Extras paper 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the co-morbidities associated with bipolar disorder?

A

A: Increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD (2-3 times higher).

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2
Q

What are the management strategies for fibromyalgia?

A

A psychosocial and multidisciplinary approach.
Aerobic exercise (strongest evidence base), cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), and medications such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline.

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3
Q

What is the first-line management for binge eating disorder in adults according to NICE?

A

NICE recommends a ‘binge-eating-disorder-focused’ guided self-help programme.

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4
Q

What is the first-line treatment for bulimia nervosa in adults according to NICE

A

NICE recommends bulimia-nervosa-focused guided self-help for adults.

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5
Q

What is recommended when switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)?

A

Cross-tapering is recommended, where the current drug dose is reduced slowly while the dose of the new drug is increased slowly, except for fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn, with a 4-7 day gap before starting the TCA at a low dose.

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6
Q

What are the common adverse effects of lithium?

A

Nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea, fine tremor, nephrotoxicity (polyuria secondary to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus), thyroid enlargement (leading to hypothyroidism), T wave flattening/inversion on ECG, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism and resultant hypercalcaemia.

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7
Q

What factors can precipitate lithium toxicity?

A

Dehydration, renal failure, and drugs such as diuretics (especially thiazides), ACE inhibitors/angiotensin II receptor blockers, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

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8
Q

What is the mechanism of action of nitrous oxide when inhaled?

A

Nitrous oxide acts as a dissociative anaesthetic by blocking NMDA receptors, impairing the perception of pain and inducing a state of euphoria and relaxation. It also causes the release of endogenous opioids and dopamine, contributing to its addictive potential.

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9
Q

How long should detoxification of opioids last in an inpatient/residential setting versus the community?

A

Detoxification should last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community.

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10
Q

What are the indications for haemodialysis in salicylate overdose?

A

Serum concentration > 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary oedema, seizures, and coma.

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11
Q

Why do salicylates cause sweating and pyrexia?

A

Salicylates uncouple oxidative phosphorylation, which decreases adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production, increases oxygen consumption, and leads to increased carbon dioxide and heat production, resulting in sweating and pyrexia.

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12
Q

when stopping fluoxetine, do you need to taper

A

no

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13
Q

where do typical antipsychotics work

A

dopamine D2 receptor

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14
Q

What are other common side effects of antipsychotics?

A

Other side effects include antimuscarinic effects (dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation), sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin (which can lead to galactorrhoea), impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome (characterized by pyrexia and muscle stiffness), reduced seizure threshold (greater with atypicals), and prolonged QT interval (particularly with haloperidol).

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15
Q

What are the normal stages of grief according to a popular model?

A

Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance.

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16
Q

what xray would you do for acute epiglottitis

A

lateral xray - thumb sign

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17
Q

what xray would you do for croup

A

PA xray - steeple sign

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18
Q

go through paeds asthma management

A
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19
Q

What is the treatment for Homocystinuria?

A

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) supplements

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20
Q

What vaccines are given at 12-13 months of age?

A

Hib/Men C vaccine
MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella)
PCV
Men B vaccine

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21
Q

learn risk factors for pre eclampsia

A
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22
Q

how long do you continue iron treatment after preg

A

3 months

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23
Q

what is thelassys test used for

A

meniscal tear

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24
Q

what nerve does meralgia paraesthetica damage

A

lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

25
Q

what test is done for meralgia paraesthetica

A

pelvic compression test

26
Q

what does froments sign test for

A

ulnar nerve palsy

27
Q

what do you give after hip surgery

A

lmwh for 4 weeks

28
Q

when do you offer DEXA

A

> 50 with fragility fracture

29
Q

What are common investigation findings in antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Thrombocytopenia and prolonged APTT

30
Q

What are the most common causes of drug-induced lupus?

A

The most common causes include procainamide and hydralazine.

31
Q

what is management for polymyositis

A

high dose steroids

32
Q

positive simmonds sign

A

achilles rupture

33
Q

difference between achilles tendionpathy and plantar fasciitis

A

achilles tendinopathy is worse with exercise
plantar fasciitis is worse on rest

34
Q

do psych quesmed

A
35
Q

what causes malignant otitis externa

A

pseudomonas

36
Q

what scan is done for malignant otitis externa

A

CT

37
Q

what is first line treatment for nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

radiotherapy

38
Q

what is the mechanism of dabigtran

A

thrombin inhibitor

39
Q

most common cause of neutropenic sepsis

A

staph epidermidis

40
Q

management for VWD

A

desmopressin

41
Q

sensitivity

A

TP/(TP + FN)

42
Q

SPECIFICITY

A

TN(TN+FP)

43
Q

POSITIVE PREDICTIVE VALUE

A

TP(TP + FP)

44
Q

NEGATIVE PREDICTIVE VALUE

A

TN(TN + FN)

45
Q

LIKELIHOOD RATIO FOR POSITIVE RESULT

A

SENSITIVITY / (1-SPECIFICITY)

46
Q

LIKELIHOOD RATIO FOR A NEGATIVE RESULT

A

(1- SENSITIVITY) / SPECIFICITY)

47
Q

VARIANCE

A

SD SQUARED

48
Q

what drug si given to reverse neuromuscular blockade

A

neostigmine

49
Q

drug used for hiccups in palliative care if hepatic lesions present

A

dex

50
Q

what is used for opioid induced nausea and vomiting in palliative care

A

ondansetron

51
Q

morphine to oxycodone

A

*2

52
Q

which opioid do you give through a syringe driver

A

diamorphine

53
Q

what is fregolis syndrome

A

when a patient is having persecutory beliefs and believes everyone they meet is the same person (the supposed perpetrator) but with different disguises.

54
Q

what is folie a deux

A

Delusions shared by two or more people. One may have a psychotic illness, and the other is submissive.

55
Q

what is agoraphobia

A

Fear of open spaces and associated factors like the presence of crowds or the perceived difficulty of immediate easy escape to a safe place, usually home (may occur with or without panic disorder).

56
Q

what is social phobia

A

Most common anxiety disorder.
ICD-11 criteria: Fear of scrutiny by others in relatively small groups (as opposed to crowds), resulting in the avoidance of social situations.

57
Q

what do you give after anaphylaxis once stable

A

non sedating antihistamines, or IM chlorphenamine if they cant swallow

58
Q

where should you be referred to if you had a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis

A

specialist allergy clinic

59
Q
A