Antilipidemics Flashcards

1
Q

The statin drugs are metabolized by the CY450 enzymes. If you are taking a drug that inhibits CYP450, would your serum statin level increase or decrease?

A

Increase

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2
Q

What is the most common side effect after initiating a statin therapy?

A

Myopathy (muscle weakness or soreness)

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3
Q

Why are most statins suppose to be taken at night?

A

To be effective during the highest production of cholesterol, between 2-4 am, when the upregulation of LDL receptors in the liver enhance clearance of LDL.

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4
Q

Which of the following best describes the MOA for evolocumab?

A. Decreased degradation of LDL receptors
B. Decreased hepatic production of VLDL
C. Decreased hepatic uptake of LDL
D. Prevention of absorption of dietary cholesterol

A

A. Evolocumab is a PCSK9 inhibitor. PCSK9 inhibitors are monoclonal antibodies that prevent LDL receptor degradation in the liver, resulting in increased removal of LDL from bloodstream. Most often used in patients with patients with insufficient LDL reduction in response to diet, exercise, and statin therapy.

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5
Q

Which of the following best describes the MOA for cholestyramine?

A. Activation of PPAR-a and LPL upregulation
B. Prevents absorption of dietary cholesterol
C. Prevents conversion of HGM CoA to mevolonic acid
D. Prevents reabsorption of bile acids

A

D.

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6
Q
A

A.

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7
Q
A

C.

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8
Q
A

B.

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9
Q

When starting a patient on a statin, education would include:

a) If they stop the medication their lipid levels can return to pretreatment levels.
b) Medication is a supplement to diet therapy and exercise.
c) If they have any muscle aches or pain, they should contact their provider.
d) All of the above

A

D.

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10
Q

Education of patients who are taking warfarin includes discussing their diet. Instructions include:

a) Do not eat any foods containing vitamin K.
b) Eat 35 grams of fiber daily.
c) Increase intake of iron-containing foods.
d) Avoid foods high in vitamin K .

A

D. Vitamin K: Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, which plays a role in blood clotting. It’s essential to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foodsAvoid making big changes in your consumption of these foods, as it can affect the effectiveness of warfarin

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11
Q

Which of the following medications is an oral factor Xa inhibitor?

a) Warfarin (Coumadin)
b) Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
c) Ezetimibe (Zetia)
d) Apixaban (Eliquis)

A

D.

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12
Q

Which of the following classes of drugs should be avoided in HF?

a) Nitrates
b) Calcium channel blockers
c) Digoxin
d) Alpha-beta blockers

A

B. Calcium channel blockers should generally be avoided. These medications can negatively impact cardiac contractility and worsen HF symptoms.

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13
Q

A 51-year-old male has been told by his PCP to take an aspirin a day. Why would this be recommended?

a) Aspirin has antiplatelet activity and is used for the prevention of myocardial infarction.
b) He has a history of gastrointestinal (GI) bleed, and one aspirin a day can help prevent GI bleeding.
c) He has chronic kidney disease and this will help with the inflammation and pain.
d) Aspirin acidifies the urine and he needs this for prostate health.

A

A. Aspirin helps prevent blood clot formation by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which is crucial for reducing the risk of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and other cardiovascular events.

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14
Q

Art is a 55-year-old smoker who has been diagnosed with angina and placed on nitrates. He complains of headaches after using his nitrate. An appropriate reply might be:

A. This is a parasympathetic response to the vasodilating effects of the drug.
B. Headaches are common side effects with these drugs. How severe are they?
C. This is associated with your smoking. Let’s work on having you stop smoking.
D. This is not related to your medication. Are you under a lot of stress?

A

B.

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15
Q

A patient had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and was on heparin and warfarin in the hospital and discharged home on warfarin. She asks her primary care nurse practitioner (NP) why she was getting both medications while in the hospital. The best response is to:

a) Contact the hospitalist as this is not the normal guideline for prescribing these two medications and she may have had a more complicated case.
b) Explain that warfarin is often started while a patient is still on heparin because warfarin takes a few days to reach effectiveness.
c) Encourage the patient to contact the customer service department at the hospital, as this was most likely a medication error during her admission.
d) Draw anticoagulation studies to make sure she does not have dangerously high bleeding times.

A

B.

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16
Q

Which of the following is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor?

a) Cholestyramine (Question)
b) Evolocumab (Repatha)
c) Fenofibrate (Tricor)
d) Rosuvastatin (Crestor)

A

D. Rosuvastatin (Crestor)

17
Q

A patient is taking warfarin and is asking about which over the counter medication they can take for minor aches and pains. The best recommendation is:

a) Acetaminophen
b) St. John’s Wort
c) Ibuprofen
d) Aspirin

A

A. Acetaminophen (also known as paracetamol). Unlike other options, acetaminophen does not significantly interact with warfarin and is generally considered safe for use in patients on anticoagulant therapy.

18
Q

Many patients with hyperlipidemia are treated with more than one drug. Combining a fibric acid derivative with which of the following is not recommended?

a) Bile-acid sequestering resins, due to interference with folic acid absorption
b) Garlic, due to interference with metabolism
c) Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), due to decreased gemfibrozil activity
d) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins), due to an increased risk for rhabdomyolysis

A

D.

19
Q

Which drug can be used to treat hyperlipidemia in a patient with active liver disease?

A. Cholestyramine (Questran)
B. Simvastatin (Zocor)
C. Rosuvastatin (Crestor)
D. Fluvastatin (Lescol)

A

A. Active liver disease is a contraindication for all antilipidemics except the bile-acid sequestrants. Bile-acid sequestrants (colestipol [Colestid] and cholestyramine [Questran]) are the drugs noted in this class.

20
Q

Which drug blocks synthesis of cholesterol in the liver by competitively inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase activity and induces an increase in high-affinity low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors, resulting in an increased catabolism of LDL and an increase in the liver’s extraction of LDL precursors?

A. Ezetimibe (Zetia)
B. Colestipol (Colestid)
C. Fluvastatin (Lescol)
D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

A

C. Reductase inhibitors “statins” block synthesis of cholesterol in the liver by competitively inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase activity. They induce an increase in high-affinity LDL receptors, resulting in an increased catabolism of LDL and an increase in the liver’s extraction of LDL precursors.

21
Q

The APN is reviewing a 60-year-old male patient’s medication profile and finds evolocumab. What should the APN suspect as the reason for this drug selection?

A. Significantly increased triglyceride levels
B. Genetic history with high cardiovascular risk factors
C. Patient preference due to the medication being an injectable
D. Compliance with therapy

A

B. PCSK9 inhibitors (evolocumab) are injectable medications not used as a first-line agent for primary lipid issues. The target group is those with extremely high CV risk and high lipid levels due to genetic issues. Those who require a 50% reduction in LDL levels to improve their personal risk benefit the most.

22
Q

The APN is reviewing a patient’s complaints of muscle aches related to the use of a prescribed statin. Extremities reveal no discoloration or swelling. There is no discernable pain upon examination. Lab results are normal. Which action should the APN take based on this initial complaint?

A. Consider switching to a different statin.
B. Discontinue the statin.
C. Prescribe a muscle relaxant.
D. Order an imaging study to rule out clot formation.

A

A. Switching to another statin is the first action if the creatinine kinase levels do not show a real adverse muscle issue.

23
Q

Which drug can be used to treat hyperlipidemia in a patient with active liver disease?

A. Cholestyramine (Questran)
B. Simvastatin (Zocor)
C. Rosuvastatin (Crestor)
D. Fluvastatin (Lescol)

A

A. Active liver disease is a contraindication for all antilipidemics except the bile-acid sequestrants. Bile-acid sequestrants (colestipol [Colestid] and cholestyramine [Questran]) are the drugs noted in this class.

24
Q

Which drug is considered a first-line therapy for the treatment of heart failure?

A. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (CCBs)
B. Coenzyme Q10
C. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)

A

D. Several drugs used to treat angina also reduce blood pressure and improve myocardial function to reduce the risk for development of heart failure. ACEIs are associated with decreased morbidity and mortality from heart failure and are first-line therapy for that disorder.

25
Q

An adult patient with diabetes is being treated for hypertension (HTN). Which medication may require adjustment by the APN?

A. Lisinopril
B. Beta blockers
C. HCTZ
D. Multivitamin supplement

A

C. Patients with DM may have increased glucose levels with diuretics. Recent evidence shows there may be a relationship between glucose metabolism and hypokalemia caused by thiazide diuretics.

26
Q

A patient with left ventricular dysfunction is taking a calcium channel blocker (CCB) and a beta blocker (BB). This combination may induce which condition?

A. Heart failure or bradycardia
B. Tachycardia and hypotension
C. Angina and tachycardia
D. Hypoglycemia

A

A. Combinations of BBs and CCBs have been shown to be more effective than the individual drugs used alone. However, these combinations are questionable for patients with left ventricular dysfunction because together they may induce heart failure or bradycardia. Verapamil and diltiazem also should be avoided in these combinations.

27
Q

Which medication would the APN order for an adult patient who has a triglyceride level (TG) of 600 mg/dL?

A. Bile acid binding resins
B. Fibric acid derivative
C. Low-dose statin therapy
D. Vitamin D

A

B. A fibric acid derivative is best used for patients with TG levels >500 mg/dL as an effort to prevent pancreatitis. Bile acid binding resins are useful in patients who do not have TG levels above 300 mg/dL. Low-dose statins are indicated for reduction of LDL cholesterol and would not be effective in treating increased TG levels.

28
Q

What is an alternative drug for patients who cannot tolerate statins?

A

Ezetimibe

29
Q

If patients have myalgia as a SE on one statin, what can you try next?

A

A different statin. If myalgia persists, then try different class.

30
Q

What category of med is prescribed for very high-risk CV patients that do not meet goal of lowing lipids?

A

PCSK9 inhibitors. Evolocumab (Repatha)