Exams Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

The human nervous system

A
  • consists of the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system working together to monitor and control what we do
  • consisting of billions of neurons
  • uses electrical and chemical means to send messages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The role of the nervous system

A
  • receives sensory information
  • process information
  • transmit messages around the body
  • react to stimuli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CNS

A

central nervous system

- consists of brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Spinal cord

A
  • delicate cable of nerve fibres (brain to lower back)
  • major thoroughfare for messages between the brain and rest of body
  • efferent (motor) and afferent (sensory) neurons
  • 31 segments/12 pairs of cranial nerves
  • sensory neutrons leading into dorsal (back) side, motor nerves exiting from ventral (abdominal) side
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Efferent neurons

A

motor

- transmit information via impulses away from the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Afferent neurons

A

sensory

- transmit information via impulses towards the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PNS

A

peripheral nervous system

  • consists of all never outside the CNS
  • carry sensory info from the body to CNS back to body e.g. temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sympathetic Nervous System

A
  • emergency/arousal system
  • during times of stress/threat
  • increase activity level of some body system
  • adrenaline/noradrenaline released
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Adrenaline/noradrenaline

A
  • increase heat rate
  • increase blood pressure
  • increase energy and breathing rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Parasympathetic Nervous System

A
  • reverses effect of the sympathetic nervous system
  • return body to normal/conserve energy
  • keeps the body in a state of wellbeing or homeostasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neurons

A
  • specialized nerve cell that receives, processes, and transmits information to other cells in the body
  • connects enable messages to be transmitted from one neuron to another
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cell body

A
  • contains the nucleus that controls the maintenance and metabolic functions of the cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

dendrites

A
  • fine branches from the cell body that receive’s messages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

axon

A
  • transmits info from one neuron to another or cells in muscles or glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

myelin sheath

A
  • protects the axon and assists with transmission of the nerve impulse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

nucleus

A
  • power house
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Somatic nervous system

A
  • monitors bodily functions
  • receives sensory information from organs such as skin, ears, eyes
  • carries messages from CNS to muscles
  • helps to understand what is going on in the environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A
  • neurons sending messengers from brain to involuntary (smooth) muscles
  • regulates involuntary functions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The parts of the brain

A
  • forebrain
  • cerebellum
  • brainstem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

the forebrain

A
  • upper most part of brain consistent of the cerebrum and limbic system and thalamus and hypothalamus
  • outer brain areas are involved in perception, learning, emotions
  • centre brain e.g. temp, reproduction, eating, sleeping, emotions
  • how we think, feel, behave
  • outer layer (cerebral cortex)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the cerebrum (cerebral cortex)

A
  • controls motor and mental activity

- divided into left and right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

left hemisphere of cerebrum

A
  • analytical thinking, logic, language, reasoning, math, writing, numbers, right hand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

right hemisphere of cerebrum

A
  • art, awareness, creativity, imagination, intuition, music, 3D forms, left hand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

the cerebellum

A
  • lies below cerebrum
  • responsible for motor control and balance
  • coordinated movements (precise)
  • movements smooth rather than jerky
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the brainstem

A
  • connects brain to spinal cord
  • relays messages
  • important in vision and hearing
  • functions; breathing, sleep patterns, hunger, thirst, blood pressure, heart rhythms, body temp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

parts of the brainstem

A
  • midbrain
  • the pons
  • the reticular system
  • medulla oblongata
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cranial nerves

A
  • carry sensory input from the skin or motor output to the muscles of the head/face
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

lobes of the brain

A
  • frontal
  • parietal
  • occipital
  • temporal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

frontal lobe

A
  • associated with thinking, decision making, feeling and behaviour
  • determines behavioural responses
  • coordinates with functions of other lobes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

primary motor cortex

A
  • located at the back of the frontal lobe

- generates neural impulses that pass down the spinal cord to control movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Broca’s area

A
  • usually in left frontal lobe
  • used in production of speech
  • damage to this area can result in language loss (Brocas Aphasia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Parietal lobe

A
  • behind frontal lobe
  • responsible for body sensations (mainly touch, pain and temp)
  • spacial awareness, aspect and speech, enables us to read, write and solve problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

damage to the parietal lobe

A
  • left; problems in math, reading and writing and neglect to right side of the body
  • right; loss of imagery, visualisation and neglect to left side of the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

occipital lobe

A
  • behind and below parietal lobe
  • responsible for visual functions of the eyes
  • consists of primary visual cortex which receives visual input from the retina
  • involved in both visual perception and colour regulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ARRRRRIIIIIICCCIIIIAAA

A

You smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

temporal lobe

A
  • important in auditory perception (hearing), speech production, and memory
  • receives information from ears and interprets different sounds
  • contains; limbic system, amygdala, hippocampus, wernicks area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

temporal lobe

A
  • important in auditory perception (hearing), speech production, and memory
  • receives information from ears and interprets different sounds
  • contains; limbic system, amygdala, hippocampus, wernicks area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Wernicks area

A
  • links to brocas
  • describes a condition in which language comprehension is impaired, while speech production remains normal (wernick’s aphasia)
  • receptive language is impaired
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

dopamine

A
  • learning, attention, pleasurable sensations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

seretonin

A
  • sleep, mood

- less serotonin can be linked to depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

noradrenaline

A
  • helps the body to deal with danger/threat/stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

endorphins

A
  • allow perception of pain

- released when you experience a positive mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

multipolar neuron

A
  • many dendrites
  • one axon
  • motor and interconnected (carries sensory and motor info) neurons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

bipolar neuron

A
  • one dendrite
  • one axon attached to cell body
  • only found in eye and ear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

hormone

A
  • a protein, amine or steroid molecule that acts as a chemical messenger to act upon target cells
  • they are secreted from endocrine glands into the bloodstream where they are carried to target cell/organ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

hormone

A
  • a protein, amine or steroid molecule that acts as a chemical messenger to act upon target cells
  • they are secreted from endocrine glands into the bloodstream where they are carried to target cell/organ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

endocrine system

A
  • hormones are released by endocrine gland throughout the body and travel through the bloodstream
  • hormonal responses are slower than nervous responses
  • hormones communicate with the body by heading towards their target cell to bring about a particular change/effect to cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

adrenaline

A
  • gland; ADRENAL GLAND
  • responsible for fight/flight
  • increases heart rate, blood pressure
  • expands air passages of lungs
  • enlarges pupils
  • alters metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

thyroxine

A
  • gland; THYROID
  • effects bones, reproductive, digestive, cardiovascular systems, energy production, basal metabolism rate (BMR), mental alertness
  • BASICALLY THE BODIES METABOLISM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

BMR (basal metabolism rate)

A
  • the sum of all the bodies reactions at rest

- measure of hoe much energy the body uses at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Growth

A
  • gland; pituitary
  • growth and development
  • secreted mostly during sleep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Testosterone

A
  • gland; tests
  • sperm production
  • stimulates secondary sexual characteristics in males
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Progesterone

A
  • gland; ovaries/placenta

- maintain endometrium (prevents from breaking down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

heredity

A
  • the passing on of physical and/or mental characteristics genetically from one generation to another
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

heredity

A
  • the passing on of physical and/or mental characteristics genetically from one generation to another
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

biological influence

A
  1. conception - meeting of sperm and egg
  2. forms zygote (side goat) - contains all DNA required for a new individual (male - XY, female - XX)
  3. DNA (double helix), chromosomes (coiled up DNA, contains genes)
  4. cell devision - zygote goes through cell devision known as mitosis
  5. mitosis - interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
  6. development - genes code for characteristics the individual will now ace - critical for the embryo - abnormalities may occur
  7. hormones - endocrine system, control growth, development, sexual characteristics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

stimulant

A
  • increase heart rate
  • decrease appetite (due to blood sugar rising)
  • gives energy and confidence boost (YAS WORK IT GURL)
  • people use stimulant to stay awake (like studying all night for this psychology exam), lose weight, boost athletic performance
  • after effect can include headaches, tiredness and irritability
  • highly addictive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

hallucinogens

A
  • mind-altering drug
  • change perception and can result in vivid images
  • can be natural in origin such as marijuana (devil’s lettuce) and mushrooms
  • some are synthetically produced such as LSD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

LSD

A
  • associated with 1960s-1970s
  • ‘trip’ can range from one of euphoria to one of terror and panic
  • users mood and expectations affects trip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Ecstacy

E-e-e-ecstacy (by Mr. G)

A
  • club drug
  • stimulant and mild hallucinogen
  • creates heightened emotion and a feeling of connectedness with those around them
  • effects; dehydration, overheating, increase in blood pressure
  • death can occur if overdose and dehydration occurs
    LONG TERM EFFECTS: brain serotonin, permanently deflated mood, memory loss, damage to immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Ecstacy

E-e-e-ecstacy (by Mr. G)

A
  • club drug
  • stimulant and mild hallucinogen
  • creates heightened emotion and a feeling of connectedness with those around them
  • effects; dehydration, overheating, increase in blood pressure
  • death can occur if overdose and dehydration occurs
    LONG TERM EFFECTS: brain serotonin, permanently deflated mood, memory loss, damage to immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

alcohol effect of brain

A
  • forebrain; assaults motor coordination and decision making
  • midbrain; lose control over emotion and increase chance of blackout
  • brainstem; affect heart rate, body temp, appetite and consciousness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

alcohol effect of brain

A
  • forebrain; assaults motor coordination and decision making
  • midbrain; lose control over emotion and increase chance of blackout
  • brainstem; affect heart rate, body temp, appetite and consciousness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

nature vs nurture

A
  • heredity (nature)
  • environment (nurture)
  • genetic component fixed at birth
  • environment supports, encourages and teaches children to reach their potential
  • twin studies, adoption studies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

factors effecting behaviour, emotion, thought

physical activity

A
  • numerous studies show that a moderate amount of exercise has benefits for our physical health, halving risks of heart attacks and adding 2 year to life expectancy
  • study in Canada showed that 1 out of 4 Canadians who exercised regularly reported feeling more energetic, less depressed and tired less often
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

neurotransmitters

A
  • are a chemical that affect the way messaged are passed from one neuron to another
  • carry a message from sending neuron to synapse to a receptor site on receiving neuron
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

neurotransmitters

A
  • are a chemical that affect the way messaged are passed from one neuron to another
  • carry a message from sending neuron to synapse to a receptor site on receiving neuron
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

controlled variable

A
  • variable that is not changed throughout experiment
  • kept same so the changes observed are the results of the IV
    e. g. testing reaction times, the size of computer screen would be kept the same
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

uncontrolled variable

A
  • variable allowed to stay random because it is predicted to have no effect on the outcome of an experiment
    e. g. persons eye colour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

experimental group

A
  • subject to IV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

control group

A
  • not subject to IV
  • provides standard against which the behaviour of the experimental group can be compared to see if the IV has had an effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

groups in experiments need to be

A
  • as similar as possible

- tested the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

ethics/participants rights

A
  • ensure that no psychological or physical harm is caused to the research participants and the researcher must also respect the participants rights as an individual
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

confidentiality

A
  • participants have a right to privacy

- all details of their involvement in the study cannot be revealed in a way that the participant can be identified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

voluntary participation

A
  • involvement must be voluntary

- no pressure to take part in the study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

informed consent

A
  • participants much informed of the nature and purpose of the investigation
  • consent must be documented and consent form signed by participant (or guardian for those under 18)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

withdrawal rights

A
  • participant has ability to withdraw from the study at any time, without giving a reason and their results cannot be used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

debriefing

A
  • opportunity for participants to obtain appropriate information about the nature, results and conclusions of research
  • researcher must correct any mistaken attitudes or beliefs that participants may have about the research
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

debriefing

A
  • opportunity for participants to obtain appropriate information about the nature, results and conclusions of research
  • researcher must correct any mistaken attitudes or beliefs that participants may have about the research
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

beneficence

A
  • benefits bust outweigh the harm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

placebo effect

A
  • harmless substance given as if it were a treatment
  • pretend IV
  • given to controlled group that is blind on its status and think it is receiving the treatment
  • used to control the effects of participants expectation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

experimenter effect

A
  • when the experimenter’s expectations may be bias and influence the observation, recording or interpretation of data
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

reliability

A
  • consistent and stable over time

- same results under the same circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

validity

A
  • extend to which the results reflect what the measurement instrument says it is measuring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

steps in scientific method

A
  1. identify a research issue to investigate
  2. develop the exact research question
  3. choose a research design and method
  4. collect date
  5. examine evidence
  6. interpret data
  7. communicate the findings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

case study

A
  • direct behavioural observation of a single person
  • used in clinical studies, where rare phenomena or unusual behaviour is observer and recored
    e. g. piaget daughter under observation in preschool
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

disadvantages of case study

A
  • long time (costly)

- intrusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

disadvantages of case study

A
  • long time (costly)

- intrusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

survey

A
  • self-reported data from participants who are randomly selected
  • form of questionnaire with pre-determined answers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

advantages of survey

A
  • allow comparison to be made across groups

- difference across genders, age or location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

disadvantages of survey

A
  • not always honest
  • no info as to why
  • people ignore the explain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

correlational studies

A
  • find out if there is a relationship between variables and how strong it is
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

advantages of correlational studies

A
  • rise alternative hypothesis that can be rested
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

archival research

A
  • studying of existing data
  • use past experiments to compare finding to see if there are any changes
  • can be extended if they get in contact with original participants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

advantages of archival research

A
  • cheaper than collecting new data
  • allow researchers to gather data of long periods of time
  • larger scale of sample
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

disadvantages of archival research

A
  • takes time to locate appropriate data
  • obtain permission to use
  • involve higher knowledge and skill
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

classical conditioning

A
stimulus:
- event that causes response
response:
- an action made because a stimulus is detected
innate: instinctive/inborn
conditioned: learned
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

steps of classical conditioning

A

food (UCS) > dog drools (UCR)
bell (NS) + food (UCS) > drools (UCR)
bell (CS) > dog drools (CR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

UCR

A

unconditioned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

UCS

A

unconditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

NS

A

neutral stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

CS

A

controlled stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

CR

A

controlled response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

positive reinforcement

A
  • a consequence that causes a behaviour to occur more frequently
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

positive reinforcement

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

positive punishment

A
  • aversive (undesirable) consequence of behaviour that causes it to occur less frequently
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

negative reinforcement

A
  • the removal of an unpleasant outcome after a behaviour to because it to occur more frequently
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

negative punishment

A
  • removal of a pleasant stimulus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

token economy

A
  • a system in which a person is given a token in return for desired behaviour which can be exchanged for a reward
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

social learning theory

A
  • like behaviourist theory their theory believes that human behaviour is created by environment but argues that role model played big role in shaping behaviour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Bandura Experiment

A
  • investigates whether you children observe and imitate role models
  • children watched and imitated adults aggressive behaviours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

modelling

A
  • a person copies the behaviour of a role model

- also referes to the behaviour being advertised by the role model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

vicarious reinforcement

A
  • something that is felt indirection by imaging what another person is feeling or experiencing
  • observe someone else being either possibly or negatively reinforced for behaving in a certain way
  • makes us want to observe and imitate other behaviour to receive the praise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

vicarious reinforcement

A
  • something that is felt indirection by imaging what another person is feeling or experiencing
  • observe someone else being either possibly or negatively reinforced for behaving in a certain way
  • makes us want to observe and imitate other behaviour to receive the praise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

systematic desensitisation

A
  • application of classical condition to fears and phobias on humans
  • undertaken by a psychologist who has been consulted when a person realised he or she has a phobia with his or her fear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Walpe (1958)

A
  • aim; therapy aims to extinguish an undesirable behaviour by replacing it with a more desirable one
  • systematic desensitisation worked through reciprocal inhibition
  • hierarchy of fear is formed - most frightening stimulus at one end and least at the other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

hierarchy of fear

A

e. g. spider
1. think about spider
2. see picture of spider
3. be in same room as spider
4. sit next to glass with lid closed
5. sit next to glass with lid open
6. put hand in tank
7. hold spider in hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

how hierarchy of fear works

A
  • subject made to relax at each stage and moving on once comfortable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

findings of systematic desensitisation

A
  • 80-90% of patients are ‘cured’ or much improved after and average of 25-30 sessions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

disadvantages of token economy

A
  • maintaining improvement in behaviour once the patient or inmate has left
  • need to be respected with other social rewards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

disadvantages of token economy

A
  • maintaining improvement in behaviour once the patient or inmate has left
  • need to be respected with other social rewards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

memory

A
  • the process of maintaining information over time
  • most important mental process of humans
  • we can draw upon past experience in order to use this information in the present
  • IS THE TERM GIVEN TO THE STRUCTURE AND PROCESSES INVOLVED IN THE STORAGE AND SUBSEQUENT RETRIEVAL OF INFORMATION
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

encoding

A
  • refers to the conversation of sensory information into a form that can be processed by the brain
  • when information comes into our memory system (from sensory input), it needs to be changed into a form that the system can cop with
  • there are 3 main ways in which information can be stored in
    1. visual (pictures)
    2. acoustic (sound)
    3. semantic (meaning)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

encoding

A
  • refers to the conversation of sensory information into a form that can be processed by the brain
  • when information comes into our memory system (from sensory input), it needs to be changed into a form that the system can cop with
  • there are 3 main ways in which information can be stored in
    1. visual (pictures)
    2. acoustic (sound)
    3. semantic (meaning)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

storage

A
  • refers to the retention of information. Information must be stored in a form that is accessible later
  • concerns nature of memory
  • Eg where, how long
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

retrieval

A
  • is the recovery of information stored in the brain
  • if the memory cannot be retrieved then can’t be proven to exist
  • humans form associations between neutral networks to aid in retrieval (cue/prompt)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

forms of memory

A
  • sensory memory
  • short-term memory
  • long-term memory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

sensory memory

A
  • it is the ability to retain impressions of sensory information as a kind of buffer for stimuli received through the 5 sense
  • 30 secs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

short term memory

A
  • information stored for 30+ seconds
  • information may be rehearsed so keep longer, some may be transferred for longer storage
  • working memory
  • holds about 7 +/- 2 items of information
  • has limited capacity
130
Q

Chunking

A
  • leads to increase short term memory capacity
  • organisation of materials into shorter meaningful groups to make memory more manageable
    e. g. breaking phone numbers into 3/4 numbers
131
Q

Chunking

A
  • leads to increase short term memory capacity
  • organisation of materials into shorter meaningful groups to make memory more manageable
    e. g. breaking phone numbers into 3/4 numbers
132
Q

long term memory

A
  • relatively permanent
  • storage great than 30 seconds
  • can decay in time
  • information can move from STM to LTM through a physical change in neuron and neutral networks to move associations hence the permanent storage
  • motivation; information relation to a subject of storage to an interest, more likely to be retained in LTM
133
Q

prodedual memory - muscle memory

A
  • stores the way you do things
  • how to of memory
  • the memory of actions and skills that have been learned
  • sometimes called implicit memory
  • requires little effort to retrieve info
  • find it difficult to describe these procedures to other because they are well learned and frequently used
134
Q

declarative memory

A
  • the what of memory
  • sometimes called explicit memory
  • requires conscious effort for retrieval
  • allows you to declare how things are
  • episodic and semantic
135
Q

somatic memory

A
  • knowledge of facts and information
  • based on understanding and interpretation
  • encyclopaedia of memory storing mental representations of the world
136
Q

somatic memory

A
  • knowledge of facts and information
  • based on understanding and interpretation
  • encyclopaedia of memory storing mental representations of the world
137
Q

working memory

A
  • the current
  • broader than STM and emphasis the active nature of processing memory rather than earlier notions of passive maintenance
  • limited capacity
138
Q

Baddeley and Hitch (1974)

A
  • working memory consists of two halves (2 slave systems) for STM maintenance and 1 central executive responsible for organising information and coordinating the slave system
  • slave system; articulatory, or phonological loop and the visa-spatial sketchpad
  • central executive directs attention to relevant information and suppresses irrelevant information
  • articulatory loop; stores and processes phonological information and rehearse it silently
  • viso-spatical sketchpad; stores visual and spatial information and constructs and manipulates visual images including details of shapes, colours, motion, patterns and position and represents metal maps
  • episodic buffer; linking information across domains to form integrated units of visual, spatial and verbal information with time
139
Q

recall

A
  • questions as you to retrieve information from memory without any prompts or cue
140
Q

recognition

A
  • identifying the information from a number of alternatives

e. g. multiple choice

141
Q

relearning

A
  • a techniques used to test memory by seeing whether a person learns information that has previously been taught more quickly on a second occasion
142
Q

5 stages of information processing

A
  1. input - taking data from the environment
  2. encode - representing data in a different form
  3. storage - holding data permanently for later use
  4. retrieval - searching for and finding data
  5. output - responding to data
143
Q

forgetting

A
  • information decays (if not rehearsed)
  • information is displaced - normally on a ‘first in first out’ basis
  • failure to retrieve or use information that has been previously stored
144
Q

evaluation of multistore model

A
  • ignores individual difference - do all peoples memories really operate in the same way? if so, why are some people remembering same things better then others?
  • puts a lot of emphasis on the importance of rehearsal in recall but, in reality, a lot of information is remembered because it is meaningful rather then because it has been practised
  • the LEVELS OF PROCESSING THEORY is an alternative theory that says that depth of processing affects recall deep processing involves giving information meaning and this is what leads to better recall. According to this theory, factors such as time and space are not that significant in memory
145
Q

Terry (2005)

A
  • presented subject with series of TV ads
  • asked to recall
  • some immediately > better/faster
  • others had to complete another task first > slower
146
Q

Multistore model advantages

A
  • was first working model, which prompted further research and development
  • still widely used and supported
  • have been many studies that show that STM and LTM exist as separate memory stores
147
Q

Multistore model disadvantage

A
  • assume stores are singular
  • too simplistic
  • people don’t usually actively rehearse information
148
Q

Working memory model

A
  • determines how deeply people process information and how well it is stored in their memory
149
Q

Working memory model advantages

A
  • more advanced model than MSM
  • is more satisfactory when it comes to explaining storage
  • studies to support ideas
  • explains multi-tasking
150
Q

Working memory model disadvantages

A
  • psychologists don’t fully understand the central executive and it is too simplistic
151
Q

retrieval failure

A
  • inability to retrieve a specific piece of information
152
Q

inference

A
  • forgetting is a result of retrieval difficulties because of competing similar information
153
Q

motivated forgetting

A
  • inability to retrieve information because there is some advantage to not remember it
  • used for self-protection and can be because you don’t want to think about it as it may be anxiety provoking or convenient to forget
154
Q

decay

A
  • fading away of a memory over time

- some psychologists claim memories never decay, just can’t be remembered at certain times

155
Q

enhancing the retrieval of information and improving memory

A
  • ways memory can be improved through enhancing retrieval
  • paying closer attention
  • better organisation
  • having experience with it, using information
  • rehearsing material a sit is transferred from STM to LTM
  • some benefits from use of mnemonics
  • enhancing retrieval takes place back when contextual cues are sued to trigger memory
  • EG quiet, well lit study will lead to success in the exam room and vice versa
  • emotional state while learning can also effect your ability to retrieve information 5, and material learned in one mood star is likely to be better remembered under the same mood state
156
Q

conflict

A
  • an expressed struggle between at least two inderpendent parties who perceive incompatible goals, scarce resources, and interference from the other party in achieving goals
  • the behaviour that occurs when two parties perceive that they have incompatible goals, ideas and behaviours
157
Q

what are the benefits of conflict

A
  • help to clear the air
  • release emotions and stress
  • resolve tension
158
Q

imposed solutions

A
  • dictated solutions
  • sometimes one party is stronger and will impose a solution
  • other times a third party will impose solution
  • usually lead to one party winning
159
Q

distributive solutions

A
  • involves compromise
  • used when a middle ground needs to be met
    e. g. wages
160
Q

integrative solutions

A
  • ‘win win’ situations
  • both sides are benefited
  • can be more difficult then a compromise because it involved understanding both parties motives
161
Q

socialisation

A
  • throughout our lives we acquire the beliefs, values and behaviours that are thought to be important and appropriate to function effectively as a member of society
  • e.g. from family. school, mass media, religious institution
162
Q

ongoing socialisation

A
  • changes as we grow older

- adjusting to circumstances

163
Q

attachment

A
  • the formation of a strong emotional tie between mother and baby
  • it is claimed that there is a sensitive period during which such bonding can occur and failure to do so can lead to harmful effects later in life such as poor social skills and emotional development
  • claimed to be irreversible
164
Q

Harlow (1950s-1960s)

A

− studied role of nursing in attachment in 8 monkeys that had been separated from their mother’s at birth
− reared in a cage w/ 2 surrogate mothers made of mesh wire (similar in shape and size to own mother)
− 1 covered in cloth, other uncovered
− bottle attached to one of the mothers; half was attached to wire, half attached to cloth
− predicted that attachment was based on feeding and monkey would prefer the bottle mother
− found that regardless of whether cloth mother had the bottle or not, the infant would spend more time there
− preference of mothers was tested through introduction of stressful situation; all infants went to cloth mother
− concluded that ‘contact comfort’ was more important in attachment
− IMPORTANT that generalisation from animals to humans should be treated cautiously

165
Q

Bowlby

A
  • evolutionary perspective; children who were always close to their mothers would have avoided predators and grown up to have children of their own
  • believed there was an optimum time when infants become impaired by early contact to their mothers
  • imprinting; refers to the precise and permanent learning that occurs very early on in an infants life to for a bond, usually with mother
166
Q

monotropy

A
  • suggested that there should be a primary bond thats much more important then any other
  • to one attachment figure
167
Q

maternal deprivation

A
  • signalling behaviour from children to caregivers e.g.. crying, smiling, moving
  • instinctively caregivers respond to their children’s behaviours, creating a patter of interaction
  • refers to the separation from, or loss, other mother, as well as the failure to develop attachment
  • if attachment is broken/disrupted in the critical period the child will suffer irreversible long term consequences
168
Q

long term consequences of maternal deprivation

A
  • delinquency
  • reduce intelligence
  • increased aggression
  • depression
169
Q

Ainsworth

A
  1. Observer introduces parent and infant to experimental room (which there are toys) and then leaves room
  2. Mother sits in room while infant plays/explores
  3. Stranger comes into room. Is silent, then speaks to mother, the approaches infant
  4. (first separation) mother leaves. Stranger left with infant and gears behaviour to that of infant
  5. (first reunion) mother returns, greets/comforts infant and re-engages infant in playing. Stranger leaves room
  6. (second separation) mother leaves room, saying bye
  7. stranger re-enters room and gears behaviour to that of infant
  8. (second reunion) mother returns, greets/comforts infant and picks infant up. Stranger leaves
170
Q

Type A

A

ANXIOUS-AVOIDANT INFANTS: showed their insecurity by ignoring their mothers, failing to look at her and not trying to be close to her

171
Q

Type B

A

SECURE INFANTS: they used their mother as a secure base from which to explore the room

172
Q

Type C

A

ANXIOUS-RESISTANT INFANTS: they showed their insecurity by resisting their mothers, such as by clinging on to her but also kicking and pushing away

173
Q

Parenting styles

A
  • finding cause-and-effect links between specific actions of the parents and later behaviours of children is very difficult
  • some children who shake a home and are raised in same environment can grow up to have astonishingly different personalities
174
Q

Diana Baurind

A
  • conducted study on more than 100 pre-school children
  • naturalistic observation
  • 4 dimensions of parenting;
  • disciplining strategies
  • warmth and nurturance
  • communication styles
  • expectations of maturity and control
175
Q

Authoritarian Parenting

A
  • demand obedience from children
  • Set many rules and give few explanations for them.
  • Not interested in alternative viewpoints that children may have.
  • Use power or withdrawal of love to enforce rules.
  • Both demanding and strict, with high expectations of compliance to parental rules and demands
  • MORE OBIDIENT AND PROFICIENT CHILDREN BUT RANK LOWER IN HAPPINESS, SOCIAL COMPETENCE AND SELF ESTEEM
176
Q

Authoritative Parenting

A
  • style that sets limits for children.
  • Parents demands are reasonable and make sure children understand the why.
  • More responsive to their children’s viewpoints.
  • As children get older try get them in the decision-making process.
  • Warm and responsive, yet expect children to follow rules.
  • Expect mature/independent/age-appropriate behaviours
  • TENDS TO RESULT IN CHILDREN WHO ARE HAPPY, CAPABLE AND SUCCESSFUL
177
Q

Permissive Parenting

A
  • provides parental acceptance of children.
  • Few rules/guidelines.
  • Parent rarely tries to control behaviour.
  • More of a friend
  • CHILDREN RANKED LOWLY IN HAPPINESS AND SELF-REGULATION. MORE LIKELY TO EXPERIENCE PROBLEMS WITH AUTHORITY AND TEND TO PERFORM BADLY IN SCHOOL
178
Q

Uninvolved Parenting

A
  • displayed by parents who have either rejected their children or who are so overwhelmed by the stresses in their own lives that they have no time or energy for children.
  • No set limits.
  • RANK LOWEST ACROSS ALL LIFE DOMAINS, LACK SELF CONTROL, LOW SELF ESTEEM
179
Q

Changes in families from tradition

A

− In 1980s only 40% of women worked, now it is 70% - mens patters haven’t altered, although some are choosing to be stay at home dads
− Choosing to have less kids, later in life. Birth rate at 1.9
− Increased mobility of workforce – easy to move from state to state or to country – improved communication allows us to stay in touch, but families are smaller
− higher divorce rates
− Stanley, Richardson and Prior (2005) – 5 areas of change in Australian society that have negatively impacted on children’s health and development
 1. Demographic changes – fewer children in families and people living longer
 2. Economic changes – globalisation, a focus on competition and profits
 3. Women in the workforce – the impact on caring for children, particularly access to quality out-of-home child care
 4. Changes in family structure
 5. Increased technology

180
Q

Van Isjendoorn and Kroonember (1988)

A

− Carried out an analysis of studies involving 32 samples from 8 countries to look at differences between countries
− Found all 3 types where present in all cultures
− Differences within cultures were greater than differences between cultures
− Type B most common in all countries
− Type C more common in Japan and Isreal
− Type A more common in western European

181
Q

Sagi (1994)

A

− High proportion of children raised in Israeli kibbutzim had Type C attachment to mothers
− Likely due to sleeping arrangements
− Infants are moved to an ‘infant house’ at 6 weeks
− Small group of professional carers, with mother visiting to feed and bathe
− Two watchwomen to care at night
− Means there was delay in attending to infants needs during night and no stable relationship with an adult at night

182
Q

Formal grand parenting

A

these grandparents provide special outings and activities at birthdays and other occasions. Tend to be 65+ years

183
Q

Fun seeking grandparents

A

these grandparents are typically around 50 and enjoy playing and other informal activities with young children

184
Q

remote grand parents

A

these grandparents have little social or psychological investment in their grandchildren, often a result of physical distance

185
Q

Parent-surrogate grandparents

A

these grandparents take over the child-care responsibilities when parents are absent due to work, divorce or death

186
Q

‘fonts of wisdom’ grand parents

A

these grandparents maintain family traditions and provide links with previous generations. They are the storytellers and the ones who impart wisdom, memories and skills to the new generations

187
Q

what is communication

A
  • involved the transmission of a message from one person to another
  • differs in context and how it is conveyed
  • can be used different in media communication
  • style can also impact how effective we are communicating
188
Q

communication style

A

− Communication styles involves examining the cultural and social aspects of language
− Culture, socioeconomic background and gender influence the style in which we learn to speak
− Involves accents, vocabulary, grammar and ideas we are trying to express
− It is part of our self image and something people form judgements about

189
Q

berstein (1971)

A
− Interested in the relationship between language style and social class
− Claimed that people from working class, middle class used different kinds of language codes
− Working class people’s conversations relied on preserving traditional roles and ways of interacting, using restricted code
− Middle class wanted to develop ideas in relation to their personal experience so in addition to restricted code they used an elaborated coded
190
Q

Restricted code

A
  • Short and simple sentences are used, a lot of information conveyed non verbally
  • Meaning only makes sense if context is known
  • Few descriptive words
  • Commands used to gain compliance
  • ‘here and now’ is stressed
  • Abstract ideas rarely used
191
Q

Elaborate Code

A
  • Complex, precise sentences are used
  • The meaning is clear from the sentence alone
  • More descriptive words
  • Explanations are used to gain compliance
  • Events in past or future are referred to
  • Abstract ideas and future possibilities are expressed
192
Q

Berstein findings

A

− Bernstein considered that children in working class families had a language deficit
− Claimed it limited their education
− Major influence on education programs in USA in 1960-1970s

193
Q

Labov

A

− Strong contrast to Bernstein’s
− Worked with black children from NY, who spoke Black English Vernacular (BEV)
− Considered that BEV was just as complex and rule-governed as standard English, and considered as different not deficient – shunned if don’t know/understand their language
− He said there was nothing inherently more complex
− E.g. ‘he doesn’t know anything’ compared to ‘he don’t know nothing’
− Several European languages used double negatives in the same way as BEV
− Concerned that teachers were being told not to accept BEV as it was useless for learning

194
Q

Today’s views

A

− Linguistics now accept that language styles are simply differences in language use rather than one style being superior to another, prejudice against particular styles still exist in most aboriginal communities

195
Q

Gender differences

A

− Research has looked into how gender contributes to communications between men and women

196
Q

Tannen (1990)

A

− Described typical styles of men and women
− Men = report talk = type of talk used in public speaking, happy to take the attention, used to negotiate and maintain status
− Women = rapport talk = based on establishing relationships, developing understanding and negotiation differences
− Friction can occur between men and women because of a lack of understanding of differences in communication styles
− Woman at counselling frequently complain that their partners do not listen to what they have to say
− Tannen considers that if men and women understand the differences in each other’s reasons for talking then anguish can be avoided

197
Q

Expression (tannen)

A

− Other researchers have attempted to look at the differences in the forms of expressions used by men and women and to link them to power differences between sexes
− Women have been seen to use confirmatory noises like ‘mmm’ and ‘yeah’ to indicate that they are listening
− Use more indirect requests than men
− Men are more direct than women
 Men: “shut the door”
 Woman: “do you mind closing the door please”
− Women tend to use a ‘hedge’ to soften a request or statement
− Women: “please shut the door, if you don’t mind”
 (“if you don’t mind” is the hedge)
− Hedges can be used by both genders are more thought of as a strategic devices

198
Q

Persuasive communication

A
  • involved changing the belief, feelings, behaviours of another
  • need to know what affects listeners reaction if we want to be successful
    perry and CACIOPPO (1986)
  • central persuasion; meaningful messages that are only effective when the listener has motivation to understand the context and can the relate
  • peripheral route; persuasion occurs when the listener decides whether to agree with a message based on cures other than the content of message e.g. looks or expert opinion
199
Q

other ways to look at persuasion

A
  • source of the messege
  • nature of communication
  • characteristic of the audience
  • some of these are central others are peripheral
200
Q

source of message

A
  • we tend to accept the word of people with experience in an area without validity of their claim
  • advertisers count on this
  • research has found that we tend to think fast talkers are smart and an expert
  • as long as the gist of the message is understood, listeners assume the fast speaker is more intelligent and knowledgeable
  • Smith and Shaffer (1995) stated its due to fast presenters making it more difficult for listeners to evaluate content properly
201
Q

trustworthiness

A
  • another characteristic that persuades use
  • politicians use this
  • in an election campaign they will often try to convince is that the opposition are untrustworthy
202
Q

Nature of communication

A
  • when people understand a message and respond to it favourably they are likely to be persuaded
  • simply being exposed to the messege doesn’t mean that we understand it
  • this is why most advertisements ‘keep it simple’
  • we do not simply absorb information; we react to it an interact with it
  • messages often aim to provoke an emotional response as well as to change our thinking
  • advertisements aim straight at our emotions
  • try to make us feel good, in hope to buy the product
  • when people are in a good mood they are less likely to process information carefully an therefore will not be swayed by a rational argument, but still might buy on impulse
203
Q

individual differences

A
  • differ on how they evaluate an argument
  • some people enjoy examining issues, checking for inconsistencies and weighing up the ‘pros and cons’
  • these people have a ‘need for cognition’
  • they are more likely to be persuaded by strong arguments
  • people who are low in their need for cognition are less likely to take the strength of an argument into account anymore likely to be more swayed by trustworthiness and expertise
204
Q

cultures

A
  • advertisers have to be aware of cultural differences in what people find persuasive
  • this depends on individualistic or collectivist cultures
  • people who value interdependence (common fro collectivist cultures) would likely use hint strategies and consider them to be an effective means of persuasion
  • people who value independence (common for individualistic cultures) consider direct statements to be best way of making requests
205
Q

developmental psychology

A
  • Changes in people that begin at conception and continue throughout the lifespan
  • Involves relatively permanent changes
  • Not all changes are growth
  • Should be seen as a balance of positive and negative changes as we get older
206
Q

a theory is..

A
  • Describing what we know
  • Explain what we observe
  • Provide testable predictions
207
Q

piaget

A
  • World famous Swiss biologist and psychologist
  • Created a theory of cognitive development that described the basic stages that children go through as they mature mentally
  • Became interested in how children think, after administering intelligence tests to children and being intrigued by the reasoning that led children giving wrong answers
208
Q

schemas

A
  • Schemas are cognitive frame work or concepts that help people organise and interpret info
  • As experiences happen, this new info is used to add, modify or change previous schemas
209
Q

assimilation

A

• The process of taking in new info into our previously existing schemas is known as assimilation

210
Q

accommodation

A
  • Changing/altering our existing schemas in light of new info
  • Accommodation involves altering existing schemas, or ideas, as a result of new information or new experiences
211
Q

cognitive development

A

• Piaget also proposed four stages of development

212
Q

sensorimotor stage (birth - 2 years of age)

A
  • Infants’ knowledge of the world is limited to their sensory perceptions and motor activities. Behaviours are also limited
  • Child lives in the present and have little understanding that things exist beyond site
  • Object permanence: the object gained by the infant that an object continues to exist even when it cannot be seen – don’t have until 8 months old
213
Q

Pre-operational stage (2-6 years)

A
  • Child learns to use language
  • Children do not understand concrete logic, cannot mentally manipulate info, unable to take the point of view of others
  • Children are egocentric, they only perceive the world from their viewpoint
  • Mountains task – shown a model and have to determine what the person on the other side can see.
214
Q

concrete operational stage (7-11 years)

A
  • Children gain better understanding of mental operations. Begin to think logically, but difficulty understanding abstract concepts
  • Key achievement – conservation
  • Conservation: an understanding that an object does not change its’ weight, mass, volume or area simply because it changes shape and size
  • Other accomplishments are the ability to classify and seriate
  • Classify: group objects or events by features that they have in common
  • Seriate: order objects with respect to common properties
215
Q

formal operational stage (12+years)

A
  • Develop ability to think about abstract concepts
  • Skills such as logical thought, deductive reasoning and systematic planning emerge
  • Abstract thinking: thinking that does not rely on being able to see or handle concrete materials in order to reason about them
  • Logical thinking: working through problems systematically, developing hypothesises and testing them until a solution is found
216
Q

seagrim and lendon (1980)

A
  • Reported the findings of the Hermanslaurg project, which compared the cognitive performance of children from the Aranda and Loritja people, reared in the isolated Lutheran Mission Station in central Australia, with other aboriginal children reared elsewhere in different circumstances
  • Intellectual performance was almost exclusively based on Piagetian task and included tests of conservation of classification and of seriation
  • Between 1965-1978 (longitudinal in nature)
  • The major aim was to investigate the universality of Piaget’s theory; whether the developmental stages unfolded to a predetermined pattern or were they subject to external pressures
217
Q

hypothesis

seagrim and lendon (1980)

A

• It was claimed that cross-cultural research could begin to answer this question, and it was believed that these different Aboriginal groups with varying degrees in their contact with white culture, could demonstrate differences in intellectual development

218
Q

findings

seagrim and lendon (1980)

A

• Concluded that Australian Aboriginal Children were as capable as white children in the different types of thinking at similar ages and with similar educational experiences
• Only the case if the children had totally immersed in the white culture
• Cross-cultural research has ceased as formal schooling plays a large role in the developmental of the types of thinking
• Researchers who have criticised Piaget suggest that
- Underestimated young minds
- Failed to distinguish between competence and performance
- Gave insufficient attention to social influences on performance

219
Q

martin hughes

A
  • Found that children (3-5 years) could take another person’s perspective and no longer appeared egocentric when asked to carry out tasks that involved hiding a boy ‘so the policeman can’t see him’
  • 90% of children could hide the boy from the police officer
220
Q

donaldson

A
  • Argued that young children pass Hughes task and fail the three mountains task of Piaget because they are familiar with hiding = task makes sense to them
  • Piaget’s mountain task makes little sense to them and involves abstract ideas
221
Q
michael siegal (1991)
criticism to piaget
A
  • Critically eximaned language used

* Predicts problems arise when questions are asked and the answer is obvious and then re-asked after an answer is given

222
Q

examining language of piaget

A
  • Doesn’t usually occur in everyday conversation
  • Children often think their first answer must be wrong and change their responses when asked again
  • These studies have changed the way in which questions are asked
223
Q

other criticisms of piaget

A
  • Piaget assumed children failed tasks because of incompetence
  • Could have been because of other factors, like trying to please the examiner, or they are able to reason but have difficulty explaining principles involved
  • Also they relied on verbal response which some children can lack confidence in
  • Placed too little emphasis on how children’s minds develop through interactions with others
  • Underplay the role of social and cultural influences
224
Q

why is piaget still used

A
  • Piaget is still used today
  • Many of the key points in his theory still stand
  • He was correct in the stage sequence
  • Transformed education and his theory provides areas for areas
225
Q

moral development

A

• Is the gradual development of an individual’s concept of right or wrong – conscious, religious values, social attitudes and certain behaviour

226
Q

lawrence kohlberg (1958)

A
  • Used Piaget’s storytelling technique to tell people stories involving moral dilemmas
  • In each case he presented a choice to be considered for example, between the rights of some authority and the needs of some deserving individual who is being unfairly treated
227
Q

kohlberg findings

A
  • Hoped to discover the ways in which moral reasoning changed as people grew older
  • 72 Chicago boys – 10-16 years, 58 followed up three-yearly for 20 years
  • 2 hour interview (10 dilemmas)
  • Reasoning behind it
  • Found that these reasons tended to change as the children got older
228
Q

stage theory

A

• Cannot understand moral reasoning more than one stage ahead of their own

229
Q

pre-conventional level (stage 1 and 2)

KOHLBERG

A
  • At the pre-conventional level (most 9 year olds and younger, some over 9), we don’t have a personal code of morality
  • Moral code is shaped by the standards of adults and the consequences of following or breaking their rules
  • Authority is outside the individual and reasoning is based on the physical consequences of actions
230
Q

stage 1 - obedience and punishment orientation

KOHLBERG

A
  • Obeys rules in order to avoid punishment
  • Determines a sense of right and wrong by what is punished and what is not punished
  • Obeys superior authority and allows that authority to make the rules, especially if that authority has the power to inflict pain
  • Is responsive to rules that will affect his/her physical well-being
  • If a person is punished, they must have done wrong
231
Q

stage 2 - individualism and exchange

KOHLBERG

A
  • At this stage of moral development, children account for individual points of view and judge actions based on how they serve individual needs. Reciprocity is possible, but only if it serves one’s own interests
  • Is motivated by vengeance or “eye for an eye” philosophy
  • Is self-absorbed while assuming that he/she is generous
  • Believes in equal sharing in that everyone gets the same, regardless of neeed
  • Believes that the end justifies the means
  • Will do a favour only to get a favour
232
Q
conventional level (stage 3 and 4)
KOHLBERG
A
  • At the conventional level (most adults and adolescents), we begin to internalise the moral standards of valued adult role models
  • Authority is internalised but not questioned and reasoning is based on the norms of the group to which the person belongs
233
Q

stage 3 - good interpersonal relationships

KOHLBERG

A
  • Child/individual is good in order to be seen as being a good person by others. Therefore, answers relate to the approval of others
  • Finds peer approval very important
  • Feels that intentions are as important as deeds and expect others to accept intentions or promises in place of deeds
  • Beings to put himself/herself in another’s shoes and think from another perspective
234
Q

stage 4 - maintaining social order

KOHLBERG

A
  • Child/individual becomes aware of the wider rules of society so judgements concern obeying the rules in order to uphold the law and to avoid guilt
  • Is a duty doer who believes in rigid rules that should not be changed
  • Respects authority and obeys it without question
  • Supports the rights of the majority without concern for those in the minority
  • Is part of about 80% of the population does not progress past stage 4
235
Q

post conventional level (stage 5 and 6)

KOHLBERG

A
  • Individual judgement is based on self-chosen principles, and moral reasoning is based on individual rights and justice
  • According to Kohlberg this level of moral reasoning is as far as most people get
  • Only 10-15% are capable of the kind of abstract think necessary for stage 5/6
  • Most people take their moral views from those around them and only a minority think through ethical principles for themselves
236
Q

stage 5 - social contract and individual rights

KOHLBERG

A
  • Child/Individual becomes aware that while rules/laws might exist for the good of the greatest number, there are times when they will work against the interest of particular individuals
  • The issuer are not always clear cut e.g. in Heinz’s dilemma the protection of life is more important than breaking the law against stealing
  • Is motivated by the belief in the greatest amount of good for the greatest number of people
  • Believes in consensus, rather than majority rules
  • Respects rights of the minority especially the rights of the individual
  • Believes that change in law is possible but only through the system
237
Q

stage 6 - universal principles

KOHLBERG

A
  • People at this stage have developed their own set of morals guidelines which may or may not fit the law. The principles apply to everyone
  • E.g. human rights, justice and equality. The person will be prepared to act to defend these principles even if it means going against the rest of society in the process and having to pay the consequences of disapproval and or imprisonment. Kohlberg doubted few people reached this stage
  • Believes that there are high moral principles than those represented by social rules and customs
  • Is willing to accept the consequences for disobedience of the social rule he/she has rejected
  • Believes that the dignity of humanity is sacred and that all humans have values
238
Q

issues with kohlberg

A

• Sample is biased
- Only used males
- Men and women morality different
- Men, abstract principles of law and justice
- Women; compassion and care
• Dillemmas Artificial
- Not everyone familiar with situation
- E.g. never married or placed in similar situation
• Poor research design
- Used cross-sectional, stead of longitudinal
- Should have followed same people

239
Q

sense of identity

A
  • As children grow and develop they need to establish the distinct nature of self
  • This unique sense of identity describes the enduring personality characteristics of each and every one of us
  • Erickson (1902-1994) famous theorist who described the development of identity across the lifespan
240
Q

erikson

A
  • Considered the development of identity to be a series of continual challenges that have to be met by the individual to move successfully to the next phase of life
  • Life – Icing process
  • Biggest hurdle being around adolescence
241
Q

identity formation

A

• Seen as a continuous challenge with dominant crises characterising various phases of life, starting from infancy through to old ag

242
Q

erikson’s theory

A
  • Described the normal conflict or crises that can be overcome during our lives and shows how successful resolutions of these crises can lead to the next stage and to the successful resolution of these future conflicts
  • The stages are regarded as a model of normal personality development
  • Derived from the patients he was treating
  • Unsuccessful resolution can lead to children adolescents and adults becoming ‘stuck’ at a particular stage and then not developing normally
  • Abnormal personality development could be traced to failure to resolve identity crises at an earlier stage of development
  • One of the few theories that link development in infancy with development in older age
243
Q

stages of erikson’s theory

A
1.	Infancy (0-1 years)
Trust Vs Mistrust
2.	Toddler (1-3 years)
Autonomy Vs Shame and Doubt
3.	Early Childhood (3-6 years)
Initiative Vs guilt
4.	Middle Childhood (6-12 years)
Industry Vs Inferiority
5.	Adolescence (12-18 years)
Identity Vs Role Confusion
6.	Early Adulthood (18-40 years)
Intimacy Vs Isolation
7.	Middle Adulthood (40-65 years)
Generativity Vs Stagnation
8.	Late Adulthood (65-death)
Integrity Vs Despair
244
Q

normal development

A

• By tracking changes in large numbers of individuals, we can work out what constitutes average age or normal development

245
Q

average

A
  • A term often used to describe what is considered normal when we consider a large number of people
  • E.g. weight, intelligence
246
Q

norms

A
  • Males and females
  • Produce developmental scales/checklists that give the development expected for each age, they may provide different norms for male and female
  • Norms = list of what is average
247
Q

longtitudinal research

A
  • One way to follow development of a group of individuals across their lifespan, testing them at different (regular) intervals
  • Design method allows us to see what is normal for people of different ages and also to look at differences between individuals
248
Q

limitations of longitudinal research

A
  • Having to wait many years to answer the research questions
  • People move around > difficult to track
  • Some may wish to withdraw
  • Participants can become ‘test wise’ which can affect observations
249
Q

cross sectional research design

A
  • To avoid difficulties of longitudinal
  • Involves looking at groups of people at different ages at the same point in time
  • Groups of people are chosen to resemble each other in aspects of their lives
250
Q

cohort

A
  • Making sure that different age groups or cohorts are the same apart from age can be difficult, this is the major weakness
  • A group of people that have some aspect of their lives the same, e.g. age
251
Q

cohort effect

A
  • Cross sectional effect
  • Is where people in the younger age groups have had longer and better educational opportunities than those in older cohorts
252
Q

trait theory

A
  • An approach to the study of human personality
  • Trait theorists are primarily interested in the measurements of traits
  • A trait can be thought of as a relatively stable characteristic
  • Traits can be defined as habitual patterns of behaviour, thought and emotion
  • Unlike many other theories of personality, such as psychoanalytic or humanistic
  • Trait approach to personality is focused on differences between individuals
  • Combination and interaction of various traits form a personality that is unique to each individual. Trait theory is focused on identifying and measuring these individual personality characteristics.
253
Q

mccrae and costa

OCEAN

A

Openness: This trait features characteristics such as imagination and insight, and those high in this trait also tend to have a broad range of interests
Conscientiousness: Common features of this dimension include high levels if thoughtfulness, with good impulse control and goal-directed behaviours. Those high in conscientiousness tend to be organized and mindful of details
Extraversion: This trait includes characteristics such as excitability, sociability, talkativeness, assertiveness and high amounts of emotional
Agreeableness: This personality dimension includes attributes such as trust, altruism, kindness, affection, and other prosocial behaviours.
Neuroticism: Individuals high in this trait tend to experience emotional instability, anxiety, moodiness, irritability, and sadness

254
Q

ashton and kibeam (2007)

A

Added 6th factor, honesty-humility

255
Q

allport’s theory

A
  • Gordon Allport
  • Found that English-language dictionary contained more than 4000 words describing personality traits
  • Categorized intro 3 levels
256
Q

cardinal traits

A
  • Dominate individuals whole life

* Person becomes known specifically for these traits – to the point that your name becomes synonyms of these qualities

257
Q

central traits

A
  • General characteristics that form the basic foundations of personality
  • Not as dominating as cardinal
  • Major characteristics used to describe a person
258
Q

secondary traits

A

• Sometimes related to attitudes or preferences and often appear in certain situations or under specific circumstances

259
Q

cattells theory of personality

A
  • Raymond Cattell
  • Reduced the number main personality traits to 71
  • Eliminating uncommon traits and combining common characteristics
  • Rated a large sample of individuals using a statistical techniques known as factor analysis
  • Identified closely related terms and eventually reduced his list to just 16 key personality traits
  • According to Cattell, there is a continuum of personality traits. In other words, each person contains all of these 16 traits to a certain degree, but they might be high in some traits and low in others.
260
Q

critical evaluation of train theories

A

• Twin studies can be used to see if personality is genetic, however, the findings are conflicting and non-conclusive

261
Q

shields (1996)

A

Found that monozygote (identical) twins were significantly more alike on the introvert-extrovert (E) and psychoticism (P) dimensions than diygotic (non-identical)

262
Q

Loehlin Willerman and Horn (1988)

A

Found only 50% of the variations of scores on personality dimensions are due to inherited traits. Suggested that social factors are also im

263
Q

personality type

A
  • People with the same cluster of characteristics are said to have the same personality type
  • Contemporary type theories are no longer one dimensional – and are being used in settings such as health and business.
264
Q

meyer friedman

A
  • Designed to find out what type of person is more susceptible to heart attacks
  • Led them to propose there are two types of people – type A and type B
  • Type A – ambitious, competitive, pushy, highly motivated, busy and impatient. Can be easily irritated and frustrated
  • Type B – easy going, low levels of time urgency, competitiveness and hospitality
265
Q

friedman and rosenman

A
  • Carried out longitudinal study following 3524 men aged 35-59 over 8 and a half years
  • Interviewed about work and eating habits
  • Also noted person’s manner and behaviour
  • They were either Type A or Type B
  • Type A was more prone to heart attacks
  • By the end of the study 257 men had heart attacks. 69%being type A
  • Not one ‘pure’ type B (the most laid back of all) had suffered a heart attack
  • What caused this to occur?
  • One study on personality type and heart disease indicated that only some components of Type A personalities put a person at risk
  • These are: negative emotion, hostility, reactive anger
  • Causes increased heart rate and blood pressure
266
Q

milligan (1997)

A

• Found that people with type A personality have:

  • Less healthy lives
  • Get involved in more accidents
  • Drink more alcohol
267
Q

type c personality

A
  • Found when examining relationship between personality and prognosis of malignant melanoma
  • Characterised as passive, bland, helpless and appeasing
268
Q

temoshok and dreher (1992)

A
  • Suggested that bottled up emotions weakened a person’s immune system and made them more prone to cancer
  • More research since has found no relationship between development of cancer and personality type
  • Increasingly used in businesses and organisations over the past 10-20 years
  • Determine suitability to jobs and compatibility with work colleagues
  • One of the most popular is the Myers-Briggs type indicator
269
Q

bandura’s explanation of human behaviour

A

• Being the result of the interaction between behaviours, cognitive factors and environment factors, which he called reciprocal determinism

270
Q

bandora explains the reasoning behind why students may not ask for help

A
  • Students own thoughts and beliefs about themselves and their interpretation of hwat goes on in the classroom would influence their behaviour
  • Students who think they are bad at maths and that they will be ridiculed if they asl a question would be unlikely to ask for help
271
Q

self-efficiency

A

A belief that one has the ability to achieve an effective outcome

272
Q

Mischel’s contribution

A

• Tried to reconcile within a single framework both trait and social cognitive approaches to explain human behaviour

273
Q

triplett (1898)

A

• Noticed cyclists were faster when racing each other
• Hypothesised that presence of others boosts performance
Testing his hypothesis
• Tested this hypothesis on adolescence winding in a reel
• Found they were better when together rather than alone
• The boost referred to as social facilitation
• Later research shows presence of others can lead to social inhibition (the opposite)

274
Q

Yerkes and dodson

A

• Hypothesised that people perform their best with moderate arousal
• Performance drops off when they are not sufficiently aroused or over aroused
• Depends on the tasks
- Well learned: high arousal level
- New task: lower arousal

275
Q

diffusion of responsibility

A
  • In an emergency, this is the idea that if a person s alone, he or she accepts responsibility
  • If several people are present, each assumes that the other will do something so he or she does not need to take responsibility
276
Q

darley and latan (1968)

A
  • Placed individual students individual students in small rooms
  • They were told that they were to take part in a discussion using a microphone and headphones
  • Some students were led to believe they were talking to one other person; whereas others believed they were talking to a small group
  • One student told the group/individual that they were epileptic (actor)
  • Suddenly he made noises as if he was having a fit
  • Aim was to see how many would help
  • All participants of ‘individual discussion’ went for help, 85% in the first 80 seconds
  • 62% in a group went for help, only 31% going quickly
277
Q

bystander effect

A

• Their research found that the more people who are present in an emergency, the less likely it is that each person will try to help

278
Q

criticisms of bystander effect

A
  • Individuals may be lead to thinking that other observers are more qualified to help. In times of medical emergencies, people might think that maybe a doctor is present in the scene and the patient will be better off with the help of the doctor.
  • Some people may be too self-conscious that they don’t want to give off negative images to other bystanders. For them to avoid this occurrence, these individuals simply do not respons to the emergency
  • Fears associated to perception can also be an explanation of bystander effect. Such fears include being outranked by a superior helper, or being rejected when offering one’s help, or having to deal with legal consequences of offering inferior or even worsening assistance
279
Q

social influence

A
  • Changing behaviours in response to others
  • Influence of a group is stronger if we identify with the group
  • Peers – people who interact with us on fairly equal terms
  • They usually have the same status
  • Peer and a friend is not the same thing
280
Q

peer groups

A
  • Peer groups have their own social norms that can cover things such as style, dress, taste in music, and attitudes to different topics
  • May have their own slang terms or expression that are not understood by others outside of the group
281
Q

peer pressure

A
  • Influence of peer groups starts to increase around middle childhood and continues until middle adolescence
  • Peer pressure can have a negative label
  • Pressure from groups or individuals to think, feel or behave in certain ways, whether they want to or not
  • Not all people react in the same way to peer pressure
  • People who are ‘fringe’ members of groups or who are less sure of their standing are more likely to be influenced than other members who have higher standings
  • Trying to gain favour of the group
282
Q

group influences

A

• Group polarisation – when individuals are in groups with others who hold similar attitudes and beliefs. Discussions within this group can strengthen opinions.

283
Q

the bystander effect in behaviour

A
  • In 1964 Kitty Genovese was murdered outside her home in New York
  • 38 witnesses but no one did anything
  • Catalyst for considerable amount of research
  • Researchers found that helping strangers is more likely in less densely populated areas
  • North, Tarrant and Hargreaves found that participants are more likely to help when they are in a positive mood and stimulated by music
  • Wegner and Crano found that contrasting skin colour of victim and helper can also be a determinant for helping behaviour
  • Presence of other observers reduces likelihood that any one person will display a helping response – no safety in numbers
284
Q

latane and darley

A

• Developed a model that bystanders follow to decide if they will provide help or not. Helping responses can be inhibited at any stage of the process and no help is provided.

  1. The bystander needs to notice that an event is taking place, but may fail to do so and not provide help
  2. The bystander needs to identify the event as some form of emergency. The situation may be ambiguous, preventing from help being given
  3. The bystander needs to take responsibility for helping, but might avoid taking responsibility by assuming that somebody else will (diffusion of responsibility)
  4. The bystander needs to decide on the appropriate helping response, but may not believe themselves to be competent to do so
  5. The bystander needs to implement that response, but this may be against their interest to do so, especially in dangerous situations.
285
Q

myers and bishop (1970)

A
  • Found that when students who were low radical prejudice talked together, attitudes became more accepted
  • When highly prejudice students talked about the issues they became even more prejudiced
286
Q

clark mccauley (2002)

A

• Noted that terrorist mentality comes from groups that get together and share their similar grievances where there is no moderating influence

287
Q

conformity

A
  • Changing behaviour in response to peer pressure
  • Conform to be accepted by a group – known as normative social influence
  • Breaking social norms can lead to exclusion
  • We often conform when we are in strange situations, around people we don’t know well or situations that are new to us. Known as informational social influence
288
Q

group size

A
  • Has an effect on conformity
  • Increases with group size up to a group of 3-5
  • After that increasing group size has little effect
289
Q

degree of unanimity

A
  • When the others in the group are unanimous – agree completely – it is difficult for an individual to stand out
  • Ashe (1955) found that the presence of another person who shares on view or does not agree with others strengthens resistance to conformity.
290
Q

rod bond and peter smith (1996)

A

• Compared Ash’s data and found evidence for cultural differences in conformity
• Highest in collective cultures (Asia, SA, Africa)
• Lower in individualist cultures (Western Cultures)
- Collective goals in collective cultures
- Personal goals in individualistic cultures

291
Q

types of conformity

A

compliance
internalisation
identification
ingrational

292
Q

Compliance (or group acceptance)

A
  • Conforming to the majority (publicly), in spite of not really agreeing with them (privately). This is seen in Asche’s line experiment
  • Compliance stops when there are no group pressures to conform, and is therefore a temporary behaviour change.
293
Q

internalisation (genuine acceptance of group norms)

A
  • Internalisation always involves public and private conformity. A person publicly changes their behaviour to fit in which the group, while also agreeing with them privately
  • This is the deepest level of conformity where the beliefs of the group become part of the individual’s own belief system. This means the change in behaviour is permanent
294
Q

Identification (or group membership)

A

• Individuals conform to the expectations of a social role, e.g. nurses, police officers. It is similar to compliance, as there does not have to be a change in private opinion. A good example is Zimbardo’s prison study

295
Q

ingrational

A
  • This is when a person conforms to impress of gain favour/acceptance from other people
  • It is similar to normative influence, but is motivated by the need for social rewards rather than the threat of rejection, i.e… group pressure does not enter the decision to conform.
296
Q

obedience

A

• Changing behaviour when there is a expectation of obedience
- Authority figures – obey or face negative consequences

297
Q

milgram’s obedience study

A
  • Experiment was to study obedience to authority and became interested in why Nazi SS officers obeyed orders from superiors to kill millions of jews
  • Milgram was surprised by the degree participants obeyed orders
298
Q

milgram’s experiment and obedience

A

• Milgram was surprised at the extent to which participants obeyed the experimenter’s instructions. The main factors influencing such obedience can be summarised as:

  • Immediacy or proximity to the victim who was not seen. Subsequent studies had situations where the teacher could see the learner, and obedience dropped
  • Immediacy or proximity of the experimenter was also influential. Removing the experimenter was also influential. Removing the experimenter from the same room as the teacher reduced obedience
  • Authority of the experimenter. In Milgram’s experiments, the experimenter was a white lab-coated Caucasian university professor. Conducting the experiment in a non-university setting also reduced the levels of obedience
299
Q

the conclusions that have been drawn from this experiment are

A
  • Belief in legitimate authority
  • Commitment to successful achievement of the experiment
  • Lack of disobedient role models. Social norms were not present as it was socially isolated
  • Lack of personal responsibility. Milgram assured that the teachers were not personally responsible for what happened.
300
Q

attribution theory

A
  • The way in which we attach meaning to others behaviour or our own
  • Why people behave the way they do.
301
Q

friske and taylor (1991)

A

• “Attribution theory deals with how the social perceiver uses information to arrive at causal explanations for events. It examines what information is gathered and how it is combined to form a causal judgment”

302
Q

heider (1958)

A
  • Believed that people are naïve psychologists trying to make sense of the social world
  • We usually take an individual’s behaviour at face value and do not sufficiently consider the surrounding circumstances
303
Q

jones and harris (1967)

A
  • Students had to judge the true attitude of a person from a small sample of an essay on a controversial topic
  • From this they inferred that the debator had an attitude towards castro that was close to what was read
304
Q

crick and dodge (1994)

A

• Looked at attributions when studying aggressive behaviour
- Differentiate between what they call: reactive aggressive, an angry response to frustration or provocation.
- And productive aggression, which is a deliberate attempt to get a desired goal
• Found that children showing reactive aggression are likely to show attribution bias and interpret situations as hostile when no hostility is intended
• E.g. bumping into someone could be made a hostile situation

305
Q

self-serving bias

A
  • Make attributions about our own behaviour
  • Can be both situational and dispositional
  • De Michele and Colleagues (1998) suggest that we distort the facts and made situational attributions to maintain self esteem
  • Known as self serving bias
306
Q

causal attribution theory

A
  • Kelly (1973) – tries to explain how people make causal explanations and answer questions about ‘why’ something happened
  • Use 3 types of information: persons, time and entities
  • Kelly acknowledged that there were still issues that attribution theory still needed to address, such as why prior beliefs about information (such as stereotypes) affect the intake of information about possible competing causes of behaviour and events.
307
Q

cognitive dissonance theory

A
  • Leon Festinger’s theory
  • Relationship between cognitions and behaviour
  • Contradictory or clashing thoughts that cause discomfort
  • We then seek out ways to stop the internal conflict. (Thibodeau and Aronson (1992))
  • People try to reduce the dissonance either by changing the belief or attitude or by changing the behaviour
308
Q

unexpected phenomena

A
  • Festinger and Carlsmith (1959)
  • College students participated in a series of dull tasks
  • After completing the tasks half were offered $1 to tell the next participant that the tasks were interesting and would be fun
  • The other half were paid $20 to do this
  • All participants did as requested and were later asked to rate how much they enjoyed the task
  • Those paid $1 rated the tasks as enjoyable
  • Those paid $20 rated it much lower
  • Why? Appears that small incentives led individuals to believe what they had said, whereas those paid the larger amount had a compensating reason for doubting their belief
309
Q

sense of community

A
  • In 1974, psychologist Seymour Sarason introduced the concept of “psychological sense of community”
  • He proposed that it should be the main focus of the psychological community claiming that a psychological sense of community “is one of the major bases of self definition”
310
Q

mcmillan and chavis

A

• “Sense of community is a feeling that members have of belonging, a feeling that members matter to one another and to the group, and a shared faith that members’ needs will be met through their commitment to be together.”
• Proposed 4 criteria that had to be met for an individual to feel a sense of community
- Membership
- Influence
- Fulfilment of needs
- Shared emotional connection

311
Q

membership

A
  • Provides a feeling of belonging
  • Establishes boundaries that divide those who belong from those who don’t
  • Often use dress rituals and language to indicate who is a member
  • May have some form of initiation – seen the college movies where pranks are played
  • Language differences can be in-group slang or professional jargon
  • Can cause a feeling of inclusion/exclusion
  • Boundaries can be important for neighbourhood communities sometimes they are obvious (gates and fences) sometimes they are more subtle, like gangs having graffiti on walls
  • Provide safety-separating ‘us’ from ‘them’
312
Q

influence

A

• Based on research of group cohesion
• McMillan and Chavis proposed that while people are more attracted to a community in which they have influence, community cohesiveness requires members to be prepared to conform
• Also speaks to the concept of giving first before asking for anything. The theory states that:
“People who acknowledge that others’ needs, values, and opinions matter to them are often the most influential group members, while those who always push to influence, try to dominate others, and ignore the wishes and opinions of others are often the least powerful members.”
• They cited research that makes sense of these apparent opposing forces
• Found that people who acknowledge others’ opinions and needs are often more influential than those who try to dominate others and ignore their wishes. E.g. dominant person in a group project.

313
Q

integration and the fulfilment of needs

A
  • Membership of the group must be rewarding
  • One of the rewards is status
  • Group success brings members close together
  • Groups need to be organised to work at their best
  • Members need to know each other’s strengths and weaknesses
  • Roles and tasks need to be assigned
  • Members must make sure that crucial tasks are done and that they are not completed for resources or status
  • Leaders who have tried to foster cooperation have found that a powerful way of achieving this is to make rewards dependant on outcomes by the group
  • Employee and teachers have adopted this approach to improve group productivity
314
Q

aronsom and colleagues (1978)

A
  • Showed that students in cooperative class rooms, who work together to achieve group goals and receive their marks on the basis of the class product, actually learn better than students in competitive or individualistic classrooms
  • McMillan revised his and Chavis’ theory in 1996, he proposed another way individuals can have their needs met, which is by being a part of a group of people with shared values, who think and feel similarly to themselves with who they feel safe.
  • E.g. sporting team, all have set positions to work their best at – given awards
315
Q

shared emotional connection

A
  • Refers to the feeling that we might have of being connected to another person through a common emotional response to a shared activity or event-sharing history
  • Forged not only from being together but also the quality and importance of this interaction
  • These experiences form a long lasting, emotional connection. That’s why a community that goes through a crisis often comes out much stronger because they’ve now shared a difficult situation, forging a strong emotional bond amongst members.
316
Q

impact of significant events

A
  • World events are large-scale events that affect more than an individual
  • They are often sources of stress for individuals
  • This s true whether it is negative, such as a hurricane, war, or fire, or whether it is positive like the Olympic games
317
Q

factors contributing to stress

A
  • There are three main factors about events that influence whether or not we experience them as stressful
  • Predictability – some events, like eruption of a volcano, may be stressful even if they are predictable. However, usually unpredictable events are more stressful and have longer lasting impact.
  • Controllability – having no control over events is a major source of stress reported by victims of terrorist attacks and long term residents of refugee camps.
  • Experience threat or loss – many people find even a positive event, like the Olympic games, to be stressful, as it involves changes and unknowns that may be perceived as threatening
318
Q

individual differences in response to stressful events

A

• People react differently even when they are exposed to the same event.

319
Q

positive responses to negative events

A

• Kobasa (1979) thought that personality differences could account for different responses to stress
• Carried out a study in which 600 executives and managers were asked to complete two questionnaires.
• One was for personality, the other measured the stressful events and illnesses that respondents have experienced over the previous three years.
• She divided the respondents into two groups: one that had scored above average for illnesses and the other that scored below average
• The number of stressful events experienced by both groups was high.
• However, when she compared the high stress/high illness group with the high stress/low illness group, she found the latter group:
- Saw change as a challenge
- Felt more in control of their lives
- Had a sense of direction in both their work and personal lives
• She described this group as having a ‘hardy’ personality
• Her conclusion was originally criticised because it was the cause, not the result, of the personality characteristics
• She later carried out a longitudinal study (1982) in which she followed a group of executives over a two year period and found that those identified at the start of the two years as having a hardy personality were less likely to become ill.
• Qualities that Kobasa saw in ‘hardy’ types are some characteristics that have been identified with the concept of resilience
• Some of the qualities are:
- The capacity for making the most of small windows of opportunity
- Having a deep rooted faith in a system of meaning
- Having a healthy social support network
- Having a wide comfort zone
• Research based on intervention studies suggests that to some extent an individual’s resilience can be trained
• Challenge based personal development programs work with the idea that personal growth and resilience can be taught by combining challenges with support
• By facing situations that are difficult or scary with sufficient support, we learn that we can deal with something that we earlier would have found impossible.

320
Q

vulnerable groups

A
  • Much of the research on community responses to major events has focused on determining what parts of the community are most vulnerable at time of disasters
  • This type of information is used by agencies whose job it is to cope with emergencies
  • Emergencies such as cyclones, bushfires and long-term power outages
  • Analysis following hurricane Katrina in the southeast of USA identified socially disadvantaged groups – the poor, African americans and elderly – as being most vulnerable. (Elliot and Paris 2006)
  • However Australian research has found that it is not always these groups that are most affected by disasters
  • In 1998, a gas explosion at the Esso natural gas plant in Victoria cause supplies of natural gas to be severely restricted for several weeks
  • This is widely used in Victorian homes for heating, and hot water, meaning that residents had to endure cold showers and nights
  • It might be predicted that the elderly would be most disadvantaged in this situation
  • Buckle (2001) found that they coped better than younger people, as their past experiences dealing with crisis due to supplies or resources led them to deal with the crisis more easily
321
Q

community resilience

A
  • Researchers have argued that communities need to think beyond responding to emergencies and need to think about trying to understand resilience
  • Julie Ann Pooley (2006) and her colleagues describe how the concept of community resilience has been used to explain resilience in a community
  • Competent communities are ones that are able to identify needs and issues, and work cooperatively to carry out plans and achieve goals
  • If people live in a competent community and have a sense of community, the community is considered resilient
  • The effects of community resilience on outcomes following a disaster are not direct
  • In studying the effect of cyclones in northwest of Australia, Pooley and colleagues found that the competence of a community and individuals’ feelings of attachment to their community led them to having an increased sense of self-efficacy and social networks
  • This led to reduced stress and increased growth
322
Q

long term events of stressful events

A
  • Longitudinal study

* 1974 Glen Elder reported on a study which looked at the effect of the great depression on children