Extra Credit 3 Flashcards
What is the most common form of disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica ?
luminal invasive (dysentery)
During what seasons is Legionnaire’s disease the most prevalent?
summer and fall
Which of the following vaccinations is used to prevent chlamydia?
none of these
Which coagulase negative staphylococci are more likely to create a biofilm on artificial surfaces which can lead to infections.
S. epidermidis
true / false
Hypotension, shock, necrotic skin plaques that can cause gangrene are all potential symptoms of the severe forms (pneumonic or septicemic) of plague
true
Urine is acidic and contains lysozyme, which we know destroys the cell wall of unwanted bacterial cells, however, urine also contains lactoferrin. What is the role of lactoferrin?
Scavenges iron from our blood to reduce useful iron available for microbes.
true / false
The primary reservoir for toxoplasmosis, a disease of the central nervous system, is cats.
true
In which of the following geographical regions in the US is Lyme disease more likely to be found?
the atlantic coast
Oral herpes is most commonly caused by…
herpes simplex virus 1
true / false
Dengue fever can cause a type of hemorrhagic fever.
true
Which of the following are true of intoxications? (Check all that apply)
Are self-limiting, resolving even in the absence of medical intervention Are caused by exotoxins
Are associated with food poisoning
Which treatment option is one that is not recommended when a patient has amoebicdysentery (because it disrupts the body’s attempt to eliminate the pathogen?
anti-diarrheals
What is the primary means by which infectious mononucleosis is spread?
Contact with infected saliva
Which of the following is a way to prevent botulism?
ensure that any endospores in food are destroyed
What part of our population does otitis media commonly infect and how?
Children; spread from normal flora in the oropharynx to the sinus or middle ear
Globally, which animal is the biggest concern as a carrier of the rabies virus and its role in transmission to humans?
feral dogs
How do bacteria that cause meningitis most often get into the CSF?
Spread from the lungs, sinuses or inner ear via the blood
Which botulinum AB toxin is used clinically as botox?
A
Which of the following is not a common route of entry for Type II necrotizing fasciitis:
as a condition of poststreptococcal pharyngitis
true / false
A pregnant mother with chlamydia is able to pass the bacteria onto her child during birth, resulting in eye infections.
true
true / false
Uncomplicated cases of bacterial conjunctivitis may result in blindness.
false
All of the following are symptoms of tetanus except:
Diarrhea
Which are not symptoms of streptococcal pharyngitis? (select all that apply)
coughing
pseudomembrane
A 20 year old man came in complaining of inflammation around what appears to be a bite mark. He has a fever and is experiencing cardiac pain, shortness of breath, anemia, blurred vision, and increasingly severe weakness. He just got back from a safari trip and has been experiencing these symptoms since. What disease has he been exposed to?
Human African trypanasomiasis
Which region has the largest number of reported cases of HIV+ people?
Sub-Saharan Africa
How is malaria most commonly transmitted?
bite of female Anopheles mosquito
How can bacterial meningitis be diagnosed?
ALL OF THESE
Culture of CSF
Spinal tap
signs and symptoms of the patient
The virulence of the causative agent of malaria is most associated with which one of the following?
the ability to infect and live within human red blood cells
How is cholera spread?
ingestion of fecally-contaminated water
Other than Intravenous drug use, what is the most common route of entry for bacteria to cause bacterial endocarditis?
through cuts in the mucous membranes of the oral cavity
true / false
Two people both with AIDS can present to a doctor with dramatically different symptoms.
true
From what lifestage of tick does transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi typically occur in humans?
bite of an infected nymphal tick
The human papillomavirus can lead to the development of different types of warts such as cutaneous warts and anogenital warts. Which group of people is most at risk for developing cancer as a result of anogenital warts?
women
true / false
Worldwide, men infected wtih HIV outnumber women almost 2:1.
false
Which of the following is a bacterial infection of the endothelial surface of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves that leads to the formation of vegetations?
bacterial endocarditis
The part of the gastrointestinal tract with the largest natural microbiota, mainly Bacteroides and other anerobic bacteria, is the
large intestine
Which of the following is not considered a risk factor that raises the chance for peptic ulcers?
Eating spicy food
Encephalitis can be defined as…
inflammation of the brain
true / false
Many microbes can penetrate intact skin.
false
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome occurs in infants due to:
the production of an exotoxin
In the US, what is the most common way that HIV is transmitted?
homosexual contact between men
The way to treat typhoid fever is
antibiotics
How does Helicobacter pylori cause peptic ulcers?
Thins the mucus layer, exposing epithelial cells to gastric juice
Which of the following is not a characteristic used to define AIDS?
a history of unprotected sex
Place the following in the correct order for the pathogenesis of rabies starting after the virus enters via an animal bite:
- Virus replicates in muscle at site of bite
- Virus infects nerve in PNS, moves by retrograde transport
- Virus replicates in dorsal root and travels up spinal cord to brain
- Virus travels from brain via nerves to other tissues such as eye, kidneys, and salivary glands
- Severe neurological symptoms begin and death will almost invariably result
HIV is found in high enough concentration to theoretically cause disease in all of the following liquids, except:
tears
Which virulence factor in bacterial food poisoning causes inflamed tissue and stimulates the vomit centers in the brain?
heat-stable enterotoxins
This type of infection is a result of pathogens infecting the mother crossing the placenta and infecting the fetus.
postnatal infection
true / false
Bacterial enteritis is an intoxication of the intestine.
false
Which are risk factors of bacterial endocarditis? (check all that apply)
Implanted medical device
Damaged heart valves
History of illegal drug use
A young man presents at his ear, nose and throat doctor with Kaposi’s sarcoma, a rare vascular tumor that is associated with infection by herpesvirus 8. This condition is rarely seen in immunocompetent individuals. A blood test taken at the doctor’s office comes back with a high titer of antibodies to HIV. What other piece of information would you need to know to determine if this patient had AIDS?
the level of helper T cells in his blood
Which of the following protiens is responsible for activating newly-released HIV in order to make them virulent?
protease
How can most causes of arboviral encephalitis, like Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE) be prevented?
avoid mosquitoes
What population is whooping cough, pertussis, the most common in?
children
The virus that causes hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS) is most commonly transmitted how?
Breathing in the contaminated agent on dried animal feces
Which of the following animals are considered to be the likeliest reservoir for the bacterial agent that causes gonorrhea?
none of the above
monkeys, birds, pigs
Which of the following cell types is not infected by HIV?
B cells
What is the most common bacterial STI in the United States?
chlamydia
true / false
Streptococcal pharyngitis is treated so aggressively because of the risk of post-infection complications, such as scarlet fever and rheumatic fever.
true
What is the leading infectious cause of preventable and treatable blindness in the world?
trachoma
true / false
Although both types will result in AIDS, HIV-1 causes a more rapid progression to acquiring the immunodeficiency syndrome than HIV-2 does.
true
At what stage of the disease is repetitive cough with whoops, vomiting, and leukocytosis present in patients suffering from whooping cough?
Paroxysmal (2-4 weeks)
What are the most well-characterized virulence factors of Mycobacterium tuberculosis ? (Select all that apply)
mycolic acids
cord factor
true / false
The rabies virus can be transmitted through mucosal exposure to infectedtissue (CNS) or fluids (saliva).
true
Which is agent causes African sleeping sickness?
Trypanasoma brucei
Who is among the greatest risk for the arboviral encephalitis virus?
Elderly adults >65
What is the difference between the pH of prepubescent women and postpubescent/premenopausal women? Why?
The pH in premenopausal women is more acidic because the primary bacteria found in the vaginal canal at that stage are lactobacilli. Lactobacillus produces lactic acid making the pH acidic.
Measles, rubella, and fifth disease all must have which lesions: (Select all that apply)
macules
papules
All of the following are true about arboviral encephalitis except:
viruses in the peripheral nervous system cause the most serious infections
Antibiotic-associated colitis is characterized by:
systemic symptoms (fever, chills, confusion) associated with enteric fevers
What is the most likely way that HIV-1 arose in humans?
Chimpanzee hunters likely acquired the virus from blood of an infected chimpanzee
Which of these statements about cellulitis is false:
It is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis
Which of the following best characterizes the reason for the immunodeficiency seen in AIDS?
HIV infects and destroys helper T cells, thus eliminating the ability of the body to direct B cells to produce antibodies and cytotoxic T cells to recognize and remove virally infected cells.
Patient X has been infected with a certain strain of denguevirus and their body has responded by making antibodies to that strain and fought it off. Patient X then flies to South Africa where they are infected with a different strain of denguevirus. What will most likely be the patient’s response to this new virus?
It will most likely lead to hemorrhagic fever because they will have a hyperaggressive immune response to the second strain.
What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis leading to hospitalization?
Salmonella enterica
What is the primary determinant of the severity of an infection with the Epstein-Barr virus?
State of cell-mediated immunity of the host
How does the botulinim toxin affect your body function?
blocks the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitters from motor neurons, resulting in flaccid paralysis
Which is true regarding necrotizing fasciitis?
may be difficult to prevent in some cases because normal skin flora can cause it
true / false
Globally, homosexual males still account for more than 75% of all HIV+ cases.
false
Globally, how are most new cases of HIV acquired?
Sex between a man and a woman
Signs or symptoms of giardiasis can include which of the following:
grossly bloody diarrhea
This cause of a soft tissue infection following a deep penetrating wound, requires devitalized (dead, anaerobic) tissue to spread; this organism replicates about every 8 minutes and early diagnosis and treatment is critical to a successful outcome
Clostridium perfringens
What is almost always the ultimate cause of death of AIDS patients?
secondary infections due to an absent immune system
Which of the following diseases can not be prevented by properly preparing food and practicing good hygiene?
cholera
What organism(s) causes antibiotic-associated colitis?
Clostridiodes (formerly Clostridium) difficile
All of the following are potential signs or symptoms of the tertiary phase of syphilis except
chronic debilitating arthritis
All of the following are ways of acquiring HIV, except
contact with a contaminated toilet seat or sharing a glass
Which is a known risk factor in experiencing disease caused by Clostridium difficile ?
Exposure to additional antibiotics
The performance of which procedure is important for the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?
spinal tap
Which viral protein mediates the insertion of the HIV DNA into the host genome?
integrase
These proteins are associated with streptococcal pharyngitis and are the reason that certain strains cause rheumatic fever.
M proteins
All are signs and symptoms of cholera, except :
high persistent fever
Which of the following is the causative agent of Lyme disease in the United States?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Tuberculosis is a disease of the lower respiratory tract and is caused by a bacterial agent that encodes which of the following virulence factors?
mycolic acids
The lethal factor of cutaneous anthrax is responsible for:
the necrosis associated with the disease
Which of the follow is the identifying lesion of cutaneous anthrax?
the black eschar
Which microbe(s) are of MOST concern with bacterial septicemia, because of the risk of antibiotic resistance and the potential for endotoxic shock upon treatment?
Gram negative rods
true / false
HSV-2 infections are more common than HSV-1 infections.
false
A furuncle is:
Painful infection that forms around a hair follicle and extends into the deeper tissue; a boil
What gastrointestinal disease is associated with the consumption of heat-stable toxins?
food poisoning
