Cancer Flashcards
Q: What are the most common tumors causing bone metastases in descending order?
A: Prostate, breast, lung
Q: What are the most common sites of bone metastases in descending order?
A: Spine, pelvis, ribs, skull, long bones
Q: Besides bone pain, what are other features of bone metastases?
A: Pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, raised ALP
Q: What cancer is associated with aflatoxin produced by Aspergillus?
A: Hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer)
Q: What cancer is linked to aniline dyes exposure?
A: Bladder cancer (transitional cell carcinoma)
Q: What cancers are associated with asbestos exposure?
A: Mesothelioma and bronchial carcinoma
Q: What cancers are linked to nitrosamines?
A: Oesophageal and gastric cancer
Q: What cancer is associated with vinyl chloride exposure?
A: Hepatic angiosarcoma
Q: What is the most important risk factor for developing cervical cancer?
A: Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
Q: Which HPV subtypes are particularly carcinogenic for cervical cancer?
A: Subtypes 16, 18, and 33
Q: Which HPV subtypes are non-carcinogenic and associated with genital warts?
A: Subtypes 6 and 11
Q: What cellular changes can occur in HPV-infected endocervical cells?
A: Development of koilocytes
Q: What are the characteristics of koilocytes?
A: Enlarged nucleus, irregular nuclear membrane contour, hyperchromasia (darker staining nucleus), perinuclear halo
Q: What are common side effects of chemotherapy related to the gastrointestinal system?
A: Nausea and vomiting
Q: What are risk factors for developing nausea and vomiting with chemotherapy?
A: Anxiety, age <50 years, concurrent use of opioids, type of chemotherapy used
Q: What is a first-line treatment for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting in low-risk patients?
A: Metoclopramide
Q: What medications are recommended for high-risk patients with chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?
A: 5HT3 receptor antagonists (e.g., ondansetron) combined with dexamethasone
Q: What are the adverse effects of cyclophosphamide?
A: Haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, transitional cell carcinoma
Q: How can the incidence of haemorrhagic cystitis be reduced with cyclophosphamide use?
A: Hydration and mesna administration
Q: What is a major adverse effect of bleomycin?
A: Lung fibrosis
Q: What is a key adverse effect of anthracyclines like doxorubicin?
A: Cardiomyopathy
Q: What are the adverse effects of methotrexate?
A: Myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, lung fibrosis
Q: On which chromosomes are BRCA1 and BRCA2 located?
A: BRCA1 on chromosome 17, BRCA2 on chromosome 13
Q: What cancer risks are associated with BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations?
A: Breast cancer (60%), ovarian cancer (55% for BRCA1, 25% for BRCA2), prostate cancer (BRCA2)
Q: What cancers are commonly seen in Lynch Syndrome? (HNPCC)
A: Colorectal cancer and endometrial cancer
Q: What is the inheritance pattern of Lynch Syndrome?
A: Autosomal dominant
Q: Where is squamous cell lung cancer typically located?
A: Central
Q: What is squamous cell lung cancer associated with in terms of parathyroid hormone-related protein?
A: PTHrP secretion leading to hypercalcaemia
Q: What features are strongly associated with squamous cell lung cancer?
A: Finger clubbing, cavitating lesions, hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)
Q: Where is adenocarcinoma of the lung typically located?
A: Peripheral
Q: What is the most common type of lung cancer in non-smokers?
A: Adenocarcinoma
Q: Where is large cell lung carcinoma typically located?
A: Peripheral
Q: What hormone may be secreted by large cell lung carcinoma?
A: β-hCG
Q: How do neurological signs vary depending on the level of the lesion in spinal cord compression?
A: Lesions above L1 cause upper motor neuron signs and a sensory level in the legs. Lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs and perianal numbness.
Q: What reflex changes are seen in spinal cord compression?
A: Increased tendon reflexes below the lesion and absent reflexes at the level of the lesion
Q: What is the recommended investigation for suspected spinal cord compression?
A: Urgent MRI spine within 24 hours of presentation
Q: What is the initial management for spinal cord compression?
A: High-dose oral dexamethasone
Q: What does PET imaging measure to evaluate metabolic activity?
A: Glucose uptake
Q: Which tumour marker is associated with ovarian cancer?
A: CA 125
Q: Which tumour marker is associated with pancreatic cancer?
A: CA 19-9
Q: Which tumour marker is associated with breast cancer?
A: CA 15-3
Q: Which tumour marker is used to diagnose prostatic carcinoma?
A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
Q: Which tumour marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma and teratomas?
A: Alpha-feto protein (AFP)
Q: Which tumour marker is associated with colorectal cancer?
A: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Q: Which tumour marker is associated with melanoma and schwannomas?
A: S-100
Q: Which tumour marker is associated with small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer, and neuroblastoma?
A: Bombesin
