ENT Flashcards
Q: What is acute otitis media, and who is most affected?
A: Acute otitis media is common in young children, with around half of children having three or more episodes by age 3.
Q: What typically precedes acute otitis media, and what is the main cause of infection?
A: Viral upper respiratory tract infections (URTIs) typically precede otitis media, but most infections are secondary to bacteria, especially Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis.
Q: How do viral URTIs contribute to acute otitis media?
A: Viral URTIs disturb the normal nasopharyngeal microbiome, allowing bacteria to infect the middle ear via the Eustachian tube.
Q: What are the common clinical features of acute otitis media?
A: Common features include otalgia, ear tugging or rubbing, fever (in about 50% of cases), hearing loss, recent viral URTI symptoms, and ear discharge if the tympanic membrane perforates.
Q: What are the possible otoscopy findings in acute otitis media?
A: Findings include a bulging tympanic membrane (loss of light reflex), opacification or erythema of the tympanic membrane, perforation with purulent otorrhoea, and decreased mobility if using a pneumatic otoscope.
Q: What criteria are commonly used to diagnose acute otitis media?
A: Diagnosis is based on acute onset of symptoms, otalgia or ear tugging, middle ear effusion, bulging or otorrhoea of the tympanic membrane, decreased mobility on pneumatic otoscopy, and inflammation of the tympanic membrane.
Q: How is acute otitis media managed?
A: Acute otitis media is generally self-limiting, but analgesia should be given for otalgia. Parents should seek medical help if symptoms worsen or do not improve after 3 days. Antibiotics may be required in certain cases.
Q: When should antibiotics be prescribed for acute otitis media?
A: Antibiotics should be prescribed if symptoms last more than 4 days, the patient is systemically unwell but not requiring admission, or in cases of immunocompromise, high risk, bilateral otitis media in children under 2, or otitis media with perforation or discharge.
Q: What is the first-line antibiotic for acute otitis media?
A: A 5-7 day course of amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic. If allergic to penicillin, erythromycin or clarithromycin should be used.
Q: What are common sequelae of acute otitis media?
A: Common sequelae include perforation of the tympanic membrane (otorrhoea), chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM), hearing loss, and labyrinthitis.
Q: What are the potential complications of acute otitis media?
A: Complications can include mastoiditis, meningitis, brain abscess, and facial nerve paralysis.
Q: What is acute sinusitis, and what are the common infectious agents?
A: Acute sinusitis is an inflammation of the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses, typically caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and rhinoviruses.
Q: What are the predisposing factors for acute sinusitis?
A: Predisposing factors include nasal obstruction (e.g., septal deviation or nasal polyps), recent local infection (e.g., rhinitis or dental extraction), swimming/diving, and smoking.
Q: What are the common clinical features of acute sinusitis?
A: Features include facial pain (typically frontal pressure pain worsened by bending forward), thick and purulent nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction.
Q: How is acute sinusitis generally managed?
A: Management includes analgesia, intranasal decongestants or saline (with limited evidence), intranasal corticosteroids (if symptoms persist for more than 10 days), and antibiotics in severe cases.
Q: What is the first-line antibiotic for acute sinusitis according to the BNF?
A: The first-line antibiotic is phenoxymethylpenicillin, with co-amoxiclav used for patients who are systemically unwell, have more serious symptoms, or are at high risk of complications.
Q: What is “double-sickening” in the context of acute sinusitis?
A: “Double-sickening” refers to a situation where an initial viral sinusitis worsens due to a secondary bacterial infection.
Q: What is allergic rhinitis, and what are the common allergens involved?
A: Allergic rhinitis is an inflammatory disorder of the nose caused by sensitization to allergens such as house dust mites and pollens from grass, trees, and weeds.
Q: How is allergic rhinitis classified, and what are the types?
A: Allergic rhinitis can be classified as seasonal (e.g., hay fever due to pollen), perennial (symptoms year-round), or occupational (due to exposure to workplace allergens).
Q: What are the common clinical features of allergic rhinitis?
A: Features include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
Q: How is allergic rhinitis managed in mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent cases?
A: Management includes allergen avoidance and the use of oral or intranasal antihistamines.
Q: What treatment is recommended for moderate-to-severe persistent allergic rhinitis or when initial treatment is ineffective?
A: Intranasal corticosteroids are recommended, and occasionally a short course of oral corticosteroids may be needed for significant life events.
Q: What is the role of nasal decongestants in the management of allergic rhinitis?
A: Short courses of topical nasal decongestants (e.g., oxymetazoline) may be used, but prolonged use should be avoided due to the risk of tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy (rhinitis medicamentosa).
Q: What is an audiogram, and when is it typically used?
A: An audiogram is a test used to assess hearing difficulties, and it is usually the first-line investigation when a patient complains of hearing issues.
Q: How is sensorineural hearing loss identified on an audiogram?
A: In sensorineural hearing loss, both air and bone conduction are impaired.
Q: How is conductive hearing loss identified on an audiogram?
A: In conductive hearing loss, only air conduction is impaired, while bone conduction remains normal.
Q: How is mixed hearing loss identified on an audiogram?
A: In mixed hearing loss, both air and bone conduction are impaired, with air conduction typically being worse than bone conduction.
Q: What are auricular haematomas, and who are they common in?
A: Auricular haematomas are common in rugby players and wrestlers.
Q: Why is prompt treatment important for auricular haematomas?
A: Prompt treatment is essential to avoid the formation of “cauliflower ear.”
Q: How should auricular haematomas be managed?
A: Auricular haematomas require same-day assessment by an ENT specialist.
Q: What is the preferred treatment for auricular haematomas?
A: Incision and drainage have been shown to be superior to needle aspiration for treating auricular haematomas.
Q: What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), and how is it characterized?
A: BPPV is a common cause of vertigo characterized by the sudden onset of dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position.
Q: What is the typical age of onset for BPPV, and how common is it in younger patients?
A: The average age of onset is 55 years, and it is less common in younger patients.
Q: What are the common clinical features of BPPV?
A: Features include vertigo triggered by changes in head position (e.g., rolling over in bed or gazing upwards), nausea, episodes lasting 10-20 seconds, a positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, and rotatory nystagmus.
Q: How is the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre performed, and what does a positive test indicate?
A: The patient is rapidly lowered to the supine position with an extended neck. A positive test recreates the symptoms of BPPV.
Q: What is the prognosis of BPPV, and how do symptoms usually resolve?
A: BPPV has a good prognosis, with symptoms typically resolving spontaneously after a few weeks to months.
Q: What are some treatment options for BPPV?
A: Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre (successful in around 80% of cases), vestibular rehabilitation exercises like Brandt-Daroff exercises, and medication such as Betahistine, though medication is of limited value.
Q: How common are recurrences of BPPV, and when do they typically occur?
A: Around half of people with BPPV will experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after diagnosis.
Q: What is black hairy tongue, and what causes it?
A: Black hairy tongue is a condition caused by defective desquamation of the filiform papillae, leading to a discolored tongue (which may be brown, green, pink, or another color).
Q: What are the common predisposing factors for black hairy tongue?
A: Predisposing factors include poor oral hygiene, antibiotics, head and neck radiation, HIV, and intravenous drug use.
Q: How should black hairy tongue be managed?
A: Management includes tongue scraping and the use of topical antifungals if Candida is involved.
Q: Why should the tongue be swabbed in cases of black hairy tongue?
A: The tongue should be swabbed to exclude Candida infection as a cause.
Q: What is a branchial cyst, and what is it filled with?
A: A branchial cyst is a benign developmental defect of the branchial arches, filled with acellular fluid containing cholesterol crystals and encapsulated by stratified squamous epithelium.
Q: What complications can arise from a branchial cyst?
A: Branchial cysts may have a fistula and are prone to infection. They may enlarge following a respiratory tract infection.
Q: When do branchial cysts typically present, and where are they usually located?
A: Branchial cysts typically present in late childhood or early adulthood as asymptomatic lateral neck lumps, usually located anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
Q: What are the typical examination features of a branchial cyst?
A: Features include being unilateral (typically on the left side), lateral, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle, slowly enlarging, smooth, soft, fluctuant, non-tender, possibly with a fistula, no movement on swallowing, and no transillumination.
Q: What are the differential diagnoses for a neck lump in children?
A: Differential diagnoses include congenital conditions (branchial cyst, thyroglossal cyst, dermoid cyst, vascular malformation), inflammatory conditions (reactive lymphadenopathy, lymphadenitis), and neoplastic conditions (lymphoma, thyroid tumor, salivary gland tumor).
Q: How is a branchial cyst diagnosed and investigated?
A: Diagnosis involves excluding malignancy, ultrasound, referral to ENT, and fine-needle aspiration.
Q: How are branchial cysts treated?
A: Branchial cysts are treated by ENT surgeons, either conservatively or through surgical excision. Antibiotics are required for acute infections.
Q: What is a cholesteatoma, and what causes it?
A: A cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth of squamous epithelium trapped within the skull base, causing local destruction.
Q: At what age is cholesteatoma most common, and what increases its risk?
A: Cholesteatoma is most common in patients aged 10-20 years, and being born with a cleft palate increases the risk around 100-fold.
Q: What are the main features of cholesteatoma?
A: Main features include foul-smelling, non-resolving discharge and hearing loss.
Q: What other features may occur due to local invasion of cholesteatoma?
A: Other features may include vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.
Q: What is the characteristic otoscopic finding in cholesteatoma?
A: The characteristic finding is an “attic crust” seen in the uppermost part of the ear drum.
Q: How is cholesteatoma managed?
A: Patients are referred to ENT for consideration of surgical removal.
Q: What is chronic rhinosinusitis, and how long does it last?
A: Chronic rhinosinusitis is an inflammatory disorder of the paranasal sinuses and nasal passages that lasts for 12 weeks or longer.
Q: What are the common predisposing factors for chronic rhinosinusitis?
A: Predisposing factors include atopy (hay fever, asthma), nasal obstruction (e.g., septal deviation or nasal polyps), recent local infections (e.g., rhinitis or dental extraction), swimming/diving, and smoking.
Q: What are the common features of chronic rhinosinusitis?
A: Features include facial pain (typically frontal pressure pain worse when bending forward), nasal discharge (clear in allergic/vasomotor cases, thicker and purulent in secondary infections), nasal obstruction (e.g., mouth breathing), and post-nasal drip (which may cause chronic cough).
Q: How is recurrent or chronic rhinosinusitis managed?
A: Management includes allergen avoidance, intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution.
Q: What are the red flag symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis that warrant further investigation?
A: Red flags include unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite 3 months of treatment, and epistaxis (nosebleeds).
Q: What is a cochlear implant, and when is it offered?
A: A cochlear implant is an electronic device offered to patients with severe-to-profound hearing loss.
Q: How is suitability for a cochlear implant determined in children and adults?
A: In children, suitability is based on audiological assessment and difficulty developing basic auditory skills. In adults, it is determined after a trial of appropriate hearing aids for at least 3 months, with limited or no benefit shown.
Q: What are the common causes of severe-to-profound hearing loss in children and adults?
A: In children, causes include genetic factors, congenital infections (e.g., cytomegalovirus, rubella, varicella), idiopathic causes, and post-infectious (e.g., post-meningitis). In adults, causes include viral-induced sudden hearing loss, ototoxicity, otosclerosis, Meniere disease, and trauma.
Q: What is required before a cochlear implant assessment?
A: Patients must exhaust all medical therapies for underlying causes of hearing loss and explore conventional amplification strategies (e.g., hearing aids) without success in supporting daily functioning or language development.
Q: What is crucial for the success of a cochlear implant?
A: The presence of surviving spiral ganglion neurons is crucial for the implant’s success, as the destruction or degeneration of the organ of Corti necessitates the implant.
Q: What complications can arise from cochlear implant surgery?
A: Complications include infection, facial paralysis due to nerve injury, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and meningitis. Vaccination against Streptococcus and Haemophilus is recommended to reduce the risk of meningitis.
Q: What are the contraindications and relative contraindications for a cochlear implant?
A: Contraindications include lesions of cranial nerve VIII or brain stem, chronic infective otitis media, mastoid cavity or tympanic membrane perforation, and cochlear aplasia. Relative contraindications include chronic infections, tympanic membrane perforation, and lack of interest in using the implant for oral communication.
Q: What should patients understand before getting a cochlear implant?
A: Patients should understand the expected outcomes and limitations of the cochlear implant device.
Q: How does the cochlear implant device work?
A: Externally, the microphone picks up sound, which is processed into a digital signal by the sound processor and sent to the transmitter coil. Internally, the receiver and electrodes process the signal as the inner ear hair cells would in a normal ear, allowing the brain to comprehend the sound.
Q: What is the success rate of cochlear implants?
A: Cochlear implants have a very high success rate, with less than 0.2% of recipients rejecting the device and a failure rate of around 0.5% requiring reimplantation.
Q: What are the most common causes of hearing loss?
A: The most common causes of hearing loss are ear wax, otitis media, and otitis externa.
Q: What is presbycusis, and how does it affect hearing?
A: Presbycusis is age-related sensorineural hearing loss, where patients may describe difficulty following conversations, and audiometry shows bilateral high-frequency hearing loss.
Q: What is otosclerosis, and what are its key features?
A: Otosclerosis is an autosomal dominant condition where normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone, typically occurring in people aged 20-40. Key features include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a possible flamingo tinge of the tympanic membrane, and a positive family history.
Q: What is glue ear, and what age group is most affected?
A: Glue ear, also known as otitis media with effusion, is common in children around 2 years of age. It often presents with hearing loss and may lead to secondary problems like speech delay, behavioral issues, or balance problems.
Q: What are the key features of Meniere’s disease?
A: Meniere’s disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is typically the prominent symptom, and other features include aural fullness, nystagmus, a positive Romberg test, and episodes lasting minutes to hours.
Q: What drugs can cause ototoxicity leading to hearing loss?
A: Drugs that can cause ototoxicity include aminoglycosides (e.g., Gentamicin), furosemide, aspirin, and some cytotoxic agents.
FAV.Q&A
Furosemide
Aminoglycoside
Vancomycin
Quinine
Aspirin
Q: What is the effect of noise damage on hearing, and who is at risk?
A: Noise damage causes bilateral hearing loss, typically worse at frequencies of 3000-6000 Hz, and workers in heavy industry are particularly at risk.
Q: What are the features of an acoustic neuroma (vestibular schwannoma)?
A: Features depend on the affected cranial nerves, with unilateral hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus affecting cranial nerve VIII, absent corneal reflex affecting cranial nerve V, and facial palsy affecting cranial nerve VII.
Q: What is neurofibromatosis type 2, and what is its association with acoustic neuromas?
A: Neurofibromatosis type 2 is associated with bilateral acoustic neuromas.
Q: What is ear wax, and what is its role?
A: Ear wax is a normal physiological substance that helps protect the ear canal.
Q: What symptoms can be caused by impacted ear wax?
A: Impacted ear wax can cause pain, conductive hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo.
Q: What are the main treatment options for impacted ear wax in primary care?
A: The main treatment options are ear drops or irrigation (‘ear syringing’).
Q: When should treatment for impacted ear wax be avoided?
A: Treatment should not be given if a perforation is suspected or if the patient has grommets.
Q: What types of ear drops may be used for impacted ear wax?
A: Types of ear drops that may be used include olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil.
Q: What is the difference between anterior and posterior epistaxis?
A: Anterior epistaxis usually has a visible source of bleeding and is caused by capillary damage in Kiesselbach’s plexus, while posterior epistaxis tends to be more profuse and originates from deeper structures, often in older patients.
Q: What are some common causes of epistaxis?
A: Common causes include nose picking, trauma, foreign bodies, bleeding disorders, immune thrombocytopenia, juvenile angiofibroma, cocaine use, hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Q: What are the first aid measures for managing epistaxis in a stable patient?
A: The patient should sit forward with their mouth open to avoid blood flowing into the nasopharynx. Pinch the soft part of the nose firmly for at least 20 minutes and ask the patient to breathe through their mouth.
Q: What topical treatments can help reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis in epistaxis?
A: Topical antiseptics like Naseptin (chlorhexidine and neomycin) or Mupirocin can help, but Naseptin should be avoided in patients with peanut, soy, or neomycin allergies.
Q: What should be avoided to reduce the risk of re-bleeding in epistaxis patients?
A: Patients should avoid blowing or picking their nose, heavy lifting, exercise, lying flat, drinking alcohol, or consuming hot drinks.
Q: What should be done if bleeding persists after 10-15 minutes of pressure on the nose?
A: If bleeding persists, cautery or nasal packing should be considered. Cautery is preferred if the source of the bleed is visible and well-tolerated.
Q: How should cautery be performed for epistaxis?
A: Use a topical local anaesthetic spray (e.g., Co-phenylcaine) and wait 3-4 minutes. Apply a silver nitrate stick for 3-10 seconds to the visible bleeding point, ensuring not to cauterise areas not requiring treatment.
Q: What is the alternative to cautery if the bleeding point cannot be visualized?
A: Nasal packing should be used if cautery is not possible or the bleeding point cannot be seen. The patient should be anaesthetized, and the packing should be inserted while they are sitting forward.
Q: When should patients with epistaxis be admitted to the hospital?
A: Patients should be admitted if they are haemodynamically unstable, if the bleeding source is unknown or posterior, or if the bleed does not stop after emergency management.
Q: What is the last resort treatment for severe, unmanageable epistaxis?
A: Sphenopalatine ligation may be required in theatre for patients with severe epistaxis that does not respond to other emergency management.
Q: What are the main branches of the trigeminal nerve that innervate the face?
A: The ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2), and mandibular (V3) branches of the trigeminal nerve.
Q: How does facial pain travel from the face to the brain?
A: Pain sensation from the face travels via the trigeminal nerve to the trigeminal nucleus in the brainstem, where it is relayed to higher cortical centers.
Q: What are some common causes of facial pain?
A: Trigeminal neuralgia, sinusitis, dental problems, tension-type headache, migraine, and giant cell arteritis.
Q: What is trigeminal neuralgia, and how does it present?
A: Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, lancinating facial pain along one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve.
Q: How does sinusitis cause facial pain?
A: Sinusitis typically presents with facial pain accompanied by symptoms such as nasal discharge or congestion.
Q: What dental issues can lead to facial pain?
A: Dental caries or abscesses can cause localized facial pain.
Q: How does tension-type headache present with facial pain?
A: Tension-type headaches present with a band-like pressure around the forehead that may extend into the facial regions.
Q: What symptoms are associated with migraines and facial pain?
A: Migraines typically involve unilateral, throbbing head and face pain, often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, or photophobia.
Q: How can giant cell arteritis present in older patients?
A: In older patients, new onset facial pain may be a sign of giant cell arteritis, which can threaten vision.
Q: What are the drug causes of gingival hyperplasia?
A: Phenytoin, ciclosporin, and calcium channel blockers (especially nifedipine).
Q: What are some other causes of gingival hyperplasia besides drugs?
A: Acute myeloid leukaemia, particularly the myelomonocytic and monocytic types.
Q: What is gingivitis usually secondary to?
A: Poor dental hygiene.
Q: What are the clinical presentations of gingivitis?
A: Simple gingivitis (painless, red swelling of the gum margin that bleeds on contact) to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (painful bleeding gums with halitosis and punched-out ulcers on the gums).
Q: How should simple gingivitis be managed?
A: Advise the patient to seek routine regular review by a dentist; antibiotics are not usually necessary.
Q: What is the management for acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
A: Refer the patient to a dentist and recommend oral metronidazole for 3 days, chlorhexidine (0.12% or 0.2%) or hydrogen peroxide 6% mouthwash, and simple analgesia. Amoxicillin may also be used.
Paracetamol + oral metronidazole + chlorhexidine mouthwash
Q: What is glue ear?
A: Glue ear describes otitis media with an effusion (serous otitis media), and it is common in childhood.
Q: What are the risk factors for glue ear?
A: Male sex, siblings with glue ear, higher incidence in Winter and Spring, bottle feeding, day care attendance, and parental smoking.
Q: At what age does glue ear peak?
A: Glue ear peaks at 2 years of age.
Q: What is the most common presenting feature of glue ear?
A: Hearing loss is usually the presenting feature, and glue ear is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss and elective surgery in childhood.
Q: What secondary problems may be seen in children with glue ear?
A: Speech and language delay, behavioural or balance problems.
Q: What are the treatment options for glue ear?
A: Active observation for 3 months for first presentation, grommet insertion to allow air to pass into the middle ear, and adenoidectomy.
Q: What is head and neck cancer?
A: Head and neck cancer is an umbrella term that typically includes cancers of the oral cavity, pharynx (oropharynx, hypopharynx, and nasopharynx), and larynx.
Q: What are some common features of head and neck cancer?
A: Neck lump, hoarseness, persistent sore throat, and persistent mouth ulcer.
Q: What are the NICE suspected cancer pathway referral criteria for laryngeal cancer?
A: For people aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck, a referral for an appointment within 2 weeks should be considered.
Q: What are the NICE suspected cancer pathway referral criteria for oral cancer?
A: Referral for oral cancer should be considered for people with unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than 3 weeks or a persistent lump in the neck. A dentist should urgently assess people with a lump on the lip or oral cavity, or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia.
Q: What are the NICE suspected cancer pathway referral criteria for thyroid cancer?
A: A suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered for thyroid cancer in people with an unexplained thyroid lump.
Q: What are common causes of hoarseness?
A: Voice overuse, smoking, viral illness, hypothyroidism, gastro-oesophageal reflux, laryngeal cancer, and lung cancer.
Q: When investigating hoarseness, what should be considered to exclude apical lung lesions?
A: A chest X-ray should be considered to exclude apical lung lesions.
Q: What are the referral guidelines for suspected laryngeal cancer in people aged 45 and over?
A: A suspected cancer pathway referral to an ENT specialist should be considered for people with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck.
Q: What is laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR)?
A: LPR is a condition caused by gastro-oesophageal reflux resulting in inflammatory changes to the larynx/hypopharynx mucosa.
Q: What is the most common sensation reported by patients with LPR?
A: Around 70% of patients report the sensation of a lump in the throat, known as ‘globus’, typically felt in the midline and worse when swallowing saliva.
Q: What are some common features of LPR?
A: Hoarseness (70%), chronic cough (50%), dysphagia (35%), heartburn (30%), and sore throat.
Q: How is LPR diagnosed?
A: LPR is diagnosed clinically in the absence of red flags, with no further investigations required unless red flags are present, such as persistent unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, odynophagia, or persistent hoarseness.
Q: What are some management options for LPR?
A: Lifestyle measures (avoiding triggers like fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol), proton pump inhibitors, and sodium alginate liquids (e.g. Gaviscon).
Q: What is Ludwig’s angina?
A: Ludwig’s angina is a type of progressive cellulitis that invades the floor of the mouth and soft tissues of the neck, usually resulting from odontogenic infections.
Q: What are the common features of Ludwig’s angina?
A: Neck swelling, dysphagia, and fever.
Q: Why is Ludwig’s angina considered a life-threatening condition?
A: It is a life-threatening emergency due to the rapid potential for airway obstruction.
Q: What is the management of Ludwig’s angina?
A: Airway management and intravenous antibiotics.
Q: What is malignant otitis externa?
A: Malignant otitis externa is an uncommon type of otitis externa that primarily affects immunocompromised individuals, especially diabetics, and is commonly caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Q: How does malignant otitis externa progress?
A: It begins in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and progresses to involve the bony ear canal and eventually leads to temporal bone osteomyelitis.
