Extra path from revision Flashcards

1
Q

ACR nephrotic and prenephrotic

A

3-30

>30

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2
Q

MCNS oedema

A

peri-orbitAL

associated with URTI or vaccination

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3
Q

prolif vs membranoprolif GN

A

prolif is 1-2 weeks after URTI

memprolif is 1-2 days after URTI

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4
Q

histology of prolif GN

A

massive gloms

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5
Q

histology of membranoprolif

A

thick mesangium

crescent hyaline

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6
Q

VHL syndrome

A

haemangioblastoma of retina, cerebellum, bilateral RCC, renal cysts

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7
Q

fibrol;amellar HCC prognosis

A

better prognosis

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8
Q

RFs for angiosARCOMA

A

ANABOLIC STEROIDS

ARSENIC

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9
Q

french onion skin ERCP

antibody

A

primary sclerosing cholangiytis

pANCA

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10
Q

M rule in PBC

A

IgM
AMA+ (M2 subtype)
Middle aged females

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11
Q

70% of PBC have what?

A

sicca syndrome

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12
Q

mutation and chr of
wilson
haemochroma
A1AT

A

AR 13
AR 6
Co-dom 14

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13
Q

menstrual bleeding and haemochromatosis

A

proptective, hence why it’s mostly males

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14
Q

autoimmune hepatitis LFTs

A

High ALT
IgG (B cells)
ANA+

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15
Q

how many bronchopulmonary segments

A

10

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16
Q

lobar organism

bronchogenic organism

A

strep pneumo

less virulent staph

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17
Q

abscess formers

A

klebsiella + strep pneumo

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18
Q

culture time for TB

A

5-6 weeks

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19
Q

oat cell

A

c-myc mutation small cell carinoma

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20
Q

kras mutation lung cancer

A

adenocarcinoma (peripheral)

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21
Q

cavitating central lesions

A

squamous cell (most smoking one)

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22
Q

highest risk of becoming dysplastic in barretts

A

intestinal type

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23
Q

chief cells

parietal cells

A

mucus and bicarb

acid and intrinsic factor

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24
Q

which bits have parietal cells

A

bondy and fundus

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25
Q

MALT lymphome, B or T

A

B

compared to EATL in coeliac which is t cell

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26
Q

who is at risk of stomach cancer

A

japanese
chinese
korean

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27
Q

GIST cells

A

interstitial cajal cells

imatinib

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28
Q

BRCA1
BRCA 2

chromosome

A

17

13

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29
Q
formation of cancer
DCIS
LCIS
DI
LI
A

linear
lobule

nest
single file lines

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30
Q

% maliugnant of phalloydes

A

1/3

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31
Q

brody abcess

A

osteomyelitis

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32
Q

most commom place for osteomyeklitis

A

primxal tibia
distal femur
in metaphysios where blood supply is less good

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33
Q

pagets complications

A

deafness
high outp[ut cardiac failure
osteosarcoma 1% in life
fractures

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34
Q

conventional
myxoid

chondrosarcomasd

A

hyaline

clear/de-defferentiated

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35
Q

mantel cell

germinal centre

A

diffuse B cell lymphoma

BUrkitts’s and hodgkin

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36
Q

juvenile polyposis presentation

mutation

A

rectal bleeding and prolapse of polyp

AD SMAD4

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37
Q

PJeghers presentation

mutation

A

intussuception

AD STK11

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38
Q

dukes staging

A

A muscul;aris propria
B into serosa.
C into lymoph nodes
D mets

90
70
30
1

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39
Q

HNPCC

A

AD mismatch repair leading to microsatllite instability

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40
Q

FAP

A

AD APC

not present at birth

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41
Q

age for classical seminoma

A

30

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42
Q

race for least testicular carcinoma

race for prostate

A

black

black > white > asian

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43
Q

how does HPV 16/18 cause SCC

A

E6 –> inhibits p53

E7 –> inhibits Rb

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44
Q

name for cell infected by HPV

A

koilocytes

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45
Q

age for4 vaccine

A

13

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46
Q

screening for cervical cancer

A

every 5 years

25-64

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47
Q

fibroids
adxenomyosis
endometriosis

A

heavy pelvis + bleeding. aka leiomyoma
pain + symmetrically enlarged uterus
pain + bleeding

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48
Q

mature teratoma aka

A

dermoid cyst

49
Q

cystic teratoma B or M

A

benign

50
Q

phaeochromocytoma rule of 10

A

10% extra drenal
10% biulateral
10-% no HTN
10% malignant

51
Q

MI
12-24
3-7days
2-8wks

A

dark mottling
central yellow tan + hyperaemic borders
grey white scar

52
Q

CFTR mutation

A

AR CTFR

53
Q

platelets in iroin def anaemia

A

increased

54
Q

film for iron def anaemia

A

penicl
hypochromic
variable red cell size (red cell districbution)

55
Q

TIBC in iron def anaemia

A

increased due to increased transferrin (but ferritin is low)

56
Q

where is folate absorbed

b12

A
jejunum
terminal ileum (IF)
57
Q

b12 and folate giving back

A

IM B12

then

oral folate

58
Q

herediatry sphero
G6PDH
PK

inheritancer

A

AD
X-linked
AR

59
Q

when do you tranfuse in sickle

A

in a crisius

before majroo surgery

60
Q

investigation for sickel stroke

A

transcranial doppler

61
Q

types of stokje in sickle

A

20-30 = haemorahgic

otherwise ischaemic

get headache seizure and syncope weirdly

62
Q

gingival hyperplasi

Downs

A

AML

63
Q

Tx for APML

A

ATRA

64
Q

ibrutinib

A

for 17p del of p53 CLL

65
Q

Classifcation of CLL

A

Binet
1 <3
2 3+
3 with myelosuppresion

66
Q

Richers

A

CLL

into diffuse large B cell lymphoma (a nmon-H)_

67
Q

AML

FLT3 and NPM1

A

FLT3-
NMP1 +
GOOD

68
Q

Rfs for
Hodkgkin
NH B
NH T

A

EBV, smoking
HIV, smoking
HTLV1

69
Q

continguous

A

Hodkjkine

70
Q

myeloma RBCs

A

roloueax

71
Q

cutoffs for myeloma

A

MGUS 10% and <30g/l —-6m
SMoul in between ——3m
Myeloma + CRABI or >60%

72
Q

management of spinal cord compression in myeloma

hyperviscostiy syundrome

A

steroids
MRI and ?surgery

isovolaemic vene3section

73
Q

thalidomide

A

myelooma

as well as steroids and proteosome inhibitors

74
Q

inheritance of vWD

A

AD

75
Q

treatment fo TTP

DIC

A

plasma exchange to dilute Abs. platelets are CI.

give everything back (platelts, FFP cryo etc)

76
Q

reversing herpain

A

protamine

77
Q

severe bleed on warfarin
minor bleed but INR >8
minor bleed

A

IV vit K and octaplex
IV vit K
orla vit K

78
Q

monitoring warfarin

A

every 6 weeks once stable

79
Q

irradiated blood

CMV- blood (methyleene blu8e)

A

immunosuppressed

prtegnancy anbd <28 days

80
Q

test for acute haemolytic tranfusion reaction

A

direct antiglobin test

81
Q

acute vs delayed haemolyutic tranfusion reaction

A

24 hours is cutoff

acute = raised LDH
delayed = raised uncoinj bili
82
Q

definition ogf massive haemorage

A

systolic <90

HR >110

83
Q

treating TACIO

A

slow trnasufiosn and five fireosemide

84
Q

treating Q fever

A

tetracyline and hydroxcholroquine 1 year

85
Q

jaundice and hepatitis

A

goiod as it means its being cleared. kless chance of chornicity.

hence why children and HIV peoiple dont get jaundiceand it is usually asymotioamtic

86
Q

definiction os chrionic hepatities

A

> 6m

87
Q

worldwide leading cause of liver transplant

A

HCV

88
Q

natural distater hepatitis outbreak

A

HEV

89
Q

SIRS vs SOFA mental staus

A

SIRS uses AMTS

SOFA uses GCS

90
Q

rubella Sx

A

less florid rash
starts behind eard and preads
submandubular and behind ears swelline
deafness of foetus in pregnancy

91
Q

type of virus if flu

A

orthomyxovirus

ssRNA -ve sense with 8 biots oif RNA inside

92
Q

why is aciclovir so specific for viruses

A

needs to be triple phosphorylated and the first one needs and viral enzyme not human one

93
Q

parvoviruis B19

A

prodrom flu like illness then slapped cheeks

death of newborn if pregnant mum

94
Q

bronchilotis

croup

A

RSV

parainfluenza

95
Q
CURB65
0-1
2
3
4-5

CRB65
0
1-2
3+

A

home amox 5 days
hospital amox+ clari 7 days
hostpiral coamox+vlari 7 days
ITU traz

home amox 5 days
hospital
ITU

96
Q

most common ventilator associated

A

psuedomonas

97
Q

pH for empyema

A

<7.2

98
Q

features of mycobacteruium

A

rods
facutative anaerobe
non motile
non-spore forming

99
Q

until when are you conagious with TB after treatment

A

2 weeeks, putin side room until then

remember
2m RIPE
4m RI

100
Q

meningeal TB

A

2m RIPE

10m RI

101
Q

latent TB

A

3m RI

6m I

102
Q

MDR-TB

XDR-TB

A

resiwstent to RI

resistent to RI + 50% of second line drugs

103
Q

c.dif antibiotic

A

clindamycin

cephs (and other B lactams)

104
Q

treatment of HUS

A

no Abx (kidney damage)

105
Q

Ix of O157

A

phage typing

106
Q

malaria and platelrets

A

thombocytopnaenia

107
Q

thin or thick film to see rings

A

thin

108
Q

Tx or leishmaniasis

A

pentamidine or amphopterecin

109
Q

Tx schostomiasis

A

praziquantel (all helminths)

110
Q

urin sample for shistosmiasis

A

terminal urine at midday

6 weeks after infection

111
Q

septic arthritis

adults
IVDU
<3yo
sexu active

A

S.aureus
psudomonas
HIb
?gonohorea

112
Q

early vs late PJI

A

3m

113
Q

erisipelas
erisipeloid
erithasma

A

group B strep
eriseoi…..
corney

114
Q

type 1 nec fash

type 2 nec fash

A

poly - old men, diabetes, aocoholic, trama

grou A strep - IVDU

115
Q

how do HIV get in cell

A

GP120 on virion
binds to CD4 receptor on T cell
with help of CCr5/CXCR4

116
Q

seroconversion

A

6 weeks

flu like or asympt

117
Q

most common infection in AIDS

A

pneumocystic jiroveni

118
Q

most common lesion in brain in AIDS

A

toxoplasmosis (cats pooo meat)

119
Q

meningitis

0-3m
3m-6y
6y-60y
60+

A

e. coli, group B strep, listeria
n. men, s.pnumo, HIB
n. men, s.pneumo
n. men, s,pneumo, listeria