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BIOL1900 > Exercise Physiology, Data analysis and some Psychology > Flashcards

Exercise Physiology, Data analysis and some Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

ATP stands for

A

Adenosine Tri Phosphate

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2
Q

What are 5 substrates ATP needs continual resynthesis from

A

Creatine phosphate, glucose, glycogen, fat, amino acids

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3
Q

What Enzyme catalyses ATP

A

ATPase

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4
Q

What is the breakdown energy release formula

A

ATP ———> ADP + PI + Energy

in reverse is REPHOSPHORYLATION

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5
Q

What are 3 users in the body of ATP

A

Myosin ATP
Na+ / K+ ATPase (sodium potassium pump)
Ca+ ATPase (calcium stored in cycoplasmic reticulum

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6
Q

What are the 3 energy systems

A

Creatine phosphate system
Glycolytic / lactic acid system
Oxidative / aerobic system

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7
Q

ATP-PC system is _X faster than glycolysis

A

2 X

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8
Q

How long can ATP system last for

A

3-15 seconds

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9
Q

The ATP system rate of energy transfer is __ X quicker than aerobic metabolism

A

4-8 X

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10
Q

How long does it take for ATP to replenish with exercise (give a unit e.g. hours)

A

Minutes

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11
Q

Where is creatine stored (regarding exercise)

A

In the muscles (Myosin ATPase)

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12
Q

ATP and PC are replenished from nutrients only when…

A

…exercise intensity is reduced or during recovery

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13
Q

The glycolytic / Lactic acid system is a ____ pathway and the fuels are ___

A

Chemical pathway

Fuels are glucose or glycogen

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14
Q

Lytic acid contains both anaerobic and aerobic components, true or false

A

True

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15
Q

Glycogen is important in the lactic acid system. Why it is also a fuel for intense exercise?

A

Because it can be broken down in the absence of oxygen as well as aerobically

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16
Q

What are the 3 fuels for metabolism

A

Fat, Carbohydrates and Protein (less common)

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17
Q

What is the time period in exercise where the glycolytic system is in place and what intensity

A

1-2 minutes

Intense effort

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18
Q

How many seconds does it take the glycolytic system to fully activate

A

5 seconds

ATP is first

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19
Q

What are by products of the glycolytic system

A

Lactic acid

Hydrogen ions

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20
Q

Where does the lactate go regarding the glycolytic energy system and what for

A

BLOOD:

  • Other muscle cells to be used as fuel
  • Liver to make new glucose
  • Muscle and brain
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21
Q

Can lactate be used as a fuel?

A

Yes, at low intensities

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22
Q

Fatigue from lactate can lead to

A

Delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

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23
Q

What are the fuels for the oxidative / aerobic system

A

Glucose

Fatty Acid

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24
Q

Where does oxidative system generate from

A

Mitochondria

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25
Q

What time period is oxidative energy system in place

A

beyond 2-3 minutes

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26
Q

The Creb cycle and electron transport chain are involved regarding what energy system

A

Oxidative

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27
Q

The maximal limit of the oxidative system is defined by what measure

A

V02 Max

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28
Q

True or false: All energy systems are active at the same time

A

TRUE

Systems are just more predominantly used at different times compared to others

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29
Q

As intensity increases:

What fuel increases in demand? Which fuel is decreased in demand?

A

Increases: Carbohydrates
Decreases: Fats

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30
Q

What is the predominant fuel when exercising at a low intensity

A

FAT

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31
Q

What fuel do we want to preserve to prevent fatigue in exercise

A

Muscle Glycogen

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32
Q

Do skeletal muscle fibre types rely on genetics?

A

Yes

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33
Q

Muscle fibre types differ in what two characteristics

A

Contractile and metabolic characteristics

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34
Q

Muscle fibre types are not classified by speed of contraction

A

False. They are

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35
Q

What is the metabolic characteristic of type one muscle fibre?
Is it fast or slow twitch?

A

Slow oxidative

Slow twitch

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36
Q

Fast oxidative fibres are muscle type __

A

2A

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37
Q

Type 2B muscle fibres have what metabolic characteristic ? Are they fast or slow twitch?

A

Fast glycolytic

Fast twitch

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38
Q

The mitochondrial content is packed in what type of skeletal muscle fibres

A

Type 1, slow oxidative

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39
Q

What athletes have low oxidised muscle fibres

A

Short sprinters

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40
Q

Order the muscle fibres predominantly used from low to high intensity exercise

A

Type 1 fibres (low), to type 2A fibres, to type 2B fibres (high)

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41
Q

Fatigue during prolonged sub maximal exercise has long being associated with the depletion of….

A

glycogen

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42
Q

Glycogen is only supplied to:

(a) active muscles
(b) - Inactive muscles
(c) - both

A

active muscle (a)

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43
Q

When most glycogen source has been used up by muscle, what fuels are used?

A

Glucose (from blood), fat and protein

Doesn’t last long.

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44
Q

Other than the two by products of the lactic acid system, what are two other situations which lead to fatigue?

A

Dehydration and hypoglycaemia (low blood glucose)

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45
Q

Depletion of energy systems, lack of oxygen blood flow and failure of the fibres contractile mechanisms all cause ____

A

Fatigue

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46
Q

How can delayed fatigue (DOMS) be prevented. List 2 methods - relates to nutrition.

A

Carbohydrate intake before and during exercise

Fluid intake before and during exercise (and after)

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47
Q

Fatigue during very high intensity exercise has been associated with

  1. ____
  2. ____
A
  1. acidosis (disturbance of Ca+ homeostasis

2. Loss of K+ from muscle

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48
Q

What does the cycoplasmis reticulum do during exercise

A

Is a buffer. Releases calcium and reuptakes calcium

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49
Q

Nutritional strategies to delay fatigue during high intensity exercise include…

A 
Alkalising agents (to buffer calcium uptake/release)
Creatine supplementation (short term energy production)
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50
Q

What does loading creatine do

A

Increase short term performance (50% successful)

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51
Q

What does the cardiovascular system do during exercise

A

Provide extra oxygen for working muscles

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52
Q

What is the general rule (equation) for fuel oxidation? (chemical work)

A

Carbon fuel + Oxygen = CO2 + H2O + energy

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53
Q

The circulatory system is involved in what 4 roles during exercise

A
  1. Deliver of oxygen and nutrients (fats/glucose etc.)
  2. Removal of CO2 and H2O (and end products e.g. H+ ions)
  3. Delivery of hormones
  4. Heat distribution (~25% efficiency)
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54
Q

The heart is a very aerobic muscle - has high density of _______ and relies upon ______ availability

A

Mitochondria

Oxygen

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55
Q

Define vasoconstriction regarding redistribution of blood during exercise

A

Blood vessels constrict more

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56
Q

Define vasodilation regarding redistribution of blood during exercise

A

Expansion of blood vessels to accomodate more blood flow

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57
Q

Why is exercising in the heat more challenging

A

Muscles have a high demand for oxygen in exercise. There is competition for blood distribution. When it is hot the skin needs blood so sweating occurs to cool down

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58
Q

What is the distribution of cardiac output at rest vs. during exercise

A

Rest: 5L circulating per min
Exercise: 25L circulating per min

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59
Q

During exercise why do kidneys, digestive system etc. have far less blood proportion of cardiac output

A

Muscles have high demand for blood distribution

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60
Q

What are 3 reasons why measures of endurance performance is useful

A
  1. To see the capacity of the Cardiovascular system to supply oxygen
  2. For coaches/scientists/athletes to consider the success of a training program
  3. to set training intensities
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61
Q

What is the relationship between fitness and mortality

A

People who are more fit are preventing death from other variables (e.g. diabetes, smoking etc.)

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62
Q

Define VO2 max

A

The maximal rate at which oxygen can be taken up, delivered and used by the tissues

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63
Q

What is the difference between absolute and relative VO2 max (hint: use units)

A

Absolute is direct amount of oxygen consumed in L/min

Relative considers body mass of individual (ml/kg/min)

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64
Q

What characteristics can cause someones VO2 max to differ

A

Sex, body size, age, mode and level of training

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65
Q

What two factors is VO2 max dependent of

A

Central and Peripheral

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66
Q

What is the fick principle

A

VO2 = CO x (arterial - venous)O2diff

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67
Q

What is the atrial venus oxygen difference

A

Difference in oxygen content in the arteries Vs. the veins

E.g.
At rest 20ml oxygen / 100ml blood
Say, 4mls is extracted leaving 16ml oxygen /100ml blood
Atrial venus oxygen difference = 4
- this changes when more oxygen is extracted

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68
Q

What are the two forms in which V02 max can be measured

A

Maximal and sub maximal

Sub maximal predicts peak

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69
Q

What can be estimated in regards to endurance exercise based on heart rate response

A

Vo2 max

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70
Q

What can affect measuring your VO2?

A

Cafeen, sickness, climate, low iron, stress

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71
Q

Does heart rate have an exponential, linear or random relationship with VO2 max

A

Linear

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72
Q

Why is there a minimum of 3 minutes for each load in the YMCA test

A

Because heart rate needs time to reach new sub maximal load before steady rate is found

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73
Q

Cardiac output is a product of…

A

Heart rate (bpm) and stroke volume

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74
Q

What is stroke volume

A

Volume of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each beat

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75
Q

Why may stroke volume plateau at very high intensities

A

Heart rate gets faster and pumps blood overally quick so the heart is not filling completely and each beat is pumping less volume but at fast rate

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76
Q

Why does cardiac output increase with exercise (regarding HR and SV)

A

Both heart rate and stroke volume are increasing. Causes their product to be larger and therefore increase CO

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77
Q

What increases first, intensity of breathing or volume/ depth of breaths?

A

Volume/ depth at lower intensity, followed by intensity

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78
Q

What is the resting value of cardiac output

What does it change to in exercise

A

5L/min rest

exercise: 20-40L/min

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79
Q

when exercise intensity exceeds 40-60% of max, further increases of CO are more of a result of

A

increased heart rate then stroke volume

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80
Q

Is VO2 max the best indicator of endurance ability? why?

A

No,

lactate threshold or “Fractional utilisation” is considered.

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81
Q

Fractional utilisation (lactate threshold) is referred to as…

A

the maximal rate one can use before lactate accumulates and induces early fatigue

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82
Q

Why is lactate in endurance runners low to begin with and then spikes quickly?

A

Lactate is being cleared as it is produced in the early stages. When lactate clearance isn’t reaching lactate accumulation the concentration builds quickly.

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83
Q

What happens when body produces lactate and hydrogen ions (hint; refer to buffer)

A

The body becomes more acidic. The body has a very particular pH range and therefore requires a sodium bicarbonate buffer. More CO2 is produced and needs to be cleared through increase ventilation

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84
Q

Can people last from the point of anaerobic threshold onwards for long?

A

No. By products build and fatigue.

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85
Q

What is maximal heart rate of an individual dependent of

A

AGE

Decreases about 1 bpm per year

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86
Q

How is max heart rate estimated?

A

HRmax = 208 - (0.7 x age)

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87
Q

Can the maximum heart rate of an individual be increased?

A

No, it depends on age

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88
Q

What are the five aerobic training zones

A 
Recovery
Extensive endurance
Intensive endurance
Threshold training
Interval training
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89
Q

What is the FITT principle

A

refers to frequency, intensity, time and type in regards to training.

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90
Q

What are the four training principles learned? What modifies them?

A

Overload
Specificity
Periodisation
Reversibility

Modified by the FITT principle

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91
Q

What is periodisation in regards to principles of training

A

Often used when training for specific events
People want to peak during competition stage, but cannot remain at their maximum level all year. Athletes recover and build up to these stages

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92
Q

What is reversibility in regards to principles of training

A

Reversibility is aimed to be prevented. It is the “detraining” effect can can occur quickly.

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93
Q

What are two types of training to increase VO2

A

Continuous/aerobic

Interval or HIIT

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94
Q

What are the similarities and differences in results between continuous and interval training regarding fitness and fatness

A

Both types of training saw the same increase in fitness. Interval training had less total time exercising but fitness progressed the same. Continuous training burnt more fat than (time is important for fat loss - higher energy response)

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95
Q

What are 7 central adaptations to endurance training

A 
Heart size
Stroke volume
Cardiac output
Heart rate
Blood flow
Blood pressure
Plasma volume
96
Q

Regarding heart size, eccentric hypertrophy occurs when…

What type of training?

A

There is a larger chamber on the inside with similar wall thickness. Left ventricle size is changes where a grater capacity can be held increasing stroke volume (can pump more blood around body). The occurs with endurance training

97
Q

Regarding heart size, concentric hypertrophy occurs when…

What type of training

A

The left ventricle size gets larger. Not the chamber inside, but the walls become thicker. This occurs with resistance training

98
Q

What are the advantages of endurance training regarding stroke volume. Refer to oxygen supply.

A

Stroke volume increases with endurance training. More blood and therefore oxygen travels around the body. The bonds relies more heavily on aerobic metabolism for oxygen. This is oxidation; glycolytic pathways are spared (delaying by products)

99
Q

Why is sparing glycogen in endurance exercise good

A

Aerobic metabolism is relied on and the glycogen stores are spared which delays by products which cause us to fatigue

100
Q

Does heart rate increase or decrease with fitness

A

Decrease - heart doesn’t have to beat as much to circulate blood and oxygen around body

101
Q

Do trained or untrained athletes have a lower resting heart rate

A

Trained athletes

102
Q

With endurance training, what happens to cardiac output levels? Give reasons.

A

Cardiac output increases because stroke volume has such a significant increase. Although heart rate decreases, stroke volume increase is large enough to compensate.

103
Q

How may heart rate recovery show someones level of fitness

A

Untrained or pertained athletes will take longer to recovery and get there heart rate back to rest than what trained or post trained athletes would.

104
Q

In regards to heart rate and endurance training, what remains the same between trained and untrained athletes?

A

Heart rate max

105
Q

With training does plasma volume decrease or increase? is it rapid?

A

Increases very rapidly

106
Q

Why is an increase in plasma volume a good adaptation?

A

Blood has a better response to sweating and therefore prevents fatigue through dehydration

107
Q

What does the hormone EPO do in endurance training

A

Changes the ratio between red blood cells and plasma. Thicker blood is harder to pump around the body therefore the rapid adaptation athletes get is beneficial to optimise blood circulation.

108
Q

What is capillarisation regarding endurance training

A

Capillaries form around the muscle tissue allowing a larger area to extract oxygen from blood. This improves the delivery of oxygen and removal of by products (preventing fatigue)

109
Q

Mitochondrial density regarding endurance training allows…..
What is the outcome?

A

More fat to be burned

This result in an increase in aerobic metabolism. More fat is burned and glycogen spared - preventing accumulation of by products

110
Q

Increasing number of mitochondria with endurance training means…

A

Muscles can extract more oxygen from blood

111
Q

What trained athletes have more dense / less dense mitochondria? Why?

A

Endurance trained have more dense
Sprint trained have less
This is because sprinters are not involving aerobic metabolism

112
Q

At the muscle, endurance training can cause a shift from Type ___ fibres to type ___ fibres?

A

Type IIB to types IIA

113
Q

What aerobic fuels are predominantly used before and after training for endurance activities?

A

Before training - burn more carbohydrates and less intramuscular triglycerides and plasma fatty acids
After training burn predominantly intramuscular triglycerides (fat/ glycogen)

114
Q

Endurance trained athletes burn predominantly ___. What is the storage level of this fuel? Why is it efficient?

A

FATS or intramuscular triglyceride
More fat stores in endurance athletes and high levels of mitochondria can effectively burn large amounts which is important for sparing glycogen and preventing fatigue

115
Q

Untrained endurance athletes will burn more____. Why is this negative?

A

Carbohydrates.

This causes build up of lactate from high reliance on anaerobic metabolism (glucose/ glycogen). Fatigue earlier.

116
Q

Regarding endurance training, the most significant decrease in blood pressure occurs in..

A

those who begin with higher blood pressure levels.

Healthy blood pressure levels won’t see significant changes

117
Q

Sprint training increases muscle ____ and therefore muscle ____

A

strength

power

118
Q

Why is sprint training important for endurance athletes regarding the activity of glycolytic enzymes
What do these enzyme do?

A

Glycolytic enzymes increase as a result of endurance raining. These enzymes buffer the acidic build up from by products. Capacity to buffer muscles acidity caused by aerobic metabolism increases and a higher intensity is required to reach the same level of fatigue.

119
Q

Does sprint training benefit the VO2 for endurance athletes?

A

NO

120
Q

Does sprint training benefit the “time to exhaustion” in endurance based athletes?

A

YES - significantly

121
Q

Does sprint training for endurance athletes provide central or peripheral adaptions? What is the adaptation benefit?

A

Peripheral.
Mitochondria enzyme increases. Delayed fatigue - can undergo anaerobic metabolism for longer without by product accumulation

122
Q

What is the difference between central and peripheral adaptations

A

Central: Cardiovascular system
Peripheral: Muscle characteristics

123
Q

What is the difference between biological and chronicle age

A 
Chronicle = Real age
Biological = age equivalence to body development (varies greatly in puberty)
124
Q

PHV for females occurs at age___ and for males occurs at age ___

A

female - around 12

Male - around 14

125
Q

Girls reach 98% of final height by ____ and boys by _____

A

girls - 16.5

boys - 17.75

126
Q

Does boys or girls PHV stage last longer?

A

Boys

Girls tend to plateau earlier

127
Q

Describe characteristics of boys who mature early Vs. girls

A

Boys:
More muscular
Shorter legs
Broader Hips

Girls
Shorter legs
Narrower shoulder

128
Q

Do late matures tend to be shorter or taller? Why?

A

Taller
Late maturers tend to have longer growth time and finish growing later, even through the peak rate of growth may be less intense

129
Q

Muscle mass in puberty increases due to___

A

hypertrophy of existing muscles and hormone levels increasing. Testosterone particularly

130
Q

What is the relationship between fat mass and age for boys and girls

A

Both increase through puberty,
girls will increase longer where boys will plateau
(oestrogen hormone)

131
Q

What is the relationship between % of fat in regards to age for boys and girls. Why?

A

Girls increase due to oestrogen hormone and body mass increasing. Further, fat undergoes hyperplasia ad cannot be reversed.

Boys decrease due to increase of fat free mass (% body fat relative to body mass will decrease as muscle is gained)

132
Q

Testosterone is involved in:

A

Protein synthesis and bone growth

133
Q

Oestrogen is involved in

A

Bone growth and fat deposition (especially thighs and hips)

134
Q

Why does relative muscle strength increase for boys and decrease for girls across stages of puberty

A

For boys - increases due to the increase in muscle mass relative to fat mass

For girls - decreases due to relieve body composition changing as fat mass increases relative to body weight increase. (though girls are obviously stronger post puberty than prepuberty)

135
Q

Explain VO2 max relationship with age both in absolute and relative measures.

A

Absolue:
Both boys and girls increase, though girls plateau as they don’t keep gaining muscle like boys do

Relative:
Boys increase or stay as flat line due to fat free mass increase relative to body weight. Girls decrease due to fat accumulation

136
Q

Why do adults have a larger difference between peak and mean anaerobic power

A

Because children have a reduced amount of PFK enzyme involved in glycolysis. Children cannot produced large amounts of power even when exercising at maximum. Adults produce more energy glycolitically

137
Q

How do children cool down in exercise compared to adults

What is the risk of exercising in hot environments for kids

A

Children rely on convection (heat moves away into air) and radiation (heat transfers to cooler objects)
Adults sweat rate is significantly higher
Children cannot get rid of heat as easily, therefore cannot withstand hotter weather with exercise

138
Q

Regarding fat mass, can training be beneficial through the stages of puberty

A

Yes, significantly

139
Q

Why is it important to do exercise through pubertal stages regarding bone mineral density

A

By about 25, we have our maximum density of bone for life. It is important to maximise bone density to prevent future defects in BMD such as osteoporosis.

140
Q

What is the expected benefit of resistance training in pre-pubescent adults

A

improved motor skill coordination
improved motor unit activation
(Not large strength and muscle size change)

141
Q

Why can girls possible run the same speed as boys at age 12

A

Girls have started puberty and boys haven’t.

This is very variable

142
Q

Why does strength increase take far longer for children than adults. About how many weeks for each to see improvements?

A

Testosterone levels are lower, more time is required to build up strength
10-20 weeks for children
As little as 6 weeks for adults

143
Q

What is the recommended reps for young athletes exercising there:
upper body?
Lower body?

A

Upper - 8 and 12 reps to fatigue each set

Lower- 15 and 20

144
Q

Children will increase strength with resistance training over time, but not __

A

muscle size

145
Q

Why should training sessions for children involve a variety of exercises?

A

To prevent fatigue (don’t do similar muscle groups after the other)
Keep interest

146
Q

With resistance training, pre adolescence should avoid what kind of lifts? (3)
Why?

A

Near maximal, explosive and overhead

To avoid injury to growth plates, joint surfaces and point of tendon insertion on bones

147
Q

What are 4 adaptations to sprint strength training on a metabolic level?

A

Increased muscle ATP and PC
Increased muscle glycogen
Increased anaerobic enzymes
Increased lactate acid buffering

148
Q

What are the dominant physical qualities trained in physical preparation?

A

Strength and power
Endurance
Speed
Flexibility

149
Q

Why is specificity important in training

A

Adaptations will occur that are specific to the training. Training should stimulate the speed, force and timing of the sport being trained for

150
Q

What is progressive overload/recovery

Show in equation (hint: performance =)

A

A continual and gradual increase in training workload
Performance = fitness - fatigues
(training + rest)

151
Q

Optimal change of stress and recovery with adaptation blocks is explained that…

A

each training builds each time and performance ability will not drop as much in recovery each time

152
Q

Individualisation refers to

A

Tailoring the training to suit the individual athlete

153
Q

What are the training variables which manipulate training programs

A 
Type 
Frequency
Intensity
Volume 
Duration
154
Q

How can we manipulate strength training?

A

Sets, Reps, Rest periods, Speed of contraction, type of exercise

155
Q

Define strength

A

The maximal force that a muscle or muscle group can generate

156
Q

Power = ____ x ____

Define power

A

Force x velocity

The ability to exert force at higher speeds

157
Q

What are the two types of contraction and explain

A

Static
The muscle generates force but doesn’t change length (isometric)

Dynamic
The muscle length changes while generating force
(concentric/eccentric)

158
Q

What do isometric contractions do?

A

Contract a muscle at a fixed angle against and immovable object

159
Q

How are dynamic, iso-inertial contractions explained (isotonic). What is risk level?

A

Training being performed against a constant resistance. Eg. weight lifting high risk of injury

160
Q

How are dynamic, isokinetic contractions explained. What is the risk level

A

Training is performed at a constant speed of movement with resistance
Low risk, expensive, usually re-hab

161
Q

What are the two components to strength adaptations

A
  1. Neural adaptations

2. Myogenic/structural adaptions

162
Q

What are neural adaptations regarding strength training

A

Increase in synchronisation of motor nits.
Increase in co-contraction of synergistic muscles
Decreased inhibition
Reduced activity of antagonist muscles

163
Q

What are myogenic adaptations regarding strength training

A

Increase in muscle protein

  • hypertrophy
  • hyperplasia
164
Q

Hypertrophy increase depends on:

A

Intensity
Program duration
Training status
Both fibre types increase in size

165
Q

When does hyperplasia for humans occur

A

By birth of shortly after

166
Q

Accuse muscle soreness such as DOMS results in:

A

Pain, burn weakness.

Build up of lactate / muscle acidity

167
Q

When is DOMS more severe? What is the cause of pain?

A

After eccentric exercise

The pain is due to damaged muscle fibres connecting tissues

168
Q

Maximum load is used to measure intensity. How is it defined

A

The maximum number of repetitions that can be performed with a load
E.g. 1 rep max

169
Q

When training using guideline of someones 1 rep max, what is the number of repetitions range where strength is being increased and what percentage range of 1 rep max is used.

A

Between 1-5 reps with range 80-100% of 1 rep max

170
Q

When training using guideline of someones 1 rep max, what is the number of repetitions range where endurance is being increased and what percentage range of 1 rep max is used.

A

Between 10-20 reps with range 55-70% of 1 rep max

171
Q

What is qualitative and quantitative data associated with

A

Qualitative - words or interpreting writing

Quantitative - numbers and data inferences

172
Q

Data based on sciences provides what three outcomes of data

A

Objective data collection
Systematic observation
Reliance on evidence

173
Q

Data based on common sense provides what 3 outcomes of data

A

Subjective data collection
Hit or Miss observation
Ignores counter evidence

174
Q

Quantitive research contains three characteristics..

A

Variables
Measure of a sample
Relationships of variables

175
Q

What are the three types of variables

A

Constant, dependent, independent

176
Q

What are three key terms when measuring something

A

Observe a phenomena
Conceptualise (observe nominal defintion)
Operationalise (Chose a way of measuring)

177
Q

Levels of measurement split into two types. What are they?

A

Categorical and numerical

178
Q

What are the 4 measurements levels (both categorical and numerical) and what si there purpose.

A

Nominal - Classifies

Ordinal - Classifies, orders

Interval - Classifies, orders, equal intervals

Ration - Classifies, orders, equal intervals, absolute 0

179
Q

Which level of measurement is most sensitive and which is least.

A

Least sensitive - Nominal

Most sensitive - Ratio

180
Q

Explain Nominal level measurement

A

Data falls into one category only - DISCRETE
Non-metric - no order of categories

e.g. if you are young you aren’t old, boy you aren’t girl

181
Q

Explain ordinal level measurement

A

Data falls into one category only - DISCRETE
Categories have order; ranking

E.g. rate feelings : very unhappy, unhappy, ok, happy, very happy (odd number of 5 usually)

182
Q

Explain interval level measurement

A

Categories of variable are legitimate numbers
Categories have equal intervals
No true 0 point

E.g. What is BMI(%) or relative sitting height (%)

183
Q

Explain rain level measurement

A

Most precise.
Equal intervals between categories
True 0 point

E.g. Body mass, Standing height

184
Q

What are the three concerns of measurement

A

Constraints
Validity
Reliability

185
Q

Validity of a measurement is split into 4 categories

A

Face Validity
Content Validity
Criterion Validity
Construct Validity

186
Q

What is face validity in measuring

A

It is subjective that is weak but a first step method. Least analytical. Not statistically measured

187
Q

What is constant validity in measuring

A

Covers the entire range of meanings included the concept
Based on judgement

E.g to measure fitness, measuring 5 aspects (e.g. push ups) is better than only a 1K time trial.

188
Q

What is criterion validity? What 3 areas is is split into?

A

Checking against an external criterion believed to be another indicator of the same construct

  • Predictive validity (future test)
  • Concurrent validity (known relations current)
  • Know groups validity (expected difference in different people)
189
Q

What are the three degrees of reliability

A

Consistency
Repeatability
Agreement

190
Q

Reliability test can show what?

A

Shows incorrect measurements and whether the data is reliable or chance.

191
Q

What are three issues relating to reliability

A 
- Internal consistency
(difficult, unrelated)
- Test -retest
(Memory/practice effects, time interval)
- Inter rater
No standardised, difference experience, needs calibration)
192
Q

The frequency of data occurs within..

A

a category

193
Q

Central tendency is comprised of what three elements?

A

Mean, Median, Mode

194
Q

In group data, of one piece of data makes a significant impact alone on mean, what does this mean?

A

There is something wrong with it

Bias results can occur

195
Q

Nominal level data can be described by what central tendency(s)
(mean, median, mode)

A

Mode only

196
Q

Ordinal level data can be described by what central tendency(s)
(mean, median, mode)

A

median or mode

197
Q

Interval level data can be described by what central tendency(s)
(mean, median, mode)

A

Mean median or mode

198
Q

ratio level data can be described by what central tendency(s)
(mean, median, mode)

A

mean median or mode

199
Q

With variability, range will describe the..

A

distance that separates the lowest score from the highest score

200
Q

With variability, the interquartile range and box whisker plot will describe the..

A

mid spread
distance of 25th percentile
distance of 75th percentile
maximum and minium score

201
Q

With variability, the standard deviation..

A
  • Is the most common measure of dispersion
  • Shows the average variability in a distribution
  • Shows that average amount that scores differ from the mean
202
Q

inferential statistics are used to

A

Make inferences from findings of sample data to larger populations of data

203
Q

What are the expectations of random sampling

A

Probability that any individual member of the population being selected is exactly the same as any other individual member
(avoids being bias)

204
Q

Probability is a measure of

A

how likely an event is to happen

205
Q

What is the calculation of probability

A

P = probability of successful outcomes / possible outcomes

206
Q

How do we know a result is unlikely or likely to have occurred by chance in relation to probability

A

Less than 0.05 - not chance

Over 0.05 - chance

207
Q

What is the difference between and type 1 error and type 2 error in decision making

A

type 1: you find a significant relationship but it does not exist in the real world

Type 2: You find no signifiant relationship but it does exist in the real world

208
Q

Correlation in measuring/ collecting data is used to

How is it represented

A

Test to see if there is significant association between two or more variables
Determined by r value
Closer to one, stronger relationship
Closer to 0, weaker relationship

209
Q

The t-test is used to? What are the two types of t tests?

A

Compare the mean of two groups. Compares statistic to chance.

Independent samples t test (two different groups)

Paired samples t test
(One group, two occasions)

210
Q

Why may a t test be 0 when it shouldn’t?

A

Programs round numbers

211
Q

What does the chi-square test do?

A

Test for a relationship between two categorical variables

Compares the obtained frequencies wishing each category to the frequencies expected in those categories by chance

212
Q

What are the two natures of development. Give examples

A

Chronological (womb to tomb) and processes (biological, emotional, moral etc.)

213
Q

How may there be unequal recognition between, for example, a boy who is born at the start of the year and boy born at the end

A

It is likely that the boy born earlier develops earlier and gains talent recognition before others. This can be carried on for years since seeing first success

214
Q

Personal meaning of age changes as we get older. What is an example?

A

Younger - very proud of our age

Specific age may cause us to act in a certain way E.g. drinking at 18

Age consciousness (wanting to be a different age)

215
Q

Nature Vs. Nurture. What is the difference in opinion (developmental psychology)

A

Nature:

  • genetics and heredity
  • predisposition given at the point of conception

Nurture: (blank slate)

  • Environmental experience
  • Contextual influences e.g. parents
216
Q

There are two types of development where people believe it occurs..

A

continuously (gradual through whole life span) or in stages (distinct and seperate)

217
Q

Jean Piaget proposed a theory regarding

A

States of cognitive development

218
Q

Eric Ericsson proposed a theory regarding

A

Stages of psychological development

219
Q

Early experiences contain both sensory and critical periods true or false

A

True! (Remember genie and Sujit)

220
Q

Critical period in development is between

A

2 years and puberty - develop language.

221
Q

the sensitive period in development is a time where

A

second language development occurs most easily (about 7)

222
Q

There are two views of how children act when growing. What are they

A

Active and passive

223
Q

What is habituation and dishabituation?

A

Helps know what infants are like. Regards decreased interest (dishabituaion) followed by the recovery of a new event (habituation)

224
Q

Human development is outlines by 4 theorists. Who are they and what kind of development s do they support.

A

Cognitive development - Piaget
Psychosexual - Freud
Psychosocial - Erikson
Humanistic - (Maslow)

225
Q

Jean Piaget was the first to:

A

Run research well and systematically collect data through experiments and observation

226
Q

What is Piagets cognitive development theory

A

Children think differently (qualitative differences)
Knowledge is actively constructed by children
Talks about 4 stages of cognitive development

227
Q

What are Piagets 4 stages of cognitive developments

A

Sensorimotor stage
Pre operational stage
Concrete operational stage
Formal operational stage

228
Q

What is a key experiment conducted by Piget

A

Sally and Anne box and marble

229
Q

Piaget believed that stages are hierarchically organised meaning that

A

you don’t get from 1 stage to the next unless the previous is satisfied

230
Q

Sigmund Freud believed there were three aspects of personality and way of thinking/ acting. What are they

A

Unconscious
Preconscious
Conscious

231
Q

ID Ego and Super ego are related to what theorist. What two outcomes do these three concepts create amongst each other?

A

Freud

Conflict and defences

232
Q

What is the order of freuds psychosexual development stages

A 
Oral 
Anal 
Phallic
Latency
Genital
233
Q

Erik Erikson believed that

A

We interact, live in society with others, crave interaction etc.

Ego is a positive force in development and the importance of cultural/social factors are great.

234
Q

What stage for Erikson was adolescence concerned with

A

Identify vs. confusion

235
Q

Abraham Maslow is a psychologist true or false

A

False.

236
Q

Maslows theory presented…

not stages

A

Pyramid

237
Q

What are the 5 levels of Maslows pyramid from bottom to top

A 
Psychological
Safety
Love/belonging
Esteem
Self-actualisation

BIOL1900 (3 decks)

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