extra patho questions Flashcards

These are NOT a part of the past exams (side effect= feeling stressed that you forgot everything)

1
Q

Which of these is NOT made by a cell during inflammation?

a. histamine
b. prostaglandins
c. cytokines
d. chemokines
e. kinins

A

e. kinins

produced in the liver and is located in the plasma

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2
Q

Which one does NOT increase vascular permeability?

a. histamine
b. leukotrienes
c. kinins
d. cytokines

A

d. cytokines

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3
Q

Which one of these does NOT mediate pain?

a. prostaglandins
b. bradykinin
c. histamine

A

c. histamine

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4
Q

Which of these plasma proteins is elevated in chronic inflammation?

a. albumin
b. gamma globulins
c. alpha 2 globulins
d. B and C

A

d. B and C

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5
Q

Which of these plasma proteins is elevated in acute inflammation?

a. albumin
b. gamma globulins
c. alpha 2 globulins
d. beta globulins

A

c. alpha 2 globulins

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6
Q

What happens to plasma level concentration of patients with cirrhosis?

a. high albumin
b. low albumin
c. high alpha 1 globulins

A

b. low albumin

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7
Q

What occurs to C reactive proteins when the body is under attack?

A

It increases

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8
Q

True/False: Exudates have low protein levels and a few cells

A

False, they have lots of protein and cells (can be purulent or serous exudate)

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9
Q

Which of the following is a FLASE statement about lipofuscin granules?

a. they’re made from fat and protein
b. they appear to be yellow or brown
c. they’re insoluble
d. they can be found in nephrotic tissue

A

d. they can be found in nephrotic tissue

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10
Q

What is a Haptoglobin protein? What does it do and why is it clinically helpful?

A

Haptoglobin is a protein that binds free hemoglobin released from erythrocytes. When its levels are reduced, it means that the RBC’s are getting destroyed (hemolysis)
(It also prevents iron-utilizing bacteria from benefiting from hemolysis)

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11
Q

What is multiple myeloma? Why does the disease occur?

A

it’s a systemic primary amyloidosis, where plasma cells in the bone marrow overproduce immunoglobulin light chains. Those excess light chains go into the blood, fold and become amyloids, and build up in tissues of various organs.

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12
Q

Describe the levels of Serum Amyloid A in a patient with arthritis

A

SAA levels would be high because he has chronic inflammation, his liver would produce more + Acute Phase Reactants as a response.

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13
Q

Which of these cells are the parenchymal cells of the liver?

a. Kupffer cells
b. Endothelial cells
c. Hepatocytes
d. Stellate cells

A

c. Hepatocytes

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14
Q

what triggers hepatocyte proliferation?

A

Cytokines and polypeptide growth factors

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15
Q

Describe the basic steps of scar formation

A
  1. Angiogenesis starts and new vessels are made
  2. Fibroblast synthesis is triggered by growth factors
  3. Fibroblasts are made from mesenchymal and stem cells
  4. They produce collagen (connective tissue to fill the empty space)
  5. The collagen is remodeled by metalloproteinases
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16
Q

Which of these speeds up wound healing?

a. early motion
b. ionizing radioation
c. UV rays
d. Gamma rays

A

c. UV rays

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17
Q

Who is most likely to develop ulcerations?

a. Malnutritioned patient
b. Atherosclerosis patient

A

b. Atherosclerosis patient

it occurs because of low blood supply

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18
Q

Where would a venus embolism most likely go?

a. kidney
b. brain
c. lungs
d. lower limbs

A

c. lungs

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19
Q

how can you tell the difference between a real and a fake thrombus?

A

the genuine one has an attachment point where it attaches to the blood vessels. The fake thrombus formed post mortem and is jelly-like.

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20
Q

How is a broken femur and thrombocytopenia related?

A

When long bones break, fat embolisms can form (the bone marrow goes into the blood) and the fat embolisms attract the platelets and cause thrombocytopenia

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21
Q

Which of these cannot be found inside a lipoprotein?

a. triglycerides
b. free cholesterol
c. cholesterol esters

A

b. free cholesterol

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22
Q

which of these does not have apolipoprotein E?

a. Chylomicrons
b. VLDL
c. LDL
d. HDL

A

c. LDL

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23
Q

Where are tuberous xanthoma nodules located?

a. under the eyes
b. on the tendons
c. on extensor joint surfaces

A

c. on extensor joint surfaces

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24
Q

Patients with eruptive xanthoma have elevated _ levels

a. Triglycerides
b. Plasma LDL cholesterol

A

a. Triglycerides

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25
What are the types of shock?
SNACH | Septic, Neurogenic, Anaphylactic, Cardiogenic, Hypovolemic
26
which cancer is known to cause tunnel vision?
Pituitary adenoma
27
Where do gastrointestinal tumors likely metastasize?
into the liver via the venous system
28
Which cancer type is known to be aggressive and fast spreading
Sarcoma (malignant tumour of connective)
29
Burkitt's lymphoma is due to what gene? a. CD95 b. BCL2 c. APC
a. Translocation that activates BCL2 gene
30
RAS colon mutation is due to what DNA change?
Point mutation
31
Neuroblastoma is due to what DNA change?
Amplification
32
True/False: during liver proliferation, the nonparenchymal cells replicate, followed by parenchymal cell replication
False; parenchymal cells (hepatocytes) replicate first then are followed by nonparenchymal ( Kupffer cells, Endothelial cells, & Stellate cells)
33
What do you call it when pancreatic tissue is found in the GI tract? a. teratoma b. hamartoma c. choristoma
c. choristoma | tissue at another site
34
A patient lived through a bomb attack. Which of these is he least likely to have? a. chronic lymphocytic leukemia b. acute lymphocytic leukemia c. acute myeloid leukemia
a. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
35
Which of these causes Bloom's syndrome? a. Mutated BRCA1 and 2 genes b. Mutated nucleotide excision repair pathway c. Mutated DNA mismatch repair pathway d. Defective helicase
d. Defective helicase
36
Which of these causes Xeroderma pigmentosum? a. Mutated BRCA1 and 2 genes b. Mutated nucleotide excision repair pathway c. Mutated DNA mismatch repair pathway d. Defective helicase
b. Mutated nucleotide excision repair pathway
37
Which of these causes Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer? a. Mutated BRCA1 and 2 genes b. Mutated nucleotide excision repair pathway c. Mutated DNA mismatch repair pathway d. Defective helicase
c. Mutated DNA mismatch repair pathway
38
Which of these causes breast cancer? a. Mutated BRCA1 and 2 genes b. Mutated nucleotide excision repair pathway c. Mutated DNA mismatch repair pathway d. Defective helicase
a. Mutated BRCA1 and 2 genes
39
Which of the following is a direct acting carcinogen? a. polycyclic hydrocarbons b. benzyl chloride c. cigarettes
b. benzyl chloride | nitrogen mustard is also a direct carcinogen
40
Which of these are found at a higher frequency in the elderly? a. Common Lymphocyte Progenitors (CLPs) b. Mature T cells c. Granulocyte Macrophage Progenitors (GMPs) d. Mature B cells
c. Granulocyte Macrophage Progenitors (GMPs)
41
True/False: Systolic pressure tends to increase with age while diastolic pressure tends to decreases
true
42
What's the function of Apo B-100?
Ligand for LDL receptor
43
What's the function of Apo C2?
Activator of LDL
44
Which TWO of these does the lab measure in the lipid profile? a. Apo A1 b. HDL c. Apo B d. Total cholestrol e. TG e. LDL
a. Apo A1 & c. Apo B
45
Patients with Corneal Arcutus Lipidus and Xanthelasma both have high levels of a. Triglycerides b. Plasma LDL cholesterol
Plasma LDL cholesterol
46
What is Tangier disease? a. A total lack of Apo B b. A partial lack of Apo B c. Low HDL concentrations c. Low LCAT concentrations
c. Low HDL concentrations AKA alphalipoproteinaemia (abnormal apo A)
47
Why do progeroid syndromes occur? a. DNA damage occurs at a very high rate b. DNA repair system response is low
b. DNA repair system response is low
48
Hutchinson-Gilford progeria syndrome is caused by a. Excess prelamin A b. Prelamin A deficiency c. Recessive mutant gene d. helicase deficiency
b. Prelamin A deficiency | causing abnormal nuclear structure
49
Which of the following activates the M1 pathway of macrophages? a. IL4 b. IFN-Y c. TGF d. TNF
b. IFN-Y
50
Which of the following activates the M2 macrophage pathway? a. IL-13 b. IFN-Y c. TGF d. TNF e. IL-4 f. a&e g. c&d
f. a&e
51
Which of the following diseases has a granuloma that has asteroid bodies? a. TB b. Sarcoidosis c. Crohn's disease
b. Sarcoidosis
52
Which of the following diseases has a granuloma that has center necrosis? a. TB b. Sarcoidosis c. Crohn's disease
a. TB
53
What type of granuloma is associated with TB? a. caseating b. coagulative c. liquefactive
a. caseating
54
Hashimoto's thyroiditis is characterized by a. Hurthle dysplasia b. Hurthle metaplasia
b. Hurthle metaplasia
55
In which of these are you most likely to find metastasis? a. spleen b. liver c. skeletal muscles d. heart
b. liver | the rest are resistant to metastasis
56
Which of the following increases calcium levels a. Calcitonin b. Hypoparathyroidism c. Milk-alkali syndrome
c. Milk-alkali syndrome
57
Which of the following causes the yellow color seen in jaundice? a. melanin b. myoglobin c. bilirubin d. hematin
c. bilirubin
58
Which of the following is correct? a. light-skinned people have fewer melanocytes b. dark-skinned people have more melanocyte concentrations c. melanocytes are less activate in light-skinned people
c. melanocytes are less activate in light-skinned people
59
Which of the following does NOT cause generalized hyperpigmentation? a. addison's disease b. hemochromatosis c. hypothyroidism d. thyrotoxicosis
c. hypothyroidism | all the rest cause hyperpigmentation
60
Which of the following is most commonly found in papillary thyroid carcinoma? a. asteroid bodies b. psammoma bodies c. schaumann bodies
b. psammoma bodies
61
Describe a patient with marasmus? a. enlarged and fatty liver b. somatic protein compartment is depleted c. ascites is present
b. somatic protein compartment is depleted
62
In which of the following does the head appear enlarged in comparison to the body? a. marasmus b. kwashiorkor
a. marasmus
63
Which of these is not affected by vitamin A deficiency? a. eyes b. kidneys c. liver d. lungs
c. liver
64
Which of these is not related to a vitamin A deficiency? a. pulmonary infections b. bladder stones c. blindness d. cirrhosis
d. cirrhosis
65
Which of the following causes a vitamin B12 deficiency? a. pernicious anemia b. megaloblastic anemia c. both
a. pernicious anemia megaloblastic anemia is caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency, not the other way around (be careful!)
66
Which of these is water soluble? a. retinol b. vitamin B12 c. vitamin D
b. vitamin B12 | vitamin C is also water soluble
67
7-dehydrocholesterol is a precursor of a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B12 c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D e. Cholesterol
d. Vitamin D
68
a 27-year-old computer programmer breaks several bones a year and has extremely low vitamin D, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. rickets b. osteomalacia
b. osteomalacia programmer = limited sunlight low Vit. D= unmineralized bone rickets= for kids
69
Which is true? a. as PTH hormone increases, calcium decreases b. as PTH hormone increases, calcium increases c. as calcitonin increases, calcium increases
b. PTH hormone increases, calcium increases
70
A deficiency in which of these leads to inadequate osteoid synthesis? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B12 c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D e. Cholesterol
c. Vitamin C
71
Which of the following describes leptin levels of obese people a. leptin levels too low b. leptin receptors too sensitive c. leptin levels desensitized
c. leptin levels desensitized | high leptin
72
Which of the following regulates appetite and satiety? a. central hypothalamic system b. afferent system c. efferent system
b. afferent system
73
Which of the following regulates energy balance? a. central hypothalamic system b. afferent system c. efferent system
c. efferent system
74
Which of these stimulates appetite? a. leptin b. peptide YY c. ghrelin
c. ghrelin | the rest are satiety signals
75
What occurs when leptin levels fall? a. appetite stimulated and energy is conserved b. appetite reduced and energy is burned c. satiety signals increase
a. appetite stimulated and energy is conserved
76
Which of the following has the lowest concentration of intracellular calcium? a. ER b. Cytosol c. Mitochondria
b. Cytosol | the mitochondria has the highest concentration
77
Which of these is associated with hypercalcemia? a. osteoplastic metastasis b. sarcoidosis c. hypoalbuminemia
b. sarcoidosis | causes vitamin D sensativity
78
whats the precursor to bone?
osteoid (its calcified to form bone)
79
Which of the following lays down osteoid? a. osteoclasts b. osteoblasts c. chondroblasts
b. osteoblasts
80
Which of the following requires more osteoclasts (for bone resorption?) a. fracture bone ends freely moving b. comminuted fracture c. Interposition of soft tissue between the fracture d. poor blood supply e. vitamin C deficiency
b. comminuted fracture
81
which two of these may cause nonunion of the bone? a. fracture bone ends freely moving b. comminuted fracture c. Interposition of soft tissue between the fracture d. poor blood supply e. vitamin C deficiency
a. fracture bone ends freely moving (non/delayed union) | c. Interposition of soft tissue between the fracture
82
how is mRNA processed? a. RNE polymerase translocates b. CAP and poly-A tail are added c. It's folded
b. CAP and poly-A tail are added
83
At what stage is the protein folded? a. transcription b. processing c. translation
c. translation
84
T/F: all genetic disorders are hereditary
false; hereditary disorders occur in germ cells, while genetic disorders can occur in somatic cells
85
in sickle cell disease, a point mutation causes glutamine to change into a. valine b. proline c. serine
a. valine
86
whole chromosome loss is called
aneuploidy
87
Why is the BCR-ABL gene in the Philadelphia chromosome associated with CML? a. it makes the GF receptor sensitive b. it generates GF's c. it generates signals that mimic GF receptor activation
c. it generates signals that mimic GF receptor activation
88
What most accurately describes necrosis? a. the cytoplasm shrinks b. the cytoplasm swells c. usually occurs in individual cells, not in groups d. does not cause inflammation
b. the cytoplasm swells
89
Which of the following causes cytochrome C to leave the mitochondria, possibly leading to apoptosis? a. Caspases b. Growth factors c. Bcl-2 protein d. Bax/bak channel
d. Bax/bak channel
90
Which of the following causes lipid deposition in the cells? a. nuclear chromatin clumping b. influx of calcium c. reduced PH of cell d. decreased protein synthesis
d. decreased protein synthesis | the proteins are used to escort lipids out of the cells, so without them, the lipid builds up
91
Which of the following is FLASE about ROS induced cell injury? a. promotes double bond formation of lipid membrane b. promotes disulfide-mediated protein cross-linking c. it reacts with the thymine in DNA
b. promotes disulfide-mediated protein cross-linking | should be sulfhydryl-mediated
92
Where does glycogen NOT accumulate? a. skeletal muscle b. pancreas c. cardiac muscle d. kidney
a. skeletal muscle
93
What is gangrenous necrosis?
coagulative necrosis and a bacterial infection
94
Which of the following causes exudate production? a. kidney diseases b. liver failure c. bacterial infection
c. bacterial infection | a and b are for transudate
95
high immunoglobulin levels indicate a. monocolonal gammopathy b. hypogammaglobulinemia
a. monocolonal gammopathy
96
Which of the following can increase albumin levels? a. dehydration b. dilution c. Increased catabolism
a. dehydration
97
Which of the following does NOT indicate low apha 1 antitrypsin? a. cholestasis b. cancer c. cirrhosis d. emphysema
b. cancer
98
How does vitamin D effect calcium levels? a. decrease calcium resorbtion b. breaks down bone to increase calcium levels c. increases calcium absorbtion
c. increases calcium absorbtion
99
Which thrombus has lines of Zahn? a. arterial b. venous
a. arterial
100
Which of the following occur on the cornea of the eye? a. keratomalacia b. bitot spots
a. keratomalacia
101
what does transcoelomic spread of cancer mean? a. spread via the blood b. spread via the veins c. spread via pleural space d. spread directly from one cite to another
c. spread via pleural space
102
Which of these cells makes blocks the effect of anti-proteases? a. neoplastic cell b. stromal cell
a. neoplastic cell
103
Which of the following is most likely to occur to a person who's exposed to asbestos? a. lung cancer b. malignant mesothelioma c. transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder
b. malignant mesothelioma a= smokers c= rubber/dye industry
104
familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is due to what gene? a. CD95 b. BCL2 c. APC d. BRCA2
c. APC gene (APC= adenomatous polyposis coli gene FAP causes extra tissue (polyps) to form in your large intestine and rectum which develop into cancer)
105
hepatocellular carcinoma is due to what gene? a. CD95 b. BCL2 c. APC
a. CD95 | the gene is reduced
106
during septic shock, the LPS bind to ____ molecules on leukocytes
CD14
107
What occurs at moderate doses of LPS? a. acute inflammatory response b. systemic effects and fever c. endothelial injury, coagulation cascade, and septic shock or hypoperfusion
b. systemic effects and fever
108
acute renal failure causes a. metabolic acidosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. respiratory acidosis
a. metabolic acidosis
109
Which of the following regulates epigenes post-transcriptionally? a. methylation b. non-coding RNA c. acetylation
b. non-coding RNA | protein phosphorylation too
110
Which of the following non-coding RNA's stop translation? a. miRNA b. ncRNA
a. miRNA | b= regulate transcription & post-transcription
111
which of the following is FALSE about chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)? a. can be treated with tyrosine kinase inhibitors b. myeloid progenitor cells are signal independent c. BCR-ABL fusion protein makes signals that mimic GF's
b. myeloid progenitor cells are signal independent | they are dependent on growth factor signals
112
Why does type 2 diabetes mellitus occur? a. the body does into an anabolic state b. cytokine production becomes very low c. the insulin receptors are not activated as much
c. the insulin receptors are not activated as much | reduced phosphorylation-dependent activation
113
How can a cell recover when under ER stress? a. produce more protein b. produce more chaperones c. produce more prions
b. produce more chaperones
114
Which of the following does a high level of alpha-fetoprotein in an adult indicate? a. down's syndrome b. hepatoma c. wilson's disease d. impaired kidney function
b. hepatoma
115
Which of the following is a transport protein of vitamin A? a. Albumin b. Prealbumin c. Ceruloplasmin d. Microglobulin
b. Prealbumin | aka- transthyretin
116
Patient comes in with high beta-2-microglobulin serum levels, what is this indicative of? a. down's syndrome b. hepatoma c. wilson's disease d. impaired kidney function
d. impaired kidney function
117
Which of the following is a nonspecific indicator of disease? a. Albumin b. Elevated CSF protein c. Ceruloplasmin d. Microglobulin
b. Elevated CSF protein
118
Which of the following is a tumor marker of multiple myeloma, leukemia, and lymphomas? a. Albumin b. Elevated CSF protein c. Ceruloplasmin d. Microglobulin
d. Microglobulin
119
Which of the following makes an incisional hernia more likely? a. hyperproteinemia b. metalloproteinase deficiency c. vitamin D deficiency d. zinc deficiency
d. zinc deficiency (protein, zinc, & vitamin C are all important for collagen synthesis. If collagen production is low, a hernia occurs because of weak scar formation)
120
Which of the following may lead to keloid formation? a. hyperproteinemia b. metalloproteinase deficiency c. vitamin D deficiency d. zinc deficiency
b. metalloproteinase deficiency | that protein clears out extra collagen
121
which of the following lead to neurological defects? a. alphalipoproteinaemia b. betalipoproteinaemia c. LCAT deficiency
b. abetalipoproteinemia | Apo B absence leads to a decrease of fat-soluble vitamins and that leads to neurological defects
122
Which of the following have high LDL? a. Xanthelasma b. Xanthoma
a. Xanthelasma | b= high triglycerides
123
What causes ARDS? a. shock b. pneumonia c. pulmonary infection d. oxygen toxicity e. toxins d. corporal pumps
all of the above
124
What is disseminated intravascular coagulation and what can cause it?
it's the activation of the coagulation system which forms clots throughout the body. the main cause is sepsis (high dose of LPS)
125
Which of the following does a patient with Addison's disease have? a. hypokalemia b. hyperkalemia
b. hyperkalemia | Addison's causes low steroid hormones, steroids are inversely proportional to potassium
126
Which of the following is the result of secondary hyperaldesterinism? a. hypovolemia b. hypervolemia
b. hypervolemia | aldosterone is important for sodium conservation, so Na and water are resorbed
127
Which of the following is describes hyperchloraemic acidosis? a. has a high anion gap b. has a low anion gap c. CO2 compensates the bicarbonate loss d. chloride compensates the bicarbonate loss
d. chloride compensates the bicarbonate loss | it has a normal anion gap
128
Which best describes Li-Fraumeni syndrome a. RAS mutation b. p53 mutation
b. p53 mutation | it's inherited and leads to cancer
129
Which of the following degrades the ECM to allow cancer metastasis? a. Urase b. Nitrogen oxide c. Metalloproteinases
c. Metalloproteinases
130
Which of the following occurs as a result of Bence Jones protein accumulation? a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies b. senile systemic amyloidosis c. primary systemic amyloidosis d. secondary systemic amyloidosis
c. primary systemic amyloidosis | Bence Jones protein = immunoglobulin light chain
131
Which of the following occurs as a result of transthyretin (TTR) mutation? a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies b. senile systemic amyloidosis c. hemodialysis-associated amyloidosis d. secondary systemic amyloidosis
a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies | b= structurally normal TTR is deposited
132
Which of the following occurs as a result of structurally normal transthyretin (TTR) accumulation? a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies b. senile systemic amyloidosis c. hemodialysis-associated amyloidosis d. secondary systemic amyloidosis
b. senile systemic amyloidosis
133
Which of the following occurs as a result of beta 2 microglobulin accumulation? a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies b. senile systemic amyloidosis c. hemodialysis-associated amyloidosis d. secondary systemic amyloidosis
c. hemodialysis-associated amyloidosis
134
which of the following commonly affects the heart? a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies b. senile systemic amyloidosis
b. senile systemic amyloidosis | a= CNS
135
Chronic exposure to increased systolic pressure leads to a. right atrial hypotrophy b. left atrial hypertrophy c. right ventricular hypotrophy d. left ventricular hypertrophy
d. left ventricular hypertrophy
136
The mutation causing Werner's syndrome leads to Hutchinson-Gilford progeria syndrome is caused by a. Excess prelamin A b. Prelamin A deficiency c. Recessive mutant gene d. helicase deficiency
d. helicase deficiency | effects DNA repair
137
What are sirtuins?
modulate pathways that are anti-aging (ex/ stimulate protein folding & increase metabolic activity)
138
Which of the following pigments is hemoglobin derived? a. myoglobin b. lipofuscin c. hemosiderin d. neuromelanin
c. hemosiderin | bilirubin is also hemoglobin derived
139
Which of the following pigments is catecholamine derived? a. myoglobin b. lipofuscin c. hemosiderin d. neuromelanin
d. neuromelanin
140
What is hemochromatosis? a. too much melanin builds up b. too much iron builds up c. too much calcium builds up
b. too much iron builds up
141
What is Addison's disease? a. ACTH precursor hormones low b. ACTH precursor hormones high c. ACTH precursor hormones block melanocyte stimulation
b. ACTH precursor hormones high | ACTH precursors stimulate melanocytes
142
A deficiency in which vitamin is associated with neurologic lesions? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B12 c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin B12