Exam Two: Learning Objectives Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three major functions animals use energy for?

A

biosynthesis
maintenance
generation of external work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Metabolic rate is often estimated by __ consumption (__) but can be measured directly by production of __ (__)

A

oxygen; respirometry
heat; calorimetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which energy measurement is direct? Which is indirect?

A

respirometry - indirect
calorimetry - direct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Discuss water movement through an isolated system.

A

initially water is moving in one direction
eventually directional motion becomes random
heat is produced, water slows down
external energy is needed to keep water flowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the difference between closed and open respirometry?

A

open - measures how much oxygen is consumed movement by movement
closed - measure how much oxygen is consumed over a given duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What provides the most direct and accurate measurement of metabolic rate of an organism?

A

heat production (calorimetry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Respiratory Quotient (RQ) =

A

moles of CO2 produced per unit time/ moles of O2 consumed per unit time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the respiratory exchange ratio for carbohydrates?

A

1.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the respiratory exchange ratio for lipids?

A

0.71

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the respiratory exchange ratio for proteins?

A

0.83

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the respiratory exchange ratio (R) of the following equation:
1 mol C6H12O6 + 6 mol O2 -> 6 mol CO2 + 6 mol H2O + 2820 kJ/mol

A

moles CO2 prod/ mol O2 consumed
6/6
=1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SDA (specific dynamic action) is __ for protein rich meals compared to lipids or carbs

A

higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define basal metabolic rate (BMR)

A

used for homeothermic animals, and is measured at their thermoneutral zone, or the temperature range in which it is minimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define standard metabolic rate (SMR)

A

used for poikilothermic animals and is specific to the temperature at which it is measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

There are many ___ for a given individuals (SMR/BMR)

A

SMR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

__ and __ cause an increase in metabolic rate

A

exercise and feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The relationship between metabolic rate and body size is __

A

negatively allometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Discuss the energy needs of a species compared to body size

A

metabolic rate is less than proportional to body size of a species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mass specific metabolic rate curves have a __ slope

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A 5g mouse consumes __ oxygen per unit time as a 10 g mouse

A

more than half

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Many other traits such as __ __ scale with mass

A

heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Physiological processes require energy in the form of ___?

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three ways ATP is generated?

A

phosphogens, anaerobic glycolysis, and aerobic glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Discuss the production of ATP via phosphogens

A

ADP can be phosphorylated directly by reversible stores of phosphate called phosphogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an example of reversible stores for phosphogens?

A

creatine phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the process of anaerobic glycolysis

A

when oxygen is unavailable, a small amount of ATP can be generated by substrate level phosphorylation within glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the process of aerobic glycolysis

A

oxidative phosphorylation by the electron transport chain can continually generate ATP in the presence of oxygen delivered by breathing or internal stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which mechanisms of ATP production are steady state?

A

aerobic catabolism using O2 from the envrionment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What mechanisms of ATP production are nonsteady states?

A

anaerobic glycolysis, phosphagen use, and aerobic catabolism using O2 preexisting in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define VO2max

A

aka aerobic capacity
maximal rate at which an animal can consume oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The VO2max determines the maximal rate of sustained __ ___ and thus maximum __ ___

A

ATP production
exercise intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F: Individuals and species do not differ in their VO2max

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which mechanism of ATP is best for a sprint?

A

phosphagens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which mechanism of ATP is best for a marathon?

A

aerobic/ anaerobic glycolysis aka cellular respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Relate a chemical equation to the production of phosphagens

A

creatine phosphate + ADP <- (creatine phosphase) -> creatine + ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Vertebrae muscle contains molecules that temporarily store __ __ __ donated from ATP

A

high energy phosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Discuss the energy stored at the rate at which ATP is generated for phosphagens

A

energy stored in phosphogen fuels can only sustain exercise for a few seconds, but it can generate ATP at very high rates (i.e. high power)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do vertebrates use for phosphagen? Invertebrates?

A

verts - creatine phosphate
inverts - arginine phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the four steps of aerobic metabolism?

A

glycolysis
intermediate step
the Krebs cycle
oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is generated during glycolysis?

A

2 net ATPs, 2 NADHs and 2 pyruvates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is generated during the intermediate step?

A

2 NADHs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is generated during the Krebs cycle?

A

Generates 2 GTPs -> 2 ATPs, 6 NADHs, and 2 FADHs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is generated during oxidative phosphorylation

A

generates roughly 34 ATPs in theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis; When O2 is unavailable, building NADH is __ __, as the __ __ __ is disabled

A

not useful
electron transport chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Glycolysis can be used to generate __ amounts of __ without the use of __

A

small; ATP; mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis; because the ETC is not consuming ___, ___ becomes scares, compromising the ability to run ___

A

NADH
NAD+
glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis regenerates __ using ___ __ __

A

NAD+
lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis: using __, pyruvate is converted to __ in order to maintain redox balance

A

LDH
lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What requires metabolic processing?

A

lactate, unlike CO2 and H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Lactate is converted back to __ only after __ __ to tissues is resumed

A

pyruvate; O2 delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

__ is required for the metabolism of __

A

O2; lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe the percentage of ATP made by glucose from glycogen stored in muscles over exercise

A

Roughly 50% at beginning, 25% after two hours, 0% around 3.5 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Describe the percentage of ATP made by glucose brought to muscles by blood over exercise.

A

starts at 10% then increases over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe the percentage of ATP made by fatty acids brought to muscles by blood over exercise.

A

Starts at 40% and slowly increases over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Where does energy come from during a 100 m sprint?

A

ATP from anaerobic glycolysis > ATP from phosphagen > ATP from aerobic catabolism using glycogen and glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Where does energy come from during a 1500 m run?

A

ATP from aerobic catabolism using glycogen and glucose > really small amount of ATP from anaerobic glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Where does energy come from during a marathon?

A

ATP from aerobic catabolism using glycogen and glucose >ATP from aerobic catabolism using lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the function of myoglobin?

A

vertebrate skeletal muscle also contains a type of hemoglobin that stores O2 internally by directly recruiting O2 molecules from blood hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What enables many vertebrates to have the ability to run aerobic glycolysis for a few seconds without O2 delivery to tissues?

A

myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the two kinds of muscle fibers?

A

Fast glycolytic fibers (FG) and slow oxidative fibers (SO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Fast glycolytic fibers contract __, can generate lots of __, primarily fueled by __ __ and thus have high levels of __ __ (LDH) and __ mitochondrial volume

A

quickly; power; anaerobic glycolysis; glycolytic enzymes; low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Slow oxidative fibers contract relatively __ are primarily fueled by __ __ so they have high levels of __ __ and lots of __ and __

A

slowly; oxidative metabolism; aerobic enzymes; mitochondria; myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

High levels of __ and __ make SO fibers more resistant to fatigue

A

myoglobin; mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

FG is shown as __ in the picture and SO is shown as __

A

light; dark

65
Q

Describe aerobic and anaerobic cooperation of light submaximal exercise

A

Actual O2 much smaller than maximal, minimal oxygen deficit and excess post exercise oxygen consumption, takes short time

66
Q

Describe aerobic and anaerobic cooperation of heavy submaximal exercise

A

actual O2 uptake just below theoretical O2 demand - relative oxygen deficit and excess postexercise oxygen consumption, takes medium amount of time

67
Q

Describe aerobic and anaerobic cooperation of supramaximal exercise

A

actual O2 uptake meets theoretical O2 demand - oxygen deficit and excess post exercise is excessive, takes long time

68
Q

Two species of __ (goldfish and carp) run the __ __ reaction in reverse - converting __ to __ and __

A

fish; alcohol dehydrogenase
lactic acid; ethanol and CO2

69
Q

Goldfish can run __ __ indefinitely, as __ and __ can be eliminated much easier than __

A

anaerobic glycolysis
ethanol; CO2
lactate

70
Q

Define heat

A

a form of energy; amount of energy a substance contains as a result of its random molecular motions

71
Q

Define temperature

A

measure of the intensity of random molecular motions of a substance (heat)

72
Q

T/F: A large object and a small object can have the same temperature, but different amounts of heat energy

A

True - the amount of matter matters

73
Q

Heat (__) flows from areas of __ temperature to areas of __ temperature, regardless of the amount of heat in both areas

A

energy
high
low

74
Q

What are the four kinds of thermoregulatory classifications?

A

endothermy, ectothermy, homeothermy, and poikilothermy

75
Q

Define endothermy

A

body temperature is generated from within (metabolic processes)

76
Q

Define ectothermy

A

body temperature is determined from the environment

77
Q

Define homeothermy

A

body temperature is relatively constant

78
Q

Define poikilothermy

A

body temperature is variable

79
Q

There are more __ on earth than homeotherms

A

ectotherms

80
Q

Some ectotherms exhibit __ regulations

A

behavioral

81
Q

Define stenothermal

A

an animal that can function only over a relatively small range of temperatures

82
Q

Define eurythermal

A

an animal that can function over a relatively broad range of temperatures

83
Q

What are 5 ways animals exchange heat with their environment?

A

radiation (sun, animal, bush, sky)
Conduction
Convection
Cutaneous and respiratory evaporation

84
Q

Describe the heat regulation of an antelope jackrabbit

A

may radiate heat from large ears to save on evaporative loss by panting

85
Q

Metabolic rate increases approximately __ with increasing __ temperature

A

exponentially; body

86
Q

Which thermoregulator demonstrates acclimation in a laboratory setting?

A

ectotherms

87
Q

Species acclimated to colder temperatures have a higher average __ __ at any give body temperature

A

metabolic rate

88
Q

Define compensation

A

kind of acclimation that moderates the acute response to temperature

89
Q

If lizards are kept at the new temperature, they would show __, over the long term, to the value __ to being moved to a new environment

A

compensation, prior

90
Q

Why does acclimation take so long?

A

physiological changes occur in relative amounts at the cellular level

91
Q

Enzyme substrate affinity is similar over a constant __

A

temperature

92
Q

Enzyme substrate affinity generally __ with __ temperature

A

decreases; increasing

93
Q

How do ectotherms regulate freezing? (two ways)

A

they can tolerate it or prevent it

94
Q

Describe tolerance of ectotherms to freezing

A

tolerance involves managing ice crystal formation; self-limiting process due to osmosis and colligative properties of water

95
Q

Describe prevention of ectotherms freezing.

A

involves supercooling and antifreeze

96
Q

What are the two types of antifreeze?

A

colligative and non-colligative

97
Q

Define supercooling

A

managing ice-nucleating agents

98
Q

Define colligative antifreeze

A

solutes depress freezing point

99
Q

Define non-colligative antifreeze

A

interact with ice crystals to prevent spreading of their formation

100
Q

Birds and mammals __ their body temperature by mainly __ means but can also use ___ means

A

regulate
physiological; behavioral

101
Q

T/F: Birds and mammals are less independent from environmental temperatures than ectotherms

A

false

102
Q

Birds and mammals: cellular functions occur at a relatively __, __ temperature

A

constant, reliable

103
Q

What is the deep body temperature for placental mammals?

A

37°C

104
Q

An endotherm’s metabolic rate __ in __ and __ environments

A

rises
hot; cold

105
Q

What is the thermoneutral zone?

A

determines rate of dry heat transfer and therefore the metabolic rate, from Tb to Ta

106
Q

What is the linear heat equation? (for metabolic rate)

A

M = C(Tb-Ta)
where c = thermal conductance

107
Q

Insulation and conductance are __ proportional

A

inversely

108
Q

As temperature drops within the TNZ, insulation is?

A

increased

109
Q

What is a way to acclimatize to winter?

A

increase insulation

110
Q

How does peak metabolic rate and thermo neutral zone change during winter when more fur is added?

A

peak metabolic rate remains the same
TNZ is increased

111
Q

__ ___ ___ (BAT) is __; __ short circutis the __/__ synthase

A

brown adipose tissue
thermogenic
UCP1; ETC/ATP

112
Q

BAT is found in which kind of animals?

A

cold acclimated animals, hibernators, and newborns

113
Q

Increasing peak metabolic rate, often with more ___, is a response to __, where __ remains the same

A

BAT, cold, insulation

114
Q

Countercurrent heat exchange: outgoing, __ blood gives heat to __ venous blood by virtue of the __ of vessels

A

arterial, incoming, proximity

115
Q

How is hibernation an adaptation to regulating body temperature?

A

allows body temp to drop close to ambient temp for several days in winter

116
Q

Hibernation is common in __ and rare in__

A

mammals; birds

117
Q

Define estivation

A

hibernation in summer for endotherms

118
Q

What is a daily alternative of hybernation?

A

torpor

119
Q

Daily torpor is used by many small ___, to escape high __ demands of each night

A

endotherms; energy

120
Q

Controlled hypothermia is __ __

A

facultative ectothermy

121
Q

What is a common strategy of cooling about the TNZ?

A

enhancing evaporative cooling which increases heat transfer to extremeties

122
Q

What are mechanisms of enhancing evaporative cooling?

A

gular fluttering, panting, and sweating

123
Q

What are some examples of behavioral thermoregulation?

A

moving to shade, changing orientation to the sun, burrowing

124
Q

How do homeotherms survive in hot environments?

A

cycling body temperature and hyperthermia

125
Q

Describe cycling of homeotherms

A

allowing body temperature to rise above set point during the hot day, and drop below set point at night

126
Q

How does cycling of body temp help temperature regulation of homeotherms?

A

reduces water loss by evaporative cooling during the day, conducting stored heat to ground during the night

127
Q

Hyperthermis is common in __ and rarer in __

A

birds; mammals

128
Q

How does hyperthermia help homeotherms?

A

allows body temperature to increase to profoundly high temps (decreases Tb-Ta and therefore reduces heat gain and need to cool by evaporative means).

129
Q

Permeability of ion channels determines?

A

membrane resistance and capacitance

130
Q

Define capacitor

A

charge-separating device

131
Q

Membrane potential (Vm) is due to __ of __ near the __, even though the bulk solution is electrically __

A

gathering, ions, membrane
neutral

132
Q

Vm is approximately?

A

-65 mV, negative on the inside relative to the outside

133
Q

Why is Vm not zero?

A

selective permeability of the membrane to ions of K+, drives Vm in cells

134
Q

Where does the -65 mV resting membrane potential come from?

A

Nernst eq - concentration differences of only one ion
Goldman eq - accounts for actual permeability of all the ions on either side of the cell membrane

135
Q

Define the nerst equation

A

electrochemical equilibrium for an ion species - assumes the ion would come to equilibrium (100% permeable)

136
Q

Define the goldman equation

A

calculates the membrane potential when more than one ion is permeable

137
Q

What are the three most permeable ions?

A

K+, Na+, and Cl-

138
Q

In resting state, __ is the most permeable ion, and thus the resting membrane potential is close to __

A

K
Ex - electromotive forces (Vm of Ion)

139
Q

The __ of K is so much __ than that of __ or __, that K __ dominates the membrane potential

A

permeability; higher
Na, Cl
flux/ current

140
Q

Adjusting ion __ can change __

A

permeabilities; Vm

141
Q

Changing __ can produce a?

A

Em (Vm)
action potential

142
Q

Define depolarization

A

moving towards zero, less negative

143
Q

Define hyperpolarization

A

moving away from zero, more negative

144
Q

Describe the stages of an action potential

A

resting membrane potential -> rising phase -> falling phase -> recovery

145
Q

Describe the membrane during the resting membrane potential

A

only K+ leak channel is open, voltage gated Na and K are shut

146
Q

Describe the membrane during the rising phase

A

K leak channel is open, Voltage gated Na is. open and allowing Na inside the cell, voltage gated K is closed

147
Q

Describe the membrane during the falling phase

A

K leak channel is open, voltage gated Na channel inactivates and voltage gated K opens, letting K out of the cell

148
Q

Describe the membrane during the recovery period

A

K leak channel and voltage gated allows K in and out of the cell, voltage gated Na channel is closed

149
Q

Propagation rate of action potentials is influenced by?

A

temperature, axon diameter, and myelination

150
Q

How does temperature affect propagation rate?

A

higher temp causes faster conduction

151
Q

How does axon diameter influence propagation rate?

A

larger axon diameter, faster conduction

152
Q

How does myelination impact propagation rate?

A

myelin speeds conduction enormously

153
Q

Spiking neurons have long __ and produce __ ___

A

neurons; action potentials

154
Q

Spiking neuron: all or non action potentials are __ into __ __ of neurotransmitters at the __ terminals

A

translated; graded secretion; axon

155
Q

What is found at the input of a spiking neuron?

A

graded potential
action-potential encoding

156
Q

What happens are the output of a spiking neuron?

A

action-potential propagation
neurotransmitter secretion

157
Q

Non-spiking neurons are _ and produce __ __

A

shorter;
no action potentials

158
Q

What happens at the input of a nonspiking neuron?

A

graded potential

159
Q

What happens are the output of a nonspiking neuron?

A

graded potential, neurotransmitter secretion