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PBL SEM 3 > extra random > Flashcards

extra random Flashcards

1
Q

what do the meninges arise from?

A
  • dura mater — paraxial mesoderm
  • pia and arachnoid mater — neural crest cells
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2
Q

what 3 cellular layers does the neural tube consist of from inner to outer?

A
  • ventricular zone (ependymal layer)
  • intermediate zone (mantle layer)
  • marginal zone (marginal layer)
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3
Q

The _______ zone gives rise to _________ (future nerve cells) and __________ (future supporting cells) which migrate into the intermediate zone form two collections of cells (the ____________ and the ___________) separated by a groove called the _____________.

A

The ventricular zone gives rise to neuroblasts (future nerve cells) and glioblasts (future supporting cells) which migrate into the intermediate zone form two collections of cells (the alar plate and the basal plate) separated by a groove called the sulcus limitans.

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4
Q

Cells in the ______ plate become afferent (sensory) neurons and form the dorsal (posterior) horn of the spinal cord. Cells in the _______ plate become efferent (motor) neurons and form the ventral (anterior) horn of the spinal cord. The two ventral horns bulge ventrally to create __________. The dorsal horns merge to create the dorsal median septum. The lumen of the neural tube becomes the central canal of the spinal cord.

A

Cells in the alar plate become afferent (sensory) neurons and form the dorsal (posterior) horn of the spinal cord. Cells in the basal plate become efferent (motor) neurons and form the ventral (anterior) horn of the spinal cord. The two ventral horns bulge ventrally to create ventral median fissure. The dorsal horns merge to create the dorsal median septum. The lumen of the neural tube becomes the central canal of the spinal cord.

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5
Q

what is the most common cause of infant mental retardation? what does it also cause?

A

fetal alcohol syndrome — also causes microcephaly and congenital heart disease

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6
Q

what are the sensory and motor nuclei of the oculomotor nerve?

A
  • motor = oculomotor nucleus
  • sensory = Edinger-Westphal nucleus
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7
Q

the Edninger-Westphalia nuclues supplies parasympathetic fibres to the eye via what?

A

the ciliary ganglion

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8
Q

the oculomotor nucleus originates at the level of what?

A

superior colliculus

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9
Q

what nerve is responsible for sneeze/cough reflex?

A

sneeze - trigeminal

cough - vagus

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10
Q

what is chorda tympani and what does it innervate?

A

a branch of the facial nerve that innervates taste to the anterior two thirds of the tongue

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11
Q

during what week of gestation does gastrulation occur?

A

3rd

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12
Q

what gives rise to the stomach, colon, liver, pancreas and bladder?

A

endoderm

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13
Q

what gives rise the the epidermis, hair, nails and lens of the eye?

A

surface ectoderm

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14
Q

what gives rise to muscle, bone, cartilage, adipose tissue and the circulatory system?

A

mesoderm

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15
Q

what gives rise the the brain, spinal cord, motor neurones and the retina?

A

neural tube

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16
Q

which gives rise to the peripheral nervous system, adrenal medulla, and dentin of teeth?

A

neural crest

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17
Q

what signifies the start of gastrulation?

A

formation of the primitive streak on the surface of the epiblast

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18
Q

which of these statements about the notochord is FALSE?

a. the notochord is contained within the mesoderm
b. the notochord is found ventral to the neural tube
c. the notochord eventually develops into the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc
d. the notochord secretes TBF-beta proteins
e. the notochord has a role in the induction of the neural plate

A

d - the notochord secretes TBF-beta proteins

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19
Q

which of these is the 3rd ventricle found in?

a - telencephalon
b - diencephalon
c - mescencephalon
d - metencephalon
e - myelencephalon

A

c - mesencephalon

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20
Q

which of these statements concerning development of the spinal cord is FALSE?

a - in the 3rd month of development, the spinal cord extends the entire length of the embryo
b - in the 3rd month of development, the spinal nerves pass through the iv foramina as soon as they originate from the spinal cord
c - the vertebral column and dura lengthen at the same rate as the neural tube
d - at birth, the end of th spinal cord is at L3, later becoming L2
e - the dura is attached to the vertebral column all the way down

A

c - the vertebral column and dura lengthen at the same rate as the neural tube

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21
Q

what are 2, 3 and 4?

A

2 = conus mudullaris

3 = cauda equina

4 = filum terminale

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22
Q

which of these causes most defects in the spinal cord?

a - abnormal closure of neural folds in the 3rd and 4th week
b - meningitis
c - subarachnoid haemorrhage
d - mistakes made in lumbar puncture
e - a weak vastus medialis muscle

A

a - abnormal closure of neural folds in the 3rd and 4th week

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23
Q
A

e

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24
Q

which of these is not a risk factor for NTDs?

a - hyperthermia
b - valproate
c - low folic acid intake
d - hypovitminosis A

A

d

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25
which of these statements about valproate is incorrect? a - it is an antiepileptic b - it inhibits voltage gated sodium channels c - it inhibits GABA transaminase d - inhibit is glutamate formyl transferase e - it has more unwanted side effects than most epileptics
e
26
b
27
what receptor does SHH bind to?
PATCH receptor
28
what is the landmark demarcating the medulla from the spinal cord in the developing embryo?
cervical flexure
29
an abnormality of SHH is known to cause what condition?
holoprosencephaly
30
what is the substantia gelatinosa aka?
rexed lamina II
31
what somatosensory pathway transmits impulses fro pain for the limbs, posterior head and trunk?
spinothalamic
32
the dorsal column medial lemniscus converts information about what? a - pain b- temp c- chemical stimuli d - discriminative touch e - proprioception
d
33
a-delta and c fibres transmit info to nocicpetive-specific neurons in which rexed laminae?
I and II
34
name an opioid antagonist
naloxone
35
describe Piaget’s sensorimotor stage
differentiates self from objects and recognises self as an agent of action
36
describe Piaget’s formal operational stage
can think logically about abstract propositions and test hypothesis systematically
37
describe Piaget’s concrete operational stage
can think logically about objects and events, achieves conversation of number and classifies objects according to several features
38
describe Piaget’s preoperational stage
learns to use language and to represent objects by images and words but thinking is still egocentric
39
what are the 3 forms of social stigma according to Goffaman?
overt, personal trait, tribal
40
what are the neurons like in the magnocellular layer layers (mLGN cells - lateral geniculate nucleus)?
colour insensitive
41
what are the neurons like in the parvocellular layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus (pLGN cells)?
well suited fro detecting contracts that form the bassi for shape/form discrimination
42
what colours are S cone and L cone type cells associated with?
s - blue l - red
43
what is the final curvature to develop in an infant?
lumbar
44
lordosis can occur in what 2 regions of the spine?
lumbar and cervical
45
what is the first phase of the pain catastrophising process?
rumination
46
what are Pacinian and Meissner’s Corupscules?
The two most numerous types of mechanosensory corpuscles in the human palm are Pacinian and Meissner corpuscles. Pacinian corpuscles detect high-frequency vibration, whereas Meissner are tuned to lower frequencies
47
which receptor is rapidly adapting, has a small receptive field and responds to low frequency stimulation?
Meissner’s Corpususcle
48
what is a Merkel receptor?
touch receptor in the epidermis
49
merkel vs meissner’s corupsucle
meissner’s are radpily adapting
50
where does the ligamentum flavum attach?
vertebral laminae
51
what does this describe: overstimulation of NDMA and AMPA receptors causes phosphorylation of ion channels and altered gene expression
central sensitisation
52
where do the cell bodies of primary afferent axons lie?
dorsal root ganglion
53
sensory information regarding touch ascend through the spine in which pathway?
dorsal column - medial lemniscal pathway
54
opioids promote the opening of what?
inwardly rectifying K+ channels
55
what is legally blind classified as?
6/60 vision
56
what part of the eye does the most refraction of light?
cornea — 78% cornea, 22% lens
57
a lesion where leads to visual field loss referred to as “a pie in the sky”?
optic radiation
58
the lateral geniculate nucleus contains 6 layers of cell bodies, but which layers do the ipsilateral temporal hem retina fibres make contact with?
2,3 and 5
59
what is the most common cause of amblyopia?
strabismus
60
after the optic chiasma, each optic tract carries the output from where?
the ipsilateral temporal and contralateral nasal retina
61
the koniocelluar layer of the LGN receives input from which cells?
non-M and non-P ganglion cells
62
the Zinn-Haber anastomic arterial circle surrounding the optic disc is formed by which arteries?
2 long and 1 short posterior ciliary arteries
63
the nerve that innervates the levator palpebrae superioris has its nuceli where?
midbrain
64
glaucoma can be the result of failure to drain in which area of the eye?
canal of Schlemm
65
the lacrimal gland is autonomically innervated by a branch from which CN?
facial
66
what is the focal distance?
the distance between the centre of the lens and focal point
67
Which of the following is an example of hyaline cartilage? a. Auricle of ear b. Intervertebral disc c. Meniscus of knee d. Symphasis pubis e. Thyroid cartilage
thyroid cartilage
68
Which of the following is an example of elastic cartilage? a. Articular cartilage of temporomandibular joint b. Epiglottis c. Intervertebral disc d. Meniscus of knee e. Thyroid cartilage
epiglottis
69
Which of the following is an example of fibrocartilage? a. Articular cartilage of hip joint b. Auricle of ear c. Epiglottis d. Meniscus of knee e. Thyroid cartilage
meniscus of knee
70
parkinson’s disease vs multiple system atrophy
Similar to PD, MSA is characterized pathologically by abnormal accumulations of alpha-synuclein. However, whereas in PD the alpha-synuclein accumulates in the nerve cells, in MSA it accumulates in the glial cells.
71
which of the following is an example of problem-focused coping? a. letting steam off to other people b. praying for guidance and strength c. ignoring the problem in the hope that it will go away d. information seeking e. distracting yourself
d. information seeking
72
which statement is classed as secondary appraisal? a. “this is not important” b. “how does this influence me” c. “what does this stressor mean” d.”can i cope” e. “is this stressful”
d - can i cope
73
explain primary vs secondary appraisal
Primary appraisal involves determining whether the stressor poses a threat. Secondary appraisal involves the individual's evaluation of the resources or coping strategies at his or her disposal for addressing any perceived threats.
74
what is sanctioning?
= family, friends or significant others agree that help-seeking is needed = key trigger for help-seeking
75
what are the stages of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome?
1. alarm 2. resistance 3. exhaustion
76
how many types of lasting power of attorneys are they and what are they?
2: 1. health and welfare 2. property and financial affairs
77
what is the cheese effect?
acute attack of hypertension that can occur in a person taking a MAOI drug who eats cheese due to the interaction of MAOI width tyramine
78
what are Zola’s 5 social tiggers leading to consultation?
1. perceived interference with vocational or physical activity 2. perceived interference with social or personal relationships 3. occurrence of an interpersonal crisis 4. temporising — setting a personal deadline eg. “just 2 more nosebleeds” or “if not better by monday” 5. sanctioning = pressure from family and friends
79
which receptor transduces vibration into APs?
pacinian receptors

PBL SEM 3 (49 decks)

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