Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vascular technology boards > *extra attention* > Flashcards

*extra attention* Flashcards

1
Q

how long do the blood pressure cuffs need to be inflated for with reactive hyperemia?

A

3-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

with reactive hyperemia the thigh cuffs are inflated to supra systolic pressure that are usually ___- ____mmHg above the higher brachial

A

20-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

with reactive hyperemia patients who have single level disease experience a ____% drop in ankle pressure

A

<50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

with reactive hyperemia testing patients have multilevel arterial disease experience a pressure drop of what?

A

>50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F the standard allen test identifies whether the radial after can be used for bypass

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F when performing the standard allen test. if the color does not reappear after unclenching hand you suspect the radial artery is occluded or palmar arch obstruction

A

false ulnar artery is occluded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

all of the following techniques/ instruments can be used as “end point detectors” except? a. photoplethysmography b. displacement plethysmography c. stethoscope d.volume plethsmography e. CW doppler

A

B. displacement plethysmography is for the entire hang not for end points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

finger/ brachial indices of about __-__ characterize normal upper extremity digits

A

.8-.9 anything less is consistent with arterial disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

normal toes have pressures that range from ___% -___% of the brachial pressures

A

60-80% anything less has arterial occlusive disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is normal PBI? abnormal?

A

>=.75, <.65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when performing a impotency study what must you obtain?

A

ABI, obtain penile pressures using PPG or Doppler, apply pressure cuffs on upper arms, ankles and prox shaft of penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is pop entrapment syndrome?

A

compression of pap artery by medial head of gastrocnemius muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pop entrapment syndrome is found in who? and is bilateral in _____ of cases

A

young athletic men, 1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the significance of finding a PSV of 85 cm/sec in a dialysis graft?

A

you suspect the patient has arterial inflow problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

t/f higher velocities are normally seen throughout the graft and spectral broadening

A

true , PSV of 280 okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F an ABI is reduced by >.15 compared to previous exam this is wnl

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what would the significance of finding PSV of 70cm/sec in the aorta and 240 cm/sec in th elect renal artery?

A

it would be wnl because its 3 and anything less than 3.5 is considered wnl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a normal RAR?

A

<3.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is a abnormal RAR? what does it indicate?

A

>=3.5, 60% or greater diameter reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

t/f when evaluating flow in a native artery of the upper extremity PSVs can sidle vary secondary to changes in temp?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

t/f when interpreting flow in a native artery of the upper extremity, there is no criteria consistent with a >50% diameter reduction

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

t/f when interpreting flow in a native artery of the upper extremity, the stenosis profile is not evident in upper extremity disease

A

false, stenosis profile is evident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

t/f when interpreting flow in a native artery of the upper extremity, distal emboli may be associated with subclavian aneurysm

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when performing a study that includes segmental pressure measurements you understand the cuff size matters, which is the LEAST accurate statement about the selection of blood pressure cuffs? a. the length of the cuff is a critical factor in obtaining accurate pressures

b. narrow cuff can result in high pressure
c. with of the cuff should be 20% of limb diameter
d. a wide cuff can result in low pressures

A

a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

during inspiration what happens to intrathoracic pressure and venous flow to the upper extremities?

A

intrathoracic pressure decreases, abd pressure increases and upper extremities increase venous flow while lower extremities decrees venous flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/f vasoconstriction and vasodilation of the arterioles change peripheral resistance and profoundly affect blood flow in large arteries

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A thrombosis in the ICA can be secondary to what of the CCA?

A

dissection. a thrombi is created from the false lumen and lodge distally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

a venous duplex study provides important info to help determine if ablation would be viable treatment for venous reflux. which of the flowing factors is least important for successful outcome? a. caliber and depth b. duration of reflux c. presence of venous stasis changes d. course of the vesssle

A

b. if we are doing an ablation we already know there is venous reflux so it is not helpful while performing surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

a patient complains about aphasia, left hemiplegia, facial and arm weakness and behavioral changes where is the blockage?

A

RT middle cerebral artery… rt controls left; left controls rt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

angiography reveals a stenotic right ICA artery with residual lumen of 3 and true lumen of 9 what is the diameter reduction?

A

67% (1-3/9)x100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

for duplex scanning the criterion for deterring a >50% diameter reduction of the femoral artery is?

A

ratio of stenotic to prestenotic PSV >2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

a 20 year old male has high blood pressure and bilateral lower extremity pain with walking 3-4 blocks what disease process is most likely?

A

coarctation of the aorta, congenital narrowing or stricture of the thoracic ao may affect abdominal ao. clinical findings may include hypertension, due to decreased kidney perfusion and lower extremity ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the dicrotic notch is related to what action of the heart??

A

opening of the bicuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

with PtcO2 readings what is normal and what is abnormal?

A

normal >50mmHg . critical limb iscemia more often <20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

fasciotomy would be considered in what condition?

A

compartment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is compartment syndrome?

A

swelling within the osteofascial compartments of the leg, arm or abdomen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

the plantar arch consists of what two vessels?

A

deep plantar artery and lateral plantar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

a true aneurysm is a dilatation of what layers of the arterial wall?

A

all three layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where is the most common location for arterial aneurysm?

A

infrarenal ao

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

the neck of a pseudoaneurysm has a unique waveform what is that wave form?

A

to and fro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

where are the sited for ausculation ( listening through stethoscope) for arteries??

A

abdominal ao, the carotid, femoral and pop arteries

42
Q

what is pulsatility index? equation

A

PI=peak to peak frequency/ mean frequency

43
Q

a PI of ______ is normal for the common femoral artery, while a normal PI for the pop artery is?

A

>5.5, 8.0

44
Q

a PI of ______ in the common femoral artery with a patent superficial femoral artery has a good predictive value and indicates proximal aortoiliac occlusive disease

A

<5.0 some even say <4.0 pg 67 for iamges

45
Q

the acceleration time of _____msec in the CFA suggests the presence of significant iliac disease

A

>=133

46
Q

what is the advantage of a 4 cuff method

A

provides proximal and distal thigh pressure measurements

47
Q

what is the disadvantage of the 4 cuff method?

A

is that artifactually elevated pressures are obtaines IE the pressures at the high thigh level is normally >=30mmHg more than the higher brachial pressure

48
Q

the high thigh pressure is ___ mmHg greater than the HIGHER brachial pressures

A

30

49
Q

T?F the DIameter and length of a Arteriorvenous fistula predicts the resistance?

A

true

50
Q

AV fistula has what type of flow pattern?

A

bidirectional

51
Q

with AV fistula compared to normal artery, an artery proximal to the fistula has _____ flow. especially during diastole because the fistula markedly reduces ____.

A

increased flow, resistance

52
Q

With a AV fistula depending on the size, once blood flows past it there may be what type of flow beyond in the distal artery?

A

normal, triphasic

53
Q

with AV fistula blood pressure in the distal artery is always somewhat _____.

A

reduced

54
Q

venous flow approaching the AVF has _____ velocities, but the venous signal has increased pulsatility because of the connection with the artery.

A

elevated

55
Q

venous flow moving away from the AVF has ___ velocities throughout

A

elevated

56
Q

RAR calculation? normal and abnormal?

A

Renal artery PSV/ Aortic PSV <3.5 normal >= 3.5 abnormal, indicates 60% or greater diameter reduction

57
Q

RI for the kidneys equation? wnl and Abnl

A

PSV-EDV/ PSV normal:=.7

58
Q

What doe PRR measure?

A

Resistance with in the kidney parenchyma

59
Q

what is the equation for EDR aka PRR? wnl? abnl

A

end- diastolic- velocity/ peak systolic velocity normal: >=.2

60
Q

a lower resistance RRIV value of __ is associated with improvement in both blood pressure and renal function after correction in renal artery stenosis

A
61
Q

what is the calculation of RRIV:

A

1-EDV/PSV

62
Q

when evlauating kidney arterial flow an acceleration time ( AT) of >= 100msec is most consistent with what diameter reduction?

A

>=60%

63
Q

TRAM flap is surgically utilized in?

A

breast reconstruction

64
Q

What does IVUS stand for? what is it used for?

A

intravascular ultrasound uses ultrasound to see inside blood vessels

65
Q

in order for a stenosis to be 75% or greater the Stenosis PSV would have to be _____ x’s greater.

A

4 times

66
Q

if a patient has a ABI of .6 what disease range does that ABI fit into?

A

claudication

67
Q

T/F with laser doppler the optic light wave transmits a high power beam of light to the skin through a fiber optic cable

A

False, low power

68
Q

what is laser doppler used for?

A

determine of wound healing and amputation level, pedal arterial flow in diabetic patients

69
Q

Skin perfusion pressure (SPP) of _____ mmHg indicates likely to heal. what is abnormal?

A

>40. <30mmHg

70
Q

T/F volume pulse recordings ( PV) are incorporated in laser doppler exam

A

true

71
Q

What is associated with the systolic upstroke on analog or spectral analysis.

A

opening of the aortic valve

72
Q

at the end of systole the aortic valve closes what part of this is on analog analysis or spectral?

A

peak systole

73
Q

during late systole what happens for the waveform?

A

temporary flow reversal

74
Q

with photoplethysmography cutaneous blood flow determines the reflection. any increase in blood flow results in increased attenuation with _______ the reflection

A

decreases

75
Q

a patient may have calcified vessels that elevated blood pressure. another name for this is

A

medial calcinosis….. in the medial layer

76
Q

Normal ptcO2 on the foot is?

A

>50mmHg

77
Q

critical limb ischemia PtcO2 ( rest pain, ulcer, gangrene) is?

A

<20mmHg

78
Q

transcutaneous oximetry the electrode does what to the skin after it has been calibrated? why does it do this?

A

heats up, increasing blood flow and melting a lipid layer in the fatty tissue

79
Q

the TcPO2 measures what?

A

how much oxygen comes through the skin

80
Q

with TIA depending on the cerebral territory involved symptoms may include what?

A

sensory and motor dysfunction of arms or legs. hemiparythesis is a common symptom

81
Q

T/F DC coupling is an electrical voltage that uses either positive or negative with current only flowing in one direction

A

true

82
Q

T/F AC coupling flows unidirectional

A

false

83
Q

T/F AC coupling is used for venous studies

A

False DC because it detects slower changes in blood content

84
Q

T/F DC coupling is use for venous studies because it detects slower changed in blood

A

T

85
Q

AC coupling is used for what?

A

Arterial because of it requires more intense changes to produce a measurement

86
Q

T/F a wall outlet is an example of DC coupling

A

False, AC coupling, it delivers 120 volts of AC current

87
Q

Vessel coaptation refers to what?

A

compressibility

88
Q

vein that is able to accommodate increased flow volume with out significance in venous pressure is called what?

A

venous compliance

89
Q

acute onset of swelling, pallor and pain is associated with what?

A

phlegmasia alba dolens, acute iliofemoral vein thrombosis

90
Q

phlegmasia cerulea dolensis what?

A

another limb threatening complication on an acute iliofemoral vein thrombosis

91
Q

ascending venography is used to evaluate what?

A

acute deep venous thrombosis, congenital cenous disease and evlauate chronic changes

92
Q

descending venography is used for what?

A

to detect and quantify reversed flow from incompetent venous valves

93
Q

ascending phlebography is used for what?

A

deep vein thrombosis not incompent valves

94
Q

ascending venography requires that contrast agent is injected into what?

A

vein on the dosum of the foot

95
Q

descending venography usually has the contrast agent injected into what?

A

CFV

96
Q

T/F increased pressure gradient is usually evident between venules and arterioles when a patient has DVT

A

false…. decreased pressure gradient

97
Q

volume pleythsmography aka air plethysmography does what?

A

uses cuffs to infliate and deflate and give a reading in analog waveform

98
Q

what is photoplethysmography?

A

detects cutaneous blood flow and records pulsations rather than volume changes. sends infrared light into tissue. digital artery disease is detected

99
Q

all of the following are considered types of plethysmography except?

a. volume
b. photo
c. air
d. displacement
e. pressure

A

E pressure

100
Q

spectral doppler arterial signal obtained from the presence of a proximal high grade stenosis of occlusion would result in what?

A

tardus parvus, dampened or prolonged upstroke

101
Q

low velocities and increased acceleration time resulting in a more rounded waveform of the common carotid artery are consistent with what?

A

proximal disease

102
Q

severe cardiomyopathy may result in deminished velocities as well as an _______ in acceleration time is suggestive of proximal disease. explain

A

increased acceleration time. after flowing through a stenosis the flow becomes disturbed. the acceleration time is increased because it has to regain momentum. which means slower ( increased accelertation time) from peak to peak

Vascular technology boards (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions