Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathopharm Exam 3 > Extras > Flashcards

Extras Flashcards

1
Q

Which 2 antidepressants are tetracyclics?

A

mirtazapine (2nd gen) and maprotiline (1st gen TCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

There is NO expiratory pause with which abnormal breathing pattern?

A

Kussmauls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

increases mucous production + coughing

A

chronic bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The XR form of which SNRI is an SSRI?

A

Venlafaxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which drugs from psychopharmacolgy are a/w anticholingeric SEs?

A

antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where do neuroblastomas orginate?

A

outside the CNS in the developing SNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TCAs do what?

A

block serotonin reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MAOIs do what?

A

decrease the metabolism of serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If you give TCA with an SSRI may may occur?

A

may increase toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

SSRIs + tryptophan =

A

may cause agitation, restlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what drug is used to treat childhood enuresis?

A

imipramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Clomipramine drug class

A

TCA and SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What 2 TCAs decrease seizure threshold?

A

clomipramine and maprotiline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which 2 TCAs have significant cholinergic effects?

A

doxepin and amitriptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which TCAs have the greatest degree of sedation?

A

doxepin and amitriptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do the TCAs enhance the actions of biogenic amines?

A

by inhibiting reuptake which is their primary mechanism of termination of actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Do TCAs effect serotonin and/or NE?

A

YES
block reuptake of serotonin and/or NE at presynaptic NTs thereby increasing the availability of NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why are TCAs more sedative?

A

bc of their anthistaminergic potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which class of antidepressants is useful in tx of chronic neuropathic pain and other pain syndromes? What is the MOA behind this?

A

TCAs
inhibition of overactive inflammatory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which class of antidepressants has anti-inflam effects?

A

TCAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

TCAs potentiate what?

A

endogenous opioids in the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The level of what drug can be increased with cimetidine?

A

imipramine (TCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What effect do MAOIs have on the MAO enzyme?

A

they block it from metabolizing biogenic amines
they form a stable, irreversible complex wwith MAO enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Orthostatic hypotension with MAOIs may reflect what?

A

accummulation of false NT octopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Meperidine is capable of what?

A

inhibiting serotonin uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

High doses of which antidepressant can cause increases in DBP?

A

Venlafaxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which SSRI has action at both serotonin and NE sites with 5x more selectivity for serotonin?

A

venlafaxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which SSRI has SIADH SE?

A

Paroxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which SSRI is 10x more selective for serotonin?

A

paroxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the S-enantiomer of escitalopram?

A

citalopram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which SSRI can cause dose-dependent QT interval prolongation?

A

citalopram
risk fro torsades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which SSRI has more anticholingeric effects?

A

paroxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Other than clomipramine which SSRI can tx OCD?

A

FLUVOXAMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which SSRI is an inhibitor of CYP2D6 and moderate inhibitor of CYP2B6 + CYP2C9?

A

Fluoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do SSRIs work?

A

They bind and inhibit the serotoonin transporter protein (SERT)
Blocking reuptake of serotonin from synaptic cleft into the presynaptic neuron, thus enhancing serotonergic neurotransmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

SSRIs are first line therapy for what conditons?

A

major depressive and anxiety disorders
panic disorders
PTSD
OCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the major advantage of SSRIs over TCAs?

A

relative safety when taken in overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What med is used for ADHD? What class is it?

A

atomoxetine
NSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

SE of priapism is a/w which med?

A

trazadone (2nd gen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

At high doses which med can cause seizures?

A

bupropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which SNRIs should NOT be used in pts with narrow angle glaucoma? Why?

A

duloxetine, milnacipran, and levomilnapcirpan
Bc anticholingeric SEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do SNRIs work?

A

inhibit NE transporter (NET) and SERT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

SNRIs are first or second line tx for what disorders?

A

depression and anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What 2 SNRIs have FDA approval for chronic pain syndrome?

A

duloxetine and milnacipran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

____ is chemically r/t trazadone

A

nefazodone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How does bupropion work?

A

via inhibition of DA and NE reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

bupropion is structually r/t what?

A

amphetamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is burpopion used for?

A

MDD, smoking cessation, ADHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

_____ does NOT have anticholinergic effects and does not cause postural hypotension

A

bupropion

50
Q

mirtazapine

A

tetracyclic
appetite stimulate
antiemetic
2nd gen

51
Q

What is meta-chlorophenylpiperazine? What can it cause?

A

active metabolite of trazadone
false + for MDMA on urine test

52
Q

monitor liver enzymes with ____

A

nefazodone

53
Q

buspirone is a _____

A

serotonin agonist

54
Q

does buspirone effect GABA?

A

NO

55
Q

buspirone is used to tx what?

A

GAD

56
Q

Which serotonin receptor does buspirone act at?

A

5-HT1A

57
Q

Buspirone lacks which effects of benzos?

A

sedative, anticonvulsant and skeletal muscle relaxant

58
Q

What are the 2 NE agonist?

A

clonidine and guanfacine

59
Q

what class is used to tx ADHD in peds?

A

NE agonist

60
Q

What is pramipexole?

A

D3 receptor agonist

61
Q

What is pramipexole used to tx?

A

parkinsons and restless leg syndrome

62
Q

What med can cause compulsive hedonic behaviors?

A

pramipexole

63
Q

What are the uses of droperidol?

A

psychosis, scizophrenia, severe bipolar, Tourettes, antiemetic

64
Q

What is the black box warnig for droperidol?

A

long QT syndrome

65
Q

Non-serotonergic meds that in conjunction with SRI or other serotonergic meds can trigger serotonin syndrome:

A

linezolid
methylene blue
lithium
opiods
stimulants
muscle relaxants: cyclobenaprine
ecstacy

66
Q

Drugs that cause rapid increase in serum level of SRI meds and may lead to serotonin syndrome:

A

cipro
fluconazole
ritonavir
erythromycin

67
Q

What is cyproheptadine?

A

a 5-HT2A antag used for serotonin syndrome

68
Q

most common serious SE a/w lithium occur where?

A

kidneys

69
Q

what type of drugs can influence lithium levels?

A

diuretics

70
Q

___ can be used to tx resistant major depressive disorder

A

lithium

71
Q

What are antipsychotics used for?

A

primary indication = schizophrenia
schizoaffective disorder
manic component of bipolar
tourettes
senile dementia
antiemetic effects (prochlorperazone- antiemesis)
pruritis relief

72
Q

neuroleptic anesthesia =

A

butyrophenone (droperidol) + opioid (fent)

73
Q

What are the 3 subclasses of phenothiazine compounds?

A
  1. aliphatic
  2. piperidine
  3. piperazine
74
Q

Which phenothiazine derivative is more potent? which is less?

A

more = piperazine
less = piperidine

75
Q

chloropromazine is a ____ derivative

A

aliphatic

76
Q

thioridazine is a ____ derivative

A

piperidine

77
Q

fluphenazine is a ____ derivative

A

piperazine

78
Q

Phenothiazine compounds have what kind of effects?

A

CNS, autonomic and endocrine - multiple receptor blockade

79
Q

droperidol and haloperidol are what drug class? What AE can they have?

A

butryphenones
prolong QT

80
Q

What is the only antipsychotic that appears to NOT convey risk of tardive dyskinesia?

A

clozapine

81
Q

What 2 drugs can be used to tx depression in bipolar disorder?

A

Iurasidone
Quetiapine

82
Q

hat

What are the 1st gen antipsychotics?

A

chlorpromazine, thioridazine, perphenazine and fluphenazine, haloperidol, laxopine and pimozide

83
Q

acute dystonic reactions respond to what med?

A

diphenhydramine (25-50 mg IV)

84
Q

What do you tx parkinsons syndrome with?

A

antimusc agents
amantadine

85
Q

tardive dyskinesia is what kind of movements?

A

choreoathetoid

86
Q

____ can cause agranulocytosis

A

clozapine

87
Q

quinidine-like effects are a/w which med?

A

thioridazine

88
Q

What is bethanechol and what can it be used for?

A

cholinomimetic
can ameliorate antimuscarinic effects

89
Q

Valproic Acid (Depakote)

A

increased recovery time of voltage-activated Na+ channels

90
Q

Zonisamide (Zonegran)

A

GABAA receptor to enhance GABA binding
blocks voltage-gated T-type Calcium channels

91
Q

levetiracetam

A

binds to synaptic vesicles decreases release of neurotransmitters

92
Q

lamotrigine

A

sodium channel antagonist decreasing the release of aspartate and glutamate

93
Q

What med is a weak carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A

topiramate

94
Q

Which drug is r/t phenytoin?

A

carbamazepine

95
Q

Steven-johnson syndrome is an AE of which med?

A

Lamotrigine

96
Q

What med is used to tx infantile spasms and akinetic seizures?

A

clonazepam

97
Q

____ may increase phenytoin levels

A

clonazepam

98
Q

___ can be given for migraine prophylaxis

A

valproic acid

99
Q

Tiagabine can be used as an adjunt for _____

A

partial seizures

100
Q

What med may trigger seizures in non-epileptics?

A

tiagabine

101
Q

What med is structually a monosaccharide r/t fructose?

A

topiramate

102
Q

What are donepezil and rivastigmine used for?

A

cognitive defects in mild to moderate alzheimers dementia

103
Q

5-HT1A

A

inhibitory receptor

104
Q

5-HT2A

A

Excitatory receptor

105
Q

___ is used to tx pain a/w MS

A

Carbamazepine

106
Q

What med is used for trigeminal and glossopharyngeal neuralgias?

A

carbamazepiine

107
Q

___ is used to tx absence seizures

A

ethosuximide

108
Q

Zonisamide uses:

A

partial + generalized seizures
obesity
migraine
parkinsons

109
Q

Zonisamide metab can be inhibited by:

A

ketoconazole
carbamazepine

110
Q

Development of kidney stones is an AE of which med?

A

topiramate

111
Q

Are gabapentin and pregabalin active at GABA?

A

NO

112
Q

What drug class increases prolactin levels?

A

dopamine antags

113
Q

Lithium MOA

A

Increases serotonin production and presynaptic release
decreases glutamatergic neurotransmission
reduction in amplitude of Gi and Gs signaling cascades
decreases in inositol signaling
modulating enzymes requiring mag as cofactor

114
Q

hyperreflexia and rigidity in serotonin syndrome is d/t what?

A

excessive stim of 5-HT2A

115
Q

Which long acting B2 ags is enantiopure?

A

arformoterol

116
Q

side chain binds to B2 and prolongs its activation

A

salmeterol

117
Q

Ipratropium is what?

A

antimuscarinic

118
Q

What is triotropium?

A

anticholinergic antag

119
Q

what is ciclesonide?

A

inhaled steriod

120
Q
A

Pathopharm Exam 3 (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions