Exam Two Flashcards

0
Q

Acts towards another individual that display both an emotional and physical calm.
The use of touch, establishing presence, the therapeutic use of silence, and the skillful and gentle performance of a procedure are examples

A

Comforting

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1
Q

Universal phenomenon that influences the way we think, feel,and behave in relation to one another

A

Caring

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2
Q

Delivery of health care based on ethical principals and standards of care

A

Ethic of care

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3
Q

Deep physical, psychological, and spiritual connection or engagement between nurse and patient

A

Presence

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4
Q

Concept of caring extending across cultures that distinguishes nursing from other health disciplines

A

Transcultural

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5
Q

Group of interacting individuals composing a basic unit of society

A

Family

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6
Q

Nursing perspective in which the family is views as a unit of interacting members having attributes, functions, and goals separate from those of the individual family members

A

Family as a context

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7
Q

Nursing approach that takes into consideration the effect of one intervention on all member of a family

A

Family as patient

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8
Q

Caring for each family member and family unit, using all abalone environmental, social, psychological, and community resources

A

family as system

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9
Q

A family process that occurs in response to an illness and encompasses multiple cognitive, behavioral, and interpersonal process

A

Family cargiving

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10
Q

Patterns of people considered by family members to be included in the family

A

Family forms

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11
Q

Internal strengths and durability of the family unit; characterized by a sense if control over the outcome of life events and hardships, a view of change as beneficial and growth-producing, and an active rather than passive orientation in responding to stressful life events

A

Family hardiness

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12
Q

Acknowledging the importance if the capability of care recipients to share exchanges that contribute to a caregiver’s perception of self-worth

A

Reciprocity

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13
Q

Family’s ability to cope with expected and unexpected stressors

A

Family resiliency

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14
Q

First step of the nursing process. Activities required in the first step are data collection, validation, sorting, and documentation for health problem identification

A

Assessment

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15
Q

Active listening technique that prompts a respondent to continue telling a story or describing a situation. Involves use of phrase such as “go on,” “uh-huh,” or “tell me more”

A

Back channeling

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16
Q

Form if question that limit a respondents answer to one or two words

A

Closed-ended question

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17
Q

Experience other symptoms along with the primary sumptom

A

Concomitant symptoms

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18
Q

Information that a nurse acquires through hearing, visual observations, touch, and smell

A

Cue

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19
Q

Store or bank of information, especially in a form that be processed by a computer

A

Database

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20
Q

Method for organizing assessment data based on the level of patient function in specific areas

A

Functional health patterns

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21
Q

(1) judgment or interpretation of informal cues. (2) taking one proposition as a given and guessing that another proposition follows

A

Inference

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22
Q

Data collected about a patients present level if wellness, changes in life patterns, sociocultural role, and mental and emotional reaction to illness

A

Nursing health history

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23
Q

Systematic problem-solving method by which nurses individualize care for each patient

A
Nursing process----->
Assessment 
Diagnosis
Planning
Implementation
Evaluation
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24
Q

Information that can be observed by others: free of feeling, perceptions, and prejudice

A

Objective data

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25
Q

Form of question that prompt a respondent to answer in more than one or two words

A

Open-ended question

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26
Q

Systematic approach for collecting the patients self-reported data on all body systems

A

Review of systems (ROS)

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27
Q

Information gathered from patient statement; the patient’s feelings and perception. Not verifiable by another except by inference

A

Subjective data

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28
Q

Act of confirming, verifying, or corroborating the accuracy of assessment dat or the appropriateness of the care plan

A

Validation

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29
Q

Judgment that is clinically validated by the presence of major defining characteristic

A

Actual nursing diagnosis

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30
Q

Is an objective or subjective sign, symptom, or risk factor that, when analyzed with other criteria, leads to a diagnostic conclusion

A

Clinical criterion

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31
Q

Physiological complication that requires the nurse to use nursing- and healthcare provider- prescribed interventions to maximize patient outcome

A

Collaborative problem

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32
Q

Set of signs or symptoms that are grouped together in logical order

A

Data cluster

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33
Q

Related signs and symptoms or clusters of data that support the nursing diagnosis

A

Defining characteristics

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34
Q

The name of the nursing diagnosis as approved by NANDA International

A

Diagnostic label

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35
Q

Study of all factors that may be involved in the development of a disease

A

Etiology

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36
Q

Clinical judgement of a person’s, family’s, or community’s motivations, desire, and readiness to increase well-being and actualize human health potential as expressed in their readiness to enhance specific health behaviors such as nutrition and exercise

A

Health promotion nursing diagnosis

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37
Q

Formal statement of disease entity or illness made by the physician or health care provider

A

Medical diagnosis

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38
Q

North American Nursing Diagnosis Association organized in 1973. It formally identifies, develops, and classifies nursing diagnosis

A

NANDA-I

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39
Q

Formal statement of an actual or potential problem that nurses can legally and independently treat; the second step of nursing process, during which the patient’s actual and potential unhealthy response to an illness or condition are identified

A

Nursing diagnosis

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40
Q

Any condition or event that accompanies or is linked with the patients health care problem

A

Related factor

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41
Q

Describes human response to health conditions/life processes that may develop on a vulnerable individual, family, or community

A

Risk nursing diagnosis

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42
Q

Is often a bright light, smell, or taste

A

Aura

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43
Q

Federal agency responsible for the enforcement of federal regulations regarding the manufacture, processing, and distribution of food, drugs, and cosmetics to protect consumer against sake of impure or dangerous substances

A

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

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44
Q

Process by which resistance to an infectious disease is induced or augmented

A

Immunization

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45
Q

Microorganism a capable of producing a disease

A

Pathogen

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46
Q

Any substance that impairs health or destroys life when ingested, inhaled, or absorbed by the body in relatively small amounts

A

Poison

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47
Q

A harmful chemical or waste metering discharged into water,soil, or air

A

Pollutant

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48
Q

Device to aid in the immobilization of a patient or patient’s extremity

A

Restraint

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49
Q

Hyper excitation and disorderly discharge if neurons in the brain leading to sudden, violent,involuntary series of muscle contractions that paroxysmal and episodic, causing loss of consciousness, falling, toxicity and clonicity

A

Seizure

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50
Q

Encompasses all nursing interventions to protect the patient from traumatic injury, position for adequate ventilation and drainage of oral secretions, and provide privacy and support following a seizure

A

Seizure precautions

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51
Q

Prolonged or repeated seizures

A

Status epilepticus

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52
Q

Passage of drug molecules into the blood

A

Absorption

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53
Q

Harmful or unintended effect of medication, diagnostic test, or therapeutic intervention

A

Adverse effect

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54
Q

Hypersensitive condition induced by contract with certain antigens

A

Anaphylactic reaction

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55
Q

Chemical changes that a substance undergoes in body such as by the action of enzymes

A

Bio transformation

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56
Q

Time it takes for the body to lower the amount of unchanged medication by half

A

Biological half-life

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57
Q

Of or pertaining to the inside of the cheek or the gum next to the cheek

A

Buccal

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58
Q

To remove the toxic quality of a substance

A

Detoxify

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59
Q

Individual sensitivity to effect of a drug caused by inherited or other bodily constitution factors

A

Idiosyncratic reaction

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60
Q

Introduction of fluid into the vein , giving intravenous fluid over time

A

Infusion

61
Q

Parenteral administration of medication; four major sites; sub q, IM, IV and ID

A

Injections

62
Q

To cause to enter drop by drop or very slowly

A

Instillation

63
Q

An injection of medication directly into cardiac tissue

A

Intracardiac

64
Q

Injection given between layers of the skin into the dermis. 5-15 degree angle

A

Intradermal

65
Q

Injection given into muscle tissue given at 90 degree angle

A

Intramuscular

66
Q

Method of medication delivery that involves inserting a medication disk similar to eye contact lens into patients eye

A

Inraocular

67
Q

Injection straight into a joint

A

Intraarticular

68
Q

Injection directly into the bloodstream.

A

Intravenous

69
Q

Process of washing out body cavity or wounded area with a stream of fluid

A

Irrigation

70
Q

Adverse reaction such as rash, chills, or gastrointestinal disturbances to a medication

A

Medication allergy

71
Q

Any event that could cause it lead to a patients receiving inappropriate drug therapy or failure to recieve appropriate drug therapy

A

Medication error

72
Q

Response that occurs when one drug modifies the action of another drug

A

Medication interaction

73
Q

A nurse admits a patient to a health care setting, he or she compares the medication that the patient took in the previous setting with his or her current medications

A

Medication reconciliation

74
Q

Logically organized decimal system of measurement

A

Metric system

75
Q

Statutes enacted by the legislature of why of the states or the appropriate officers of the districts or possessions that describe and define the scope of nursing practice

A

Nurse practice act (npa)

76
Q

Drug given into the eye in the for of either eye drops or ointments

A

Ophthalmic

77
Q

Giving medication by a route other than the gastrointestinal tract

A

Parenteral administration

78
Q

Time it takes for a medication to reach its highest effective concentration

A

Peak

79
Q

Minimum blood serum concentration of medication reached just before the next schedule dose

A

Trough

80
Q

Study of how drugs enter the body, reach their site of action, are metabolized, and exit from the body

A

Pharmacokinetics

81
Q

Use of a number if different drugs by a patient ego may have one or several health problems

A

Polypharmacy

82
Q

Includes more detailed information than a regular order because the patient needs to understand how to take the medication and when to refill

A

Prescription

83
Q

Any reaction or consequence that results from medication or therapy

A

Side effects

84
Q

Mixture of one or more substance dissolved in another substance

A

Solution

85
Q

Injection given into the connective tissue under the dermis

A

Subcutaneous

86
Q

Route of medication administration in which the medication is placed underneath the patients tongue

A

Sublingual

87
Q

Effect resulting from two drugs acting synergistically

A

Synergistic effect

88
Q

Desired benefit of a medication, treatment, or procedure

A

Therapeutic effect

89
Q

Effect of a medication that results in an adverse response

A

Toxic effect

90
Q

Medication delivery device in which the medication is saturated on a wafer like disk, which is affixed to the patient skin

A

Transdermal disk

91
Q

Order given verbally

A

Vernal order

92
Q

Technique for injection irritating preparation into muscle without tracking residual medication through sensitive tissue

A

Z-track injection

93
Q

Kind or amount of exercise or work that a person is able to perform

A

Activity intolerance

94
Q

Body measure of height, weight, and skinfolds to evaluate muscle atrophy

A

Anthropometric measurements

95
Q

Collapse ad alveoli, preventing the normal respiration exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

A

Atelectasis

96
Q

Placement of the patient in bed for therapeutic reasons for a prescribed periods

A

Bed rest

97
Q

Means that individuals center of gravity is stable

A

Body alignments

98
Q

Coordinated efforts of the musculoskeletal and nervous systems to maintain people balance, posture, and body alignment

A

Body mechanics

99
Q

Group of therapies use to mobilized pulmonary secretions for expectoration

A

Chest physiotherapy

100
Q

Increased muscle contraction causes muscle shortening, resulting in movement such as when a patient uses an overhead trapeze to pull up in bed

A

Concentric tension

101
Q

A blood clot

A

Embolus

102
Q

Abnormal neuromuscular condition of the lower leg and foot characterizes by am inability to dorsiflex, or evert, the foot

A

Footdtop

103
Q

Effects of rubbing or the resistance that a moving body meets from the surface on which it moves; a force that occurs in a direction to oppose movement

A

Friction

104
Q

Manner or style of walking, including rhythm, cadance, and speed

A

Gait

105
Q

One side paralysis

A

Hemiplegia

106
Q

One side weakness

A

Hemiparesis

107
Q

Pneumonia that results from fluid accumulation as a result of inactivity

A

Hypostatic pneumonia

108
Q

Inability to move about freely; causes by any condition in which movement is impaired or therapeutically restricted

A

Immobility

109
Q

Activities necessary for independence in society beyond eating, grooming, transferring, and toileting ; imclude skills as shopping, preparing meals, banking, and taking medications

A

Instrumental activities of daily living (IADL)

110
Q

Concentric and eccentric muscle action are necessary for active movement

A

Isotonic or dynamic contraction

111
Q

Static contraction cause an increased in muscle tension or muscle work but no shortening or active muscle movement of muscle

A

Isometric contraction

112
Q

Abnormality that may result in permanent condition of a joint; characterized by flexion and fixation

A

Joint contractur

113
Q

Maneuver used to turn a reclining patient from one side to the other or completely over without moving the spinal column out if alignment

A

Logrolling

114
Q

Person ability to move about freely

A

Mobility

115
Q

Inducing or compelling force and occurs when specific bones such as humorous and associate with a joint such as the elbow

A

Leverage

116
Q

Normal state if balanced muscle tension

A

Muscle tone

117
Q

Loss of muscle tone, and joint stiffness

A

Muscle atrophy

118
Q

Condition occurring when the body excretes more nitrogen than it takes in

A

Negative nitrogen balance

119
Q

Disorder characterized by abnormal rarefaction of bone, occurring most frequently in postmenopausal women, sedentary or immobilized individuals, and patients on long term steroid therapy

A

Osteoporosis

120
Q

Increased in heart rate of more that 15% and drop of 15 mm Hg or more in systolic blood press sir or a drop oh 10mm Hg or more diastolic blood pressure when patient changes from supine to siting position

A

Orthostatic hypotension

121
Q

Fractures resulting from weakened bone tissue

A

Pathological fracture

122
Q

Position of the body on relation to the surrounding space

A

Posture

123
Q

Inflammation, sore, or ulcer in the skin over a bony prominence

A

Pressure ulcer

124
Q

Range of movement of a joint from maximum extension to maxim flexion as measure in degrees of a circle

A

Range of motion(ROM)

125
Q

Calcium stones in the penal pelvis

A

Renal calculi

126
Q

Force exerted against the skin while the skin remains stationary and the bony structures move

A

Shear

127
Q

Metal triangular shaped bar that can be suspended over a patients bed from an overhanging frame

A

Trapeze bar

128
Q

Rolled towel support placed against hip and upper leg to prevent external rotation of the legs

A

Trochanter roll

129
Q

Accumulation of platelets, fibrin, clotting factors, and cellular elements of blood attracted internal wall of vein or artery which sometimes includes lumen of the vessels

A

Thrombus

130
Q

Not hardened

A

Unossified

131
Q

Increased the risk of urinary react infection and renal calculi

A

Urinary stasis

132
Q

Abnormal neurological condition in which language function is defective or absent

A

Aphasia

133
Q

Related to or experienced through hearing

A

Auditory

134
Q

Excessive cerium occluding the ear canal

A

Conductive hearing loss

135
Q

Motor type of aphasia, is the inability to name common objects or express simple ideas in words or writing

A

Expressive aphasia

136
Q

Is the inability to understan written or spoken language

A

Sensory or receptive aphasia

137
Q

Pertaining to the sense of taste

A

gustatory

138
Q

Overly sensitive to tactile stimuli

A

Hyperesthesia

139
Q

Enables a person to be aware og the position and movement of body parts without seeing them

A

Kinesthetic

140
Q

Pertaining to sense of smell

A

Olfactory

141
Q

Otolaryngologist

A

Audiologist

142
Q

Having a harmful effect on the eighth cranial nerve or the organ if hearing and balance

A

Ototoxic

143
Q

Ability of the body to sense it’s position and movement in space

A

Proprioceptioon

144
Q

Defect in the ability of the lens if the eye to focus light such as occurs in nearsightedness and farsightedness

A

Refractive error

145
Q

Defects in the function of one or mor of the senses, resulting in visual, auditory, or olfactory impairments

A

Sensory deficits

146
Q

State in which stimulation to one or more of the sense is lacking, resulting in impaired sensory perception

A

Sensory deprivation

147
Q

Star in which stimulation to one or more of the senses is is excessive that the brain disregards or does not meaningfully respond to stimuli

A

Sensory overload

148
Q

Relating to the sense of touch

A

Tactile

149
Q

Is a sense that allows a person to recognize the size, shape, and texture of an object

A

Stereognosis

150
Q

a disorder of vision due to a deviation from normal orientation of one or both eyes so that both cannot be directed at the same object at the same time; squint; crossed eyes.

A

Strabismus