic associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis. Amoxicillin, ampicillin and cephalosporins are also frequently implicated. However, the use of almost any antibiotic can cause disruption in the normal gut flora and allow overgrowth of Clostridium difficile.

40
Q

What’s the most common manifestation of Linezolid’s principal toxicity?
A. Anemia
B. Neutropenia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Leukopenia

A

C. Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelets, is the most common manifestation. This can lead to issues with blood clotting. Other side effects such as anemia and neutropenia can also occur but are less common.

41
Q

Which of the following is not a common side effect of Linezolid?
A. Optic Neuropathy
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Acute Kidney Injury
D. Peripheral Neuropathy

A

C. AKI. Linezolid can cause hematologic toxicity including thrombocytopenia, as well as optic neuropathy and peripheral neuropathy. Linezolid does not typically cause acute kidney injury.

42
Q

Linezolid is particularly useful in the treatment of infections due to which resistant organisms?

A

MRSA and VRE. These organisms are of particular concern in hospital settings due to their resistance to commonly used antibiotics, thus the use of agents such as Linezolid is crucial.

43
Q

What part of the bacterial cell does Linezolid target to have its antimicrobial effect?
A. DNA Polymerase
B. 30s Ribosomal subunit
C. 50s Ribosomal subunit
D. Peptidoglycan

A

C. 50s. Linezolid inhibits protein synthesis by binding the 50s ribosomal subunit and preventing the formation of the initiation complex. This mechanism of action allows it to effectively stop bacterial protein synthesis, leading to bacterial cell death.

44
Q

What is the antimicrobial spectrum of linezolid?
A. Gram-negative bacteria
B. Gram-positive bacteria
C. Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
A. Anaerobic bacteria

A

B. Gram-positive. Linezolid is effectively active only against gram-positive organisms such as staphylococcus, streptococcus, and enterococcus. These organisms are often responsible for serious infections in healthcare settings. Linezolid does not have activity against gram-negative bacteria or anaerobes.

45
Q

Tetracycline antibiotics are least appropriate for treating which of the following infections?
A. Endocarditis caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever caused by Rickettsia rickettsii
C. Severe enterocolitis caused by Yersinia enterocolitica
D. Undulant fever caused by Brucella species

A

A. Though tetracyclines are effective in treating MRSA skin and soft-tissue infections, tetracyclines are not appropriate for treating serious MRSA infections such as MRSA endocarditis. Appropriate antibiotic treatments for serious MRSA infections include vancomycin, daptomycin, and linezolid. Tetracyclines can be used to treat Q fever endocarditis caused by Coxiella burnetii. Hydroxychloroquine and doxycycline are the preferred treatment regimen for Coxiella burnetii endocarditis.

46
Q

Which of the following statements regarding tetracycline antibiotics is true?
A. Antacids improve tetracycline absorption
B. Doxycycline is primarily renally excreted
C. Tetracyclines are narrow spectrum antibiotics
D. Tetracyclines are teratogenic

A

D. Tetracyclines are teratogenic and can be deposited in fetal teeth and bone. Tetracycline is also known to cause tooth discoloration in children under the age of 8. Tetracyclines should be avoided in both pregnant women as well as breast feeding women as it can cross both the placenta and be transmitted in breast milk.
Next

47
Q

Which of the following will NOT interfere with the absorption of tetracycline antibiotics?

A. Calcium carbonate antacid
B. Ferrous sulfate supplement
C. Milk
D. Wine

A

D. Wine

48
Q

Which of the following patients should NOT be prescribe a tetracycline?

A. 19-year-old man with acne
B. 28-year-old woman with chlamydial cervicitis
C. 4-year-old girl with community acquired pneumonia
D. 57-year-old man with brucellosis and renal insufficiency

A

C. 4 y.o. Children under 5 years old, viruses are the most common causative agent of community acquired pneumonia. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia in this age group and can be treated with amoxicillin. Tetracyclines should be avoided in children under 8 years old due to risk of tooth discoloration. Tooth discoloration does not usually occur in adults.

49
Q

Tetracyclines belong to a class of protein synthesis-inhibiting antibacterials. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

A. Blocks binding of transfer RNA to ribosome
B. Blocks formation of initiation complex for translation
C. Impairs fidelity of matching between codon and anticodon
D. Inhibits peptide bond formation between amino acids

A

A. Tetracyclines block the binding of tRNA to the ribosome during translation by binding to the bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit, thus inhibiting translation. A bacteriostatic effect is exerted as protein synthesis is halted.

50
Q

Sulfonamides are known to displace which of the following anticoagulant drugs from albumin, increasing its effect?

A. Aspirin
B. Clopidogrel
C. Rivaroxaban
D. Warfarin

A

D. Warfarin
Sulfonamides, such as sulfamethoxazole in the trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole combo, can displace warfarin from albumin, increasing the amount of free, active warfarin in the blood. This results in a heightened anticoagulant effect, increasing the risk of excessive bleeding.

51
Q

Sulfonamides, such as sulfamethoxazole, can cause which of the following conditions when used during pregnancy?

A. Neural tube defects
B. Congenital heart defects
C. Limb reduction defects
D. Orofacial clefts

A

A. Neural Tube Defects.
Sulfamethoxazole interferes with folate metabolism, which is essential for neural tube formation during early development. Therefore, its use during the first trimester of pregnancy increases the risk of neural tube defects.

52
Q

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole works by inhibiting what bacterial enzyme?

A. DNA polymerase
B. Peptidyl transferase
C. Dihydrofolate reductase
D. Beta-lactamase

A

C. Dihydrofolate reductase
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole acts by inhibiting two enzymatic steps in the bacterial synthesis of folate. Sulfamethoxazole inhibits dihydropteroate synthase, while trimethoprim blocks dihydrofolate reductase. This sequential inhibition of the folate pathway heightens the drug’s antibacterial effect, as bacteria must synthesize folate endogenously.

53
Q

In patients with HIV, when CD4 counts drop below 200, TMP-SMX should be added for prophylaxis against:

A. Disseminated MAC
B. PJP pneumonia
C. Bacillary angiomatosis
D. Toxoplasmosis

A

B. PJP pneumonia
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is used prophylactically in patients with CD4 counts below 200 to prevent Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PJP), and in patients with CD4 counts below 100 to prevent toxoplasmosis. These opportunistic infections are common in immunocompromised individuals.

54
Q

The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole may lead to what renal side effect characterized by hyperkalemia?

A. Renal tubular acidosis type 1
B. Renal tubular acidosis type 2
C. Interstitial nephritis
D. Renal tubular acidosis type 4

A

D. RTA type 4.
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole can cause renal tubular acidosis type 4, a condition characterized by hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). This happens as the drugs can interfere with normal kidney functions, particularly affecting the renal tubules.

55
Q

A patient being treated for tuberculosis complains of new, sudden-onset pain and tenderness in the left big toe. Which medication in their regimen is the likely cause of this pain?
A. Rifampin
B. Isoniazid
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol

A

C. Pyrazinamide can increase uric acid levels, thus potentially triggering gout attacks. This is significant for patients with a history or risk of gout.

56
Q

Which drug in the RIPE tuberculosis therapy should be co-administered with Vitamin B6 to prevent peripheral neuropathy?

A. Rifampin
B. Isoniazid
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol

A

B. Isoniazid can cause stocking-glove peripheral neuropathy, typically in patients who are slow acetylators. Co-administration with Vitamin B6 can help prevent this side effect.

57
Q

A patient in the RIPE treatment protocol presents with concern for possible blood in their urine, which has turned a red-orange color. What is the most likely explanation of this symptom?

A. Normal side effect of rifampin
B. Normal side effect of ethambutol
C. Glomerulonephritis due to mycobacterial lysis
D. Hematuria due to isoniazid

A

A. Rifampin is associated with a unique side effect, causing an orange-red discoloration of body fluids. While it can be alarming for patients, it’s important to know that this is a harmless side effect.

58
Q

Isoniazid resistance in M. tuberculosis is usually conferred by a mutation in which gene?

A. nfxB (an efflux pump)
B. katG (a catalase)
C. pbp2x (a cell wall synthesis protein)
D. ndm-1 (a metallo-beta-lactamase)

A

B. kat G.
Isoniazid is activated by the katG catalase. Mutations in this gene reduce synthesis of the enzymatic product and prevent activation of INH.

59
Q

A 24-year-old pregnant female is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI) at 32 weeks gestation. Which antibiotic would be most appropriate for this patient?

  1. Levaquin
  2. Cephalexin
  3. Doxycycline
  4. Cipro
A
  1. Cephalexin. Pregnancy contraindicates several classes of antibiotics, such as tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones, so aminopenicillins may be used for gravid women, even though another agent is the drug of choice for non-pregnant patients.
60
Q

Which medication should the APN not prescribe for a 38-year-old male athlete who runs marathons and has a skin abscess?
correct
1. Levaquin
2. Clindamycin
3. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
4. Doxycycline

A
  1. Levaquin. All of the fluoroquinolones have a boxed warning regarding the risk of tendon rupture and tendonitis. It would not be advised to prescribe this medication for a long-distance runner.
61
Q

A 42-year-old pregnant female patient comes to the clinic with an outbreak of herpes simplex to the lips. Which medication would be most appropriate for the patient?

  1. Famciclovir
  2. Acyclovir
  3. Famvir
  4. Valganciclovir
A
  1. Acyclovir