Exam2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe Type I HS. What mediates it? What sequence of events?

A

Mediated by mast cells that have been activated by crosslinked IgE bound to Fc receptors.
DC takes allergen to LN, activates Th2 cells to produce IL-4, IL-4 helps B cells class switch and produce IgE.
On second exposure antigen crosslinks IgE on mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the immediate phase of T1HS

A
  • minutes after exposure
  • release histamine, prostaglandins and leukotrienes (lipids), preformed cytokines and chemokines
  • increase in vascular permiablity and contration of smooth muscle
  • tissue swelling and bronchoconstriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the late phase of T1HS

A
  • first seen 2-4hours after exposure, actually 8-24 hours later
  • Th2 cells to site, release IL-4 to get B cells to produce IgE
  • release IL-5 to recruit eosinophils, also TNF
  • get second phase of smooth muscle contraction, sustained edema and tissue remodeling, expansion of edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

mmunologic basis for therapeutic strategies for the treatment of allergy.

A

a. Anaphylaxis- treat with epinephrine, beta2 adrenergic agonist- causes smooth muscle cell contraction, increases cardiac output to counter shock, and inhibits bronchial smooth muscle cell contraction (BRONCHIAL RELAXATION)
b. Bronchial asthma- corticosteroids- reduce inflammation by inhibiting histamine and cytokines (TNF, IL4 IL5)
i. Leukotriene anatagonists- relax bronchial smooth muscle and reduce inflammation
ii. Phosphodiesterase inhbitors- relax bronchial smooth muscle
c. Other allergic diseases- desensitization of low doses of antigen- may inhibit IgE production
i. Anti-IgE antibody- omalizumab- neutralizes and eliminates IgE
ii. Antihistamine- blocks action of histamine on vessels and smooth muscle
iii. Cromylon- inhibits mast cell degranulation, inhibits leukotrienes and PAF, prevents bronchial constriction
d. In clinical trials:
i. Block Th2 activation- by induction of Treg cells and stim Th1 response
ii. Block B cell activation to IgE production- block co-stim CD40L or inhibit IL-4 or 13
iii. Block mast cell activation- block IgE receptor
iv. Block eosinophil dependent inflammation- inhibit IL-5 or CCR3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Be able to identify the different cell types and mediators and understand the mechanisms of the immediate hypersensitivity response.

A

a. Type I hypersensastivity requires an initial sensatizaiton and then reexposure
i. Sensatization- IgE antibody production
1. APC (DC) process and present allergen antigen to naïve T cells in the lymph node causing activation/differentiation of Th2 cells.
2. Th2 cells secrete IL-4 which allows B cells to class switch and produce IgE instead of IgM, this takes days to week but now primed for allergy
ii. Re-exposure- mast cell activation via crosslinking
1. Allergen specific IgE binds to FcERI on mast cells- binding is stable, on second exposure already have mast cells bound to IgE
2. Allergens cross-link allergen specific IgE antibodies specific for the allergen on the mast cell membranes.
3. Antigen binding to IgE already bound by the FcREI receptor on mast cells causes crosslinking of the bound IgE and aggregation of underlying FcREI causing degranulation of mast cell mediators.
4. People with allergies do not have more IgE bound, they have more IgE that will react with a specific allergen/antigen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Understand the differences between the 4 types of hypersensitivities, and be able to provide an example of a non-autoimmune related hypersensitivity reaction mediated by each of the different types of hypersensitivities.

A

a. Type I hypersensitivity- immediate hypersensitivity, allergic or atopy, IgE activation of mast cells produces an inflammatory reaction
b. cross-linked IgE antibody bound to Fc receptors activating mast cell and their mediators.
i. Ex: allergic rhinitis, asthma, systemic anaphylaxis
ii. Occurs within minutes of second exposure to antigen
iii. Allergen causes- increased vascular permeability, vasodilation, bronchial and visceral smooth muscle contraction, and local inflammation
c. Type II hypersensitivity- antibody dependent cytotoxic reactions, mediated by compliment, FcR+ cells-phagocytes and NK cells
i. Complement dependent reaction
1. IgM mediated lysis- IgM ab is directed against antigen on CELL MEMBRANE, activates compliment, lysis via MAC
a. Ex: ABO mismatch,
2. IgG mediated lysis-IgG attaches to basement membrane or matrix and activates compliment, C5a is produced which recruits neutrophils and monocytes to activation site, release of enzymes and ROS causes tissue damage
a. Ex: penicillin high dose, goodpasteur, rhematic fever
d. Type III hypersensitivity- immunocomplex hypersensitivity
i. Second exposure of antigen causes antigen-ab complexes to form and deposit in vasculature, complement is activated and attracts neutrophils that damage tissue.
ii. Can be from immune response to anti-serum from foreign soruce (like horse) or foregin materials (some viruses)
iii. Ex: arthrus reaction (farmer’s lung) and serum sickness
e. Type IV hypersensitivity- ANTIBODY INDEPENDENT T cell mediated reaction
i. DRH- CD4 Th1 cells activate macrophages- leads to cytokine tissue damage ex: TB reaction, contact dermitis.
ii. CTL- CD8 cells react with MHC I antigens causing cell lysis, contact dermitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the importance of FcREI receptor on mast cells

A
  • has high affinity, all receptors are bound in normal and allergic patients
  • must be cross-linked with allergen for activation
  • allergic patients bind more IgE with SAME ANTIGEN SPECIFICITY
  • on mast cell, basophils, eosinophils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

understand the general concepts of self-tolerance and tolerance.

A

a. Tolerance/immunoregulation- nautral mechanisms that eliminate or control autoreactive lymphocytes and prevent autoimmune disease. May contribute to to the failure to develop immunity against tumors in cancer patients or protective immunity against disease.
b. Antigen specificity is random so many self reactive cells are generated so must control or eliminate. Self tolerance is a state in which the adaptive immune response does not react destructively against the host. Autoimmunity= loss of self tolerance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

understand the immunological basis of Central Tolerance.

A

a. Central tolerance- elimination of majority of self-reactive T cells through negative selection in the thymus, T cells with high affinity receptors are eliminated or induced to become T reg cells.
i. Can only eliminate T cells that express receptors specific for self peptides that are expressed or presented in the thymus, expression of self peptides in the thymus= AIRE gene
b. Self reactive peptides with LOW AFFINITY or do not encounter self peptide in the thymus can escape to the periphery. Could possible start autoimmunity but in normal people- count on peripheral tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

understand and be able to describe the immunological processes responsible for the various components/mechanisms of Peripheral Tolerance.

A

a. Peripheral tolerance- the mechanisms that control the autoreactive T cells that escape negative selection in the thymus and move to the periphery
i. Immunological ignorance- most effective, some antigens can be physically (blood testes barrier) or immunologically (non functional APC) be sequestered from lymphocytes. Or just in low quanities in periphery and are ignored by T cells
ii. Immune privelge- places where allogenic grafts are not rejected (eye, testes, brain) because they are highly susceptible to inflammatory damage. Have evolved to downreg immune response and are anti inflammatory. Mechanisms:
1. Selective barrier to immune cells
2. Immunosuppressive milieu (high levels TGFbeta-immunosuppresive)
3. Constituitive expression of apoptosis inducing molecules- FasL will destroy Fas expressing T cells
iii. Anergy- permanent unresponsiveness induced by signaling through the TCR in absence of costimulator (CD28)
iv. Inhibitory signaling- CTLA4 binds to B7 on APC better than CD28 costim from T cell does. Blocks T cell activation. Also activates T reg cells
1. PD-1 is expressed by T cells and binds to APC expressed PDL1 or 2 to block T cell activation, not killing it
v. Peripheral deletion- induce apoptosis to constrict T cells after elimination of pathogen or persistent antigen stim.
1. Antigen is defeated, reduce IL-2, T cells begin to die
2. AICD- activated-induced cell death is death receptor dependent. Is induced by activated T cells through Fas/FasL in response to persistent stimulation by antigen
vi. Immune deviation- deviation from a Th1 to Th2 response or vice versa
1. Th2 cytokines suppress Th1- IL-4, IL-10, TGFB
2. Th1 cytokines suppress Th2- INFgamma
vii. Active immune suppression- T reg cell suppression of immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

understand the differences in the factors/conditions that govern immunogenicity versus tolerogenicity to protein antigens.

A

a. Tolerance- high doses, prolonged, IV oral or nasal presence in generative organs, antigens without adjuvants (costims), low costims or cytokines
b. Immunogencity- varying does, short lived, subcut intradermal absent in generative organs, co-stims or adjuvants to stim T helper cells, high levels of co-stimulators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

understand the immunological basis for B cell tolerance.

A

a. Central B cell tolerance- immature B cells in bone marrow encounter multivalent self antigen (MHC)
i. Negative selection- death through apoptosis, clonal deletion
ii. Receptor editing- maturation is arrested, RAG if presenet rearranges light chain DNA and creates a new specificity that is not self-reactive
b. If encounter monovalent self antigen- results in angergy of self-reactive B cell. Will go to periphery but does not get co-stim
c. Immature low affinity self reactive B cells can migrate to T cells in peripheral lymphoid organ but differentiation is arrested if self-antigen is encountered in T cell zone without self-reactive T cell. T cell tolerance is important to maintaining B cell tolerance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the role of Treg cells

A

They are Cd4/25 cells. CD25 surface marker is always on and activated by CTLA4. Need Foxp3 to function. Can suppress most immune cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Learn various transplantation terminologies

A

a. Autologous graft- into same person
b. Isograft/syngeneic graft- into an identical twin
c. Allograft- between two people of same species
d. Xenograft- between different species
e. Orthotopic graft- normal site in recipient as in host
f. Herterotopic graft- different site in recipient as in host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Compare direct and indirect recognition of alloantigens at the cellular and molecular level.

A

a. • Direct allorecognition. Most tissues contain dendritic cells, and when the tissues are transplanted, the dendritic cells are carried in the graft. When T cells in the recipient recognize donor allogeneic MHC molecules on graft dendritic cells, the T cells are activated; this process is called direct recognition (or direct presentation) of alloantigens. Direct recognition stimulates the development of alloreactive T cells (e.g., CTLs) that recognize and attack the cells of the graft.
b. • Indirect allorecognition. If graft cells (or alloantigens) are ingested by recipient dendritic cells, donor alloantigens are processed and presented by the self MHC molecules on recipient APCs. This process is called indirect recognition (or indirect presentation) and is similar to the cross-presentation of tumor antigens discussed earlier. If alloreactive CTLs are induced by the indirect pathway, these CTLs are specific for donor alloantigens displayed by the recipient’s self MHC molecules on the recipient’s APCs, so they cannot recognize and kill cells in the graft (which, of course, express donor MHC molecules). When graft alloantigens are recognized by the indirect pathway, the subsequent rejection of the graft likely is mediated mainly by alloreactive CD4 + T cells. These T cells may enter the graft together with host APCs, recognize graft antigens that are picked up and displayed by these APCs, and secrete cytokines that injure the graft by an inflammatory reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Distinguish how direct and indirect recognition of graft alloantigens elicit activation of host T cells in draining LN.

A

a. Direct alloantigen recognition occurs when T cells bind directly to intact allogeneic major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on antigen-presenting cells (APCs) in a graft, as illustrated in Figure 10-8 . B, Indirect alloantigen recognition occurs when allogeneic MHC molecules from graft cells are taken up and processed by recipient APCs, and peptide fragments of the allogeneic MHC molecules are presented by recipient (self) MHC molecules. Recipient APCs also may process and present graft proteins other than allogeneic MHC molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Relate the different types of rejection to the immune response elicited

A

a. The direct pathway may be most important for CTL-mediated acute rejection, and the indirect pathway may play a greater role in chronic rejection, as described later.
b. • Hyperacute rejection occurs within minutes of transplantation and is characterized by thrombosis of graft vessels and ischemic necrosis of the graft. Hyperacute rejection is mediated by circulating antibodies that are specific for antigens on graft endothelial cells and that are present before transplantation. These preformed antibodies may be natural IgM antibodies specific for blood group antigens, or they may be antibodies specific for allogeneic MHC molecules that are induced by exposure to allogeneic cells due to previous blood transfusions, pregnancy, or organ transplantation. Almost immediately after transplantation, the antibodies bind to antigens on the graft vascular endothelium and activate the complement and clotting systems, leading to injury to the endothelium and thrombus formation. Hyperacute rejection is not a common problem in clinical transplantation, because every donor and recipient are matched for blood type and potential recipients are tested for antibodies against the cells of the prospective donor. (The test for antibodies is called a cross-match.) However, hyperacute rejection is the major barrier to xenotransplantation, as discussed later.
c. • Acute rejection occurs within days or weeks after transplantation and is the principal cause of early graft failure. Acute rejection is mediated by T cells and antibodies specific for alloantigens in the graft. The T cells may be CD8 + CTLs that directly destroy graft cells or CD4 + cells that secrete cytokines and induce inflammation, which destroys the graft. T cells may also react against cells in graft vessels, leading to vascular damage. Antibodies contribute especially to the vascular component of acute rejection. Antibody-mediated injury to graft vessels is caused mainly by complement activation by the classical pathway. Current immunosuppressive therapy is designed mainly to prevent and reduce acute rejection by blocking the activation of alloreactive T cells.
d. • Chronic rejection is an indolent form of graft damage that occurs over months or years, leading to progressive loss of graft function. Chronic rejection may be manifested as fibrosis of the graft and by gradual narrowing of graft blood vessels, called graft arteriosclerosis. In both lesions, the culprits are believed to be T cells that react against graft alloantigens and secrete cytokines, which stimulate the proliferation and activities of fibroblasts and vascular smooth muscle cells in the graft. Alloantibodies also contribute to chronic rejection. Although treatments to prevent or curtail acute rejection have steadily improved, leading to better 1-year survival of transplants, chronic rejection is refractory to most of these therapies and is becoming the principal cause of graft failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can you prevent graft rejection

A
  • match ABO antigens
  • test recipient for preformed antibodies recognizing alloantigens from donor
  • limit HLA/MHC mismatch
  • corticosteroids, deplete T cells, block co sim (CD28-B7), inhibit IL-2
  • mixed chimerism- introduce donor hemopoetic elements to recipient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the main limitation to bone marrow transplatation

A

graft versus host disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe GVHD. How can you reduce the likelihood of happening

A

Grafted mature T cells reacting to alloantigens in the recipient. It is directed against minor antigens. Eliminating T cells before BM transplant can reduce GVHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Compare acute and chronic GVHD

A

Acute GVHD- within weeks (up to ninety days?), epithelial cell death in skin liver gut with rash jaundice diarrhea and gut hemorrhage. Intiated by T cells in BM, then NK cells and CTL and cytokines damage tissue.
Acute GVH (Fig. 4-10)
a. Donor CD8 cytotoxic T cells recognize host tissue as foreign, proliferate in the host tissue, and produce severe organ damage.
• Type IV cytotoxic T cell HSR

Chronic GVHD- characterized by FIBROSIS and organ atrophy (lung, liver, gut). If severe leads to organ failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do you prep for a BM transplant?

A

MUST GET COMPLETE HLA MATCH- usually a sibling

radiation/chemo to deplete marrow cells and vacate site and suppress immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe Hyperacute transplant reaction

A

Hyperacute rejection (Fig. 4-9A)
a. Definition—irreversible reaction that occurs within minutes or hours after
transplantation
b. Pathogenesis of hyperacute rejection
(1) Type II HSR involving immunoglobulin and complement that targets the endothelium of small vessels (e.g., arterioles, capillaries), which causes a neutrophilic infiltrate with fibrinoid necrosis and vessel thrombosis, leading to infarction
• Since the reaction is irreversible, the organ must be removed.
(2) Causes of hyperacute rejections include:
(a) ABO incompatibility (e.g., blood group A person inadvertently receives a kidney
from a blood group B person)
(b) Reaction between preformed anti-HLA antibodies in the recipient directed
against similar donor HLA antigens located in the vascular endothelium
(3) These reactions are uncommon because of pretransplantation screening (see later).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the risk factors for developing food allergies

A
  • Eczema and egg allergy for peanuts, particularly FLG mutation leading to eczema. Eczema- food allergy- rhinitis- asthma (the march)
  • Family history
  • Males more affected than females
  • urbanized countries
  • family that eats more peanuts greater risk of peanut allergy from cutaenous exposure
  • C section 7 times higher risk for egg, fish, nut allergy
  • low gut bacteria flora diversity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What mechanism mediates food allergies

A

T1HS. APC takes allergen to draining lymph node to naive T cell. T cells become Th2 cell. Th2 response produces IL-4 and IL-5, also 6 10 13. Mediates antibody mediated immunity and allergies and asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe some symptoms of anaylaphalaxis

A

Mediated by histamine, increase mucous, redness, dilate systemic blood vessels, contract bronchi, hypotension, eosinophil infiltration, itching

3 major criteria: 1) acute cutaneous hives and swelling and either respiratory or cardiovascular sx

2) acute onset of 2 organ systems- cutaenous, respiratory, GI, cardiovascular
3) acute hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the most common symptoms of anaphylaxis

A

1) hives of skin 2) swelling of skin

Then respiratory and GI problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do we test for allergies?

A

Skin test gives reaction without systemic reaction.

In vitro allergen specific IgE tests:

  • RAST test- radiolabeled anti-IgE antibody to detect IgE antibodies bound to allergen. Old way
  • ELISA- measures in vitro allergen specific IgE in blood. Current test used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Explain the hygiene hypothesis

A

Germ free mice show tendency toward Th2 cells instead of Treg cells mediated by Foxp3. Think that the more bacterial diversity in the gut the lower allergic sensativity by increasing the threshold for reactivity. Antibiotics increase allergy but microbilal compound (CpG) inhibit IgE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the dual allergen exposure hypothesis

A
  • If exposed to allergen through skin, mediate Th2 memory cells and Pro allergenic
  • If exposed to allegen through GI tract orally, mediate Th1 and Treg memory cells and pro-tolerance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe the LEAP study in food allergies

A

Tried to find out when to introduce allergenic foods. Split into skin test negative and skin test positive (slight positive, big reaction thrown out) then split into peanut avoidance and peanut consumption. Found consumption groups had 81% reduction in peanut allergy at 5yo. Leap on trial showed the changes were permanent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe the EAT study in food allergies. What about egg study?

A

Introduced allergenic foods at 3 months of age vs just breastfeeding. Took all kids not just high risk. The group that followed protocol and consumed allergenic foods at 3 months had less allergies at 3yo.

However different study found that a decent amount of infants at 4 months already had an egg allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the current advice for feeding/introducing kids allergenic foods

A

1) high risk kids (eczema and egg allergy) should get peanut at 4-6 months old
2) High risk patients should be tested before introduction. 0.35 or greater to allergist first
3) infants without a risk factor get peanuts whenever appropiate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe the benefits of probiotics/prebiotics in food allergies

A

-Probiotics- intestinal bacteria that may have health benefits. Lactobacillus, bifido, propioni…

Prebiotic- sugar that stim bacteria growth.

Pregnant women given pro and prebiotics gave birth to less eczema kids. Lactobacillus maybe be better than bifido.

Posnatal is too late but may help C section babies more. High risk infants with prebiotics reduced eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe some recipient safety measure in blood transfusions

A

Permanent donor deferral- HBV, HCV, HIV, dura matter or HgH received (CJD risk), insulin from beef in UK (vCJD risk).

12 month deferral- exposure to Hepatitis, jail for 72 hours, skin puncture, malaria travel, high HIV risk, time in UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe indications and contradictions to WB transfusion

A

Indicated: to increase O2 capacity and volume expansion. Actively bleeding or lost 25% of blood volume. Increase Hb by 1 and Hct 3% for one unit. MUST be ABO identical

Contradicted: if not need volume or O2 up. Not for platelets, granulocytes, or plasma replacement. Not in chronic anemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe packed RBC transfusion. When used and when not? What does it contain?

A

Contains reduced plasma, WBC and platelet. Not platelets or granulocytes.

Indicated: symptomatic anemia, increase in O2 without volume expansion. ABO compatible. Increase 1 Hb and 3% Hct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe WB derived platelets vs. apharesis platelets.

A

WB platelets- increases platelets by 5-10k for a unit, give 4-6 units to increase 30-60k.

Apharesis platelets- increase platelets by 30-60k per unit.

Indications: thrombocytopenia and platelet dysfunction to prevent bleeding

Contradictions: TTP, HIT, ITP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If give platelets and see no increase in platelet count, what is happening?

A

Patient is in either bleeding or has abs to platelets or HLA abs. Should give crossmatched or HLA matched platelets.

Usually ABO matched platelets given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe granulocyte transfusion.

A

Should be administered ASAP after collection. Used when patient has neutropenia or infection not responding to antibiotics or tx. Red cell compability must be tested first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe Fresh frozen plasma transfusion.

A

It contains all the coagulation factors. 1ml=1unit

Indicated in patients with multiple coagulation factor deficiencies who are bleeding or undergoing sx esp. Liver disease and DIC
Can rapidly reverse warfrin in emergency.
Given when coagulation factor deficiency does not have concentrate- Factors 5 10 11
Plasmapheresis in TTP/HUS

Dont give: for volume expansion, nutritionally deficient patients, Factor 8 and 9

Must be ABO compatibile

42
Q

Describe cyroprepcipitate transfusion

A

Concentrated factors 8 and 13 and fibrinogen, vWF and fibronectin

Uses: fibrinogen deficiency (most common), factor 13 defiency, fibrin sealant
Not for hemophilia A or vWD unless plasma derivatives not available

43
Q

When are plasma derivatives used?

A

Albumin, Factor 8 and 9 for hemophilia, vWF for vWD, antithrombin, igs,

44
Q

What do you give in emergency and no time to blood type

A

O RBCs and AB plasma

45
Q

What is only times ABO compatibility doesn’t matter much

A

Giving cyro or platelets- low amounts of plasma

46
Q

Difference between ABO and Rh systems

A

ABO fixes complement and leads to intravascular hemolysis, IgM mainly, leads to AHTR, ABO antibodies are naturally occurring

Rh systems clears via extravascular hemolysis through RE system, IgG mediated, leads to delayed HTR, need immune stimulation to make antibodies.

47
Q

Describe AHTR, lab finding?

A

Occurs within minutes of transfusion, ABO fixes complement, AIHTR (acute intravascular…). Clerical error is most common cause. Generates C3a and C5a anaphylotoxins- shock, hypotension, bronchospasm, could lead to DIC acute tubular necrosos or renal failure.

Sx: vomitting/nausea, chest pain, wheezing, dyspnea, back pain, discomfort at infusion site
in coma: hypotension, hemoglobinuera

Lab finding: decreased hb, Hct, haptoglobin, increased LDH, free plasma hb, increased bilirubin 6-12 hours later

48
Q

Describe Febrile Non hemolytic transfusion reaction. Tx?

A

1 degree C temperature rise, chills and rigors, up to 2 hours after transfusion, caused by Anti HLA abs or anti neutrophil abs

Can try to treat with leukocyte reduced blood components

49
Q

How to treat bacterial infection or allergic transfusions

A

Bacterial contamination looks like sepsis- rigors, high fever, dyspnea, hypotension, shock. Stop transfusion, broad spectrum antibiotics, culture blood unit

Allergic reaction will look like utirical or anaphalaxasis with same sx. stop tranfusion and give antihistamine.
-most occur in IgA deficient patients given anti IgA. Prevent by washing the products.

50
Q

Tell me about TACO. Who is at risk? Sx and Tx

A

hypervolemia from transfusion

At risk: chronic anemia (expanded plasma volume), elderly and young, compromised cardiac/pulmonary function

Sx: headache, SOB, pul edema, CHF, rise in systolic BP, tachycardic

Tx: stop tranfusion, support with Ox diruretics, phlebotomy prn

PREVENT: give one unit per four hours

51
Q

What is TRALI? Cause? Sx? Tx? Prevention

A

TRALI (lung injury) is non cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Caused by donor abs reacting with recipient leukocytes leading to pulmonary edema.

Sx: respiratory distress, hypoxia, hypotension, bil pul edema within 4 hours

Tx: Supportive O2 and intubation
Prevent: avoid donors who gave given TRALI before, screen multiparous women for abs

52
Q

Describe delayed HTR

A

-extravascular, not fixing complement, less severe than acute
-slight fever, weakness, malaise related to anemia
Lab: increased retic, increased LDH, decreased Hb, haptoglobin, increased bilirubin
Tx rarely needed

53
Q

Describe the problems with TA-GVHD. Tx? Prevention?

A

It happens when donor immunocompentant T lymphocytes are given to recipient immuno-incompetant. The T lymphocytes proliferate and attack tissue leading to BM failure, pancytopenia, and bleeding and infection, usually fatal.

NO TREATMENT

PREVENT BY IRRADIATED BLOOD PRODUCTS- gamma radiation

54
Q

What are the signs and causes of post transfusion purpura

A

Thrombocytopenia 1-3 weeks s/p transfusion

Caused by abs to HPA-1a platelet antigen

55
Q

Who is at risk for hemosiderosis

A

Patients with chronic anemia with need for continued transfusion. Too much iron

56
Q

What immune modulations are made s/p transfusion?

A

Immunosuppresion
Enhanced survival of renal allograft
Fewer spontaneous abortions
Increased risk of tumor recurrence and post op bacterial infection

57
Q

What disease has highest risk of transmission via transfusion

A

HBV 1:200k
Only give blood if necessary

Also can give HCV, HIV, HTLV, yersina, malaria, chagas, babesiosis

58
Q

What is the most common form of HDFN

A

Caused by anti D crossing placenta

Rh neg moms at risk with Rh pos fetus

Preventable with RhIG

59
Q

What is RhIG and how is it used

A

RhIG prevents HDFN from preventing primary sensatization, is a source of IgG anti D. Anti D in RhIG masks the antigen sites on fetal Rh positive red cells preventing mother’s immune system from recognizing. Must be given during pregnancy and within 72 hours of delivery of a Rh+ baby to Rh- mom

60
Q

What other ways can HDFN be caused

A

By ABO antibodies. If mom is O makes both anti bodies to RBC, anti A/B crosses placenta, fetal RBC destructions

Also anti K and Duff

61
Q

What is neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT). What antigen is common in this reaction

A

It is the platelet counterpart to HDFN
Thrombocytopenia in fetus by mother’s antiplatelet abs directed against fetal platelet antigen (from father)

Platelets are destroyed
MOST COMMON antigen HPA-1a

62
Q

Name some clinical uses for apheresis

A

Plasma exchange - TTP/HUS
Plateletpheresis- remove platelets in CML or myeloproliferative diseases
Leukopheresis- remove leukemic blasts
Red cell exchange- SCD, HDFN, malaria

63
Q

what are the main mediators of autoimmunity

A

T cells- DTH mediated by Th1 producing INFgamma, Th1 and Th2 help in autoab response, CD8 via lysing cells expressing antigen presented by MHC I

Autoantibodies- complement mediated, phagocytosis, immune complex formation and deposition

64
Q

What type of HS is autoimmune hemolytic anemia? Describe that HS and antigen involved.

A

It is a type II HS which involves an antibody response directed aganist cell surface or tissue antigens. In AHA the autoantigen is Rh or I blood group antigens leading to destruction of RBC by phagocytosis of opsonzied target cells via complement

65
Q

What type of HS is Goodpasteur syndrome? What is the mechanism of injury

A

Goodpastuer is a TII HS. The damage is from complement or granulocyte mediated destruction or damage leading to autoantigen on noncollagenous domain of basement membrane collagen type IV. Inflammation induced damage to basement membrane of renal glomeruli or pulmonary alveoli. Leads to glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemmorhage. Activates monocytes and neutrophils through Fc receptor, activates complement leading to inflammation

66
Q

What type of HS is Graves Disease? What is the mechanism?

A

TII HS. AGONIST abs aganist THS receptor in thyroid stimulate overproduction of thyroid hormone. Anti-TSH receptor auto ab

67
Q

What type of HS is Myasthenia Gravis? Mechanism?

A

TII HS. ANTAGONIST abs against acetylcholine receptors in muscle blocking Ach leading to progressive weakness. Might degrade or internalize AChR, abs also induce complement mediated lysis of muscle cells

68
Q

Describe the mechanism of TIII HS. What disease is a TIII HS?

A

Generate immune complexes made of auto abs and ubiquitous soluble antigens that are deposited in blood vessels iniating inflammation and tissue damage. ANTIGEN IS IN CIRCULATION so affects more tissues

SLE- the sx of vasculitis arthritis rash and glomerulonephritis in SLE is by TIII HS with deposition of immune complexes of Nucleic acids, histones and ribosomes. Make anti dsDNA abs and ANA. Deposit and activate complement system

69
Q

What are the two types of TIV HS reactions and what is the mechanism?

A

TIV HS reactions are mediated by auto reactive T cells

1) DTH- mediated by Th1 cells and sometimes CD8 cells that produce pro inflammatory cytokines like INFgamma that recruits cells for inflammation and damages tissue
2) CD8 mediated cell lysis- leads to tissue damage

70
Q

Describe Hashimoto’s thryroiditis

A

TH IV HS. Thyroid cells are destroyed by infilitrating DTH mediating T cells with possible help from anti thryoglobulin ab. Leads to hypothyroidism. Infilitrating lymphocytes and macrophages cause tissue destruction- TIV HS. Antigens are thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase

71
Q

What type of HS is T1DM? Mechanism?Antigen?

A

Insulin dependent DM or juvenille DM. Insulin producing Beta cells in islet of langherns are destroyed by infiltrating T cells and leads to a decreased production of insulin..

CD8 T cells inititae tissue damage. CD4 DTH cells (Th1) mediate final destruciton.

Antigens: insulin, GAD-65, others

72
Q

What type of HS is MS? Mechanism and mediators? Antigens?

A

myelin sheathing nerve axons in brain and spinal cord are attacked leading to inflammation and demylenation. Mediated by T cells (mainly Th1, maybe CD8, and some Th17). Th1 induces macrophages that are directly involved in tissue damage. Th17 release cytokines. Leads to neuro problems and paralysis

Antigens: MBP, proteolipid protein (PLP), myellin olignodendrocyte glycoproteins (MOG)

73
Q

What is the strongest susceptibility to autoimmune diseaes? Why

A

HLA. Mainly class II but I in some diseases.

Why?
Self peptides in thymus may bind particular MHC alleles poorly limiting negative selction, MHC may bind self peptide in periphery to activate auto reactive T cells

74
Q

What non MHC factors are involved in autoimmune disease? Do you know any examples?

A

genes related to immune function- cytokines, co-stim and inhib molecules, molecules involved in innate immunity, TFs

CD25 in MS and T1DM
C2/C4 in SLE
FCGRIIB in SLLE

75
Q

Can you think of a defect in central tolerance?

A

If AIRE gene is mutated leads to APECED or APS-1

APECED- die early, dont delete autoreactive T cells

76
Q

Describe IPEX. What causes it?

A

Immune disregulation polyendocrinopathy, X linked, mutation in Foxp3 prevents development of functional Treg cells- develop severe multi-organ autoimmune diseases and allergies

77
Q

What causes sympathetic opthalamia?

A

The release of sequestered antigens through trauma causing blindness and both eyes. Autoimmune reaction

78
Q

What is CTLA4 and what diseases is it associated with?

A

CTLA4 is a receptor protein associated with Treg cells. It is constituvely expressed and downregulates immune reactions. Defects can lead to inflammatory and autoimmune disease. Polymorphisms associated with Grave’s disease, Hashimito’s and T1DM

79
Q

What is ALPS and what is it associated with?

A

Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome. Mutation in Fas/FasL apoptosis system or caspase. Mutations compromises ability to delete activated lymphocytes in periphery at end of immune reaction. Leads to lymphoproliferative disease and lupus like diseases.

80
Q

What cytokines can produce autoimmune disease

A

deficiency in IL-10= intestinal inflammatin, IBS
Deficiency in TGF beta- multiorgan autoimmune disease
IL-4 deficiecny= autoimmune disease, induction prevents DM in mice

81
Q

Name infectious agents that can cause autoimmune diseases

A

Rheumatic fever- group A streptococcus cell wall cross reactivity with heart valve tissue in RF and heart disease

Borrelia burgdorferi- lyme disease and chronic arthritis via HLA

82
Q

How can we treat autoimmune diseases?

A

therapy goal is to specifically downreg the autoantigen specific immune response while allow protective immune response to be functional

Tx: antagonist against pro inflam mediators- infliximab is an anti TNF ab for IBS and rheumatoid arthritis

Deplete leukocytes
Induce T reg cells
Immunosuppressive cytokines IL10 or TGFB
Induce apoptosis via Fas to autoreactive T cells
Induce anergy in naive possible autoreactive T cells

83
Q

When is histamine released and what are the effects?

A

Histamine is released in T1HS. Released by smooth muscle and endothelial cells.

Effects: increased vascular permiablity (edema), smooth muscle contraction, prostaglandin synthesis, bronchoconstriction, mucus secretion

84
Q

What is the tx for anaphylaxis? What is mechanism

A

Epi. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist..

Smooth muscle relax (bronchodilate), reduce vascular perm and edema, increase in central BP

85
Q

What does a Coombs test test?

A

Sees if there is abs attached to RBC, if add antiserum reagent and abs for it are present it will aggulinate=+ test

86
Q

How is the damage to tissue achieved in Goodpasteur’s syndrome

A

Autoabs are produced to attack glomerular basement membrane. T2HS. IgG mediated.

-reactive with basement membrane, complement activation, produce C3a/C5a, recruit leukocytes, degranulation and ROS, tissue damage to lung and kidney

87
Q

Describe presentation of serum sickness. What is the mechanism?

A

Given a foreign (xeno) antiserum and develop malaise, general rahs, arthlagia, and vasculitis (acute necrostizing vasculitis)

T3HS. Immune complex deposit and activate complement. One week to develop

88
Q

What is the antigen and mechanism behind farmer’s lung

A

T3HS to Aspergillus mold (environmental antigen)

89
Q

What type of HS can HBV cause

A

T3HS. Antigen is Hep B virus surface antigen. Cauases vasculitis

90
Q

Describe contact HS. What is the mechanism of disease

A

sensitization of CD4 (DTH) and CD8 (CTL) T cells and cytokine secretion. T4HS. Th1 and Th17 play major role by producing cytokines that mediate inflammation

91
Q

Describe clinical presentation of SLE

A

-multiple organs affected, relapse-remitting pattern, mutlipe auto abs, heterogenous presentation, Females>males, blacks and hispanics>. Butterfly rash

92
Q

What is mechanism of SLE?

A

Most symptoms from T3HS, some autoabs cause direct cell damage (T2HS)

93
Q

Are ANAs diagnostic for SLE? If so which ones? What HS is ANAs causing?

A

ANAs are present in 95% of people with SLE but also in normal people and other autoimmune diseases.
Anti-dsDNA and Anti-Sm are virutally diagnostic for SLE
T3HS

94
Q

How are antiphospholipd abs be used in diagnosis

A

They are present in 40-50% of people with SLE. Anit cardiolipin can show a false positive syphilis test.

95
Q

What are effects of antiphospholipid abs

A

They are anticoagulant in vitro but procoagulant in vivo. This leads to recurrent thromboses and spontaneous abortions. Will delayed PTT in vitro

96
Q

What ab is present in drug induced SLE

A

Anti histone ab, not antidsDNA or Sm

97
Q

What drugs can cause drug induced SLE

A

Procainamide, hyrdralazine (esp. HLA-DR4)

Presents with discoid rash

98
Q

What is Sjordens syndrome. What is target and complications. What abs?

A

Sx: dry eyes and mouth, T cell destruction of lacrimal and salivary glands

Lymphoma is major complication

SS-A and SS-B abs to diagnosis

99
Q

What ab is in systemic sclerosis

A

DNA topoisomerase I Scl-70

100
Q

What ab is present in Localized sclerosis

A

Anticentromere ab

101
Q

What ab present in inflammatory myopathies

A

Abs against tRNA synthetase Jo-1

102
Q

What ab present in mixed connective tissue disorders

A

Abs against U1 ribonucleoprotein