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exam spring Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Ageression and submission are examples of responses organisms show to a conflict situation. Collectively
animal behavioralists refer to these as:

A

agnostic behavior

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2
Q

When an organism moves directly toward or away from a stimulus, the movement is referred to as:

A

taxis

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3
Q

The bond that forms between monosaccharides as a result of condensation synthesis is called

A

glycosidic link

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4
Q

One Beta-linked monosaccharide, ______, is used in the formation of cellulose, a molecule that is the primary component in the structure of the ____

A

beta-glucose, cell wall

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is/are not a primary function of the carbohydrates:

A

carbohydrates are used as identifiers for cell-to-cell communication;

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6
Q

Which of the following is/are (an) example(s) of (a) disaccharide(s):

A

maltose and galactose

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7
Q

Common table sugar is composed of or contains which of the following:

A

alpha-glucose, fructose, sucrose

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8
Q

Although we can’t digest cellulose, it does play an important role in our diet, how?

A

cellulose in the diet is referred to as dietary fiber, helps keep our colon healthy;

absorbs fats and moves them through the digestive tract and out of the body;

helps to cleanse the digestive tract, moving undigested or indigestible
materials through the digestive tract;

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9
Q

According to class discussion, fructose is especially problematic in our diet because:

A

it is not utilized directly by our cells, so gets stored in the liver;

in the liver, fructose is converted into fat;

a fatty liver can lead to symptoms of type-ll diabetes;

excess fat in the liver absorbs the hormone insulin, required to maintain homeostasis of blood sugar levels;

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10
Q

In the Korup Forest of Cameroon a black ant species lives in the hollow branches of the barteria tree. The ants clear algae and fungus from the leaves of the tree, and cut creeping vines away. This would be an example of what form of symbiosis?

A

mutualism

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11
Q

A highly branched starch, may be found as an energy storage carbohydrate in animal tissues:

A

glycogen

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12
Q

The carbohydrates most responsible for energy storage in nature tend to be composed of;

A

alpha-linked monosaccharides

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13
Q

The carbohydrates most responsible for structural and strengthening components in nature tend to be
composed of:

A

beta-linked monosaccharides

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14
Q

Probably the most significant source of fructose in the American diet is:

A

high fructose corn syrup used as the sweetener in most soft drinks;

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15
Q

Many animals, including man, are not capable of utilizing cellulose procied by the plants.
This is because:

A

they do not have the enzymes capable of breaking B-bonds;

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16
Q

The alpha-linked polysaccharides have a tendency to form which of the following secondary structures:

A

alpha-helices

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17
Q

A derivative carbohydrate that functions as an interradiary in energy transfer:

A

fructose-1,6-diphosphate and sugar phosphates;

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18
Q

Amino sugars are usually used as structural components in nature. The polymer chitin, for example, is
used in the _____ of the _____

A

Exoskeletons/arthropods
Skeletal structures/platyhelminthes;

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19
Q

The bond that forms from the synthesis that produces a triglyceride from fatty acid tails and a glycerol
molecule is called:

A

ester linkage

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20
Q

In general, which of the following foods would be rich in saturated fats?

A

Animal fat
Whole milk
Butter
Lard
Foods containing partially hydrogenated soybean oil like Little Debbie’s Snack Cakes

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21
Q

so, ifyou were to go on a really long hike and had to pack your food with you which of the following foodstuffs would provide you with the greatest energy source with least mass

A

a pound of margarine

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22
Q

specialization of the type we see among organisms in The Korup leaves organisms in such communities
highly susceptible to:

A

any alteration of the ecosystem, like human incursion, deforestation, global climate change;

extinction;

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23
Q

Which of the following can contribute to density-dependent regulation of populations?

A

intraspecific competition for nutrients

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24
Q

Which of the following are important abiotic factors that can affect the structure and organization
of biological communities?

A

A) precipitation, wind
B) nutrient availability, soil pH
D) temperature, water
E) light intensity, seasonality

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25
Q

Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes?

A

A) Oligotrophic lakes are relatively high in O2 levels.
B) Rates of photosynthesis are higher in eutrophic lakes initially as algal colonies grow.
C) Eutrophic lake water contains higher concentrations of nutrients, especially N, P and K.
D) Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain low levels of decomposable organic matter.
E) Sediments in eutrophic lakes contain high levels of decomposable organic matter.

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26
Q

What would be a likely entry for box A?

A

fertilizers washed into the lake;

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27
Q

To measure the population of lake trout in a 250 hectare lake,
200 individuals were netted and marked with a fin clip, and then returned to the lake. The next week, the lake is netted again, and out of the 200 lake trout that are caught, 50 have fin clips. Using the capture-recapture estimate, the lake trout population size could be closest to which of the following?

A

200/x=50/200 (cross multiply) = 800

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28
Q

An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile on another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?

A

density

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29
Q

Generalized global air circulation and precipitation patterns are caused by:

A

rising, warm, moist air masses cool and release precipitation as they rise and then at high altitude, cool and sink back to the surface as dry air masses after moving north or south of the tropics.

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30
Q

The sum total of an organism’s interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called its:

A

ecological niche

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31
Q

Which of the following assumptions have to be made regarding the capture-recapture estimate
of population size?
1. Marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped.
II. The marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with population after being marked.
III. No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or emigration, and no individuals have been added by birth or eliminated by death during the course of the estimate.

A

1,2,3

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32
Q

Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion?

A

cardinals, who actively defend territories

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33
Q

The three basic variables that make up the life history of an organism are

A

age when reproduction begins
how often reproduction occurs
how many offspring are produced per reproductive episode

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34
Q

Which curve best describes survivorship in a marine crustacean that molts?

A

D

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35
Q

Which curve best describes survivorship of cockroaches?

A

E

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36
Q

Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants?

A

A

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37
Q

Field observation suggests that populations of a particular
Number of survivors (log 100
species of herbivorous mammal undergo cyclic fluctuations in density at three- to five-year intervals. Which of the following relative can represent (a) plausible explanation(s) of these cycles?

A

A) Periodic crowding affects the endocrine system, resulting in increased aggressiveness.
B) Increases in population density lead to increased rates of predation.
C) Increases in rates of herbivory lead to changes in the nutritive value of plants used as food.
D) Increases in population density lead to more proximal infestations of parasites to host animals.

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38
Q

A species of fish is found to require a certain water temperature, a particular oxygen content of the water, a particular depth, a rocky substrate on the bottom, and a variety of nutrients in the form of microscopic plants and animals to thrive. These requirements describe its:

A

ecological niche

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39
Q

White-breasted nuthatches and Downy woodpeckers both eat insects that hide in the furrows of bark in hardwood trees. The Downy woodpecker searches for insects by hunting from the bottom of the tree trunk to the top, while the White-breasted nuthatch searches from the top of the trunk down. These hunting behaviors best illustrate which of the following ecological concepts?

A

resource partitioning

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40
Q

The high levels of pesticides found in birds of prey is an example of:

A

biological magnification

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41
Q

Which of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from this gragh? (figure 53.2 about broods)

A

There appears to be a negative correlation between brood enlargements and parental survival.

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42
Q

Which population is in the process of increasing?

A

the pyramid looking graph

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43
Q

Which of the following graphs illustrates the population growth curve of single bacterium growing in a flask of ideal medium at optimum temperature over a 24-hour period?

A

exponential growth graph

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44
Q

Which of the following graphs illustrates the growth curve of a small population of rodents that has grown to reach a static carrying capacity?

A

s curve

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45
Q

Which letter represents an organism that could be a producer?

A

B

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46
Q

Which letter represents an organism that could be a decomposer?

A

A

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47
Q

Food chains are sometimes short because:

A

most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher level.

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48
Q

For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy are essentially the same - they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this pattern is that:

A

at each step, energy is lost from the system as a result of keeping the organisms alive

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49
Q

Suppose you are studying the nitrogen cycling in a pond ecosystem over the course of a year. While you are collecting data, a flock of 100 Canada geese lands and spends the night during a fall migration. What could you do to eliminate error in your study as a result of this event?

A

find out how much nitrogen is consumed and eliminated by a Canada goose over about a 12 hour period and multiply this number by 100; enter this +/- value into the nitrogen budget of the ecosystem

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50
Q

What would be a likely entry for box B?

A

A) decomposer population carries on cellular respiration and uses up oxygen;
B) plants and algae produce less oxygen;

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51
Q

Why are ecologists concerned about the
Frequency shift in date from May 28 in 1980 to Hatchlin food needs)
May 15 in 2000 of the caterpillar peak mass?

A

The flycatcher nestlings in 2000 will
miss the peak mass of caterpillars and may not be as well fed.

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52
Q

Two barnacles, Balanus and Chthamalus, can both survive on the lower rocks just above the low-tide line on the Scottish coast, but only Balanus actually does so, with Chthamalus adopting a higher zone.
Which of the following best accounts for this niche separation?

A

competitive exclusion

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53
Q

Although we get plenty of fat in our diet, cholesterol, one of the fats we are supposed to avoid, plays several important roles in our body. Which of the following are among those roles?

A

A) cholesterol is the basic structural molecule upon which steroidal hormones are built;
B) cholesterol molecules within the phospholipid bilayer help to promote stability within biological membranes;

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54
Q

In lecture we discussed the role of LDL’s and HDL’s in our diet.
Which was considered to be dangerous to human health and why?

A

B) LDL’s are dangerous because they stick to the walls of blood vessels, forming plaque;
C) plaque lining blood vessels can lead to blockage that increases blood pressure and reduces the flexibility of affected vesseis;
D) plaque formation may lead to atherosclerosis;

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55
Q

HDL’s actually function in our bodies to do which of the following:

A

HDL’s help to remove LDL’s from our digestive track and blood vessels, reducing LDL’s in our blood;

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56
Q

Which of the following are considered HDL’s, or sources of HDL’s in our diet?

A

B) unsaturated fats;
C) omega-3 fatty acids from fish;

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57
Q

The synthesis that forms a triglyceride from fatty acid tails and a glycerol molecule is called:

A

ester linkage

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58
Q

The phospholipid bilayer is composed of molecules containing all of the following components except:

A

A carboxyl group

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59
Q

Some athletes have been known to use an anabolic steroid called androstenedione. This steroid functions as a precursor to:

A

testosterone

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60
Q

Probably the biggest concern with respect to the use of anabolic steroids is that they:

A

A) high blood pressure;
B) muscle and tendon damage;
C) reduction in bone growth resulting in reduced final height;
D) increased risk of heart attack, liver disease and some kinds of cancer:
E) mood swings including depression and dangerous aggression;

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61
Q

Lipids are used as energy storage molecules in the animals rather than carbohydrates because:

A

A) they are more efficient energy storage molecules;
B) carbohydrates break down easily;
C) animals are motile, therefore they need more stable storage molecules;

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62
Q

Lipids perform which of the following major functions in living tissue:

A

A) they form the relatively impermeable barriers that delineate cells (membranes);
B) they are used as chemical signals to carry messages to different parts of the body;
C) they act as light absorbing pigments in the plants;

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63
Q

they form the relatively impermeable barriers that delineate cells (membranes) refers to:

A

phospholipids

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64
Q

A peptide contains which of the following functional groups?

A

-COOH, -NH2

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65
Q

If a C-0 and an N-H group are placed in proximity of each other during secondary folding of a polypeptide
chain, they might form a(n):

A

hydrogen bond

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66
Q

A description of a protein as a single, linear chain containing a particuiar sequence of amino acids describes the ______ structure of the protein:

A

primary

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67
Q

Which of the following is not a potential cause of 2° regional folding in a polypeptide chain:

A

covalent bonding other than the disulfide bridge;

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68
Q

Which of the following organic compounds involves a phosphorylation in their formation?

A

polypeptides

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69
Q

which of the folowing organic compounds involves an esterification in their formation?

A

Phospholipids and Triglycerides

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70
Q

The monomers of the amino acids most appropriately referred to as:

A

peptides

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71
Q

A description of a protein by the postion of peptides in a three-dimensional, globular construct:

A

tertiary

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72
Q

A fibrous protein used where there is a need for a strong. rigid, and unstretchable structural component.

A

y-helix

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73
Q

Amino acids contain which of the following functional groups by definition:

A

A) a carboxyl group;
B) -COOH;
C) an amino group;
D) -NH2

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74
Q

Which of the following are examples of an a-helix:

A

keratin, actin, myosin, elastin

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75
Q

The polarity of the - NH2 group is due to:

A

A) the relative sizes of the N & H nuclei;
D) the stronger attraction of e-‘s to the N nucleus;

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76
Q

An aggregate protein composed of globular subunits describes which of the following levels of protein
structure?

A

quarternary

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77
Q

An aggregate protein composed of four myoglobin subunits, the protein component of red blood cells:

A

hemoglobin

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78
Q

Which of the following are examples, of a y-helix:

A

collagen

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79
Q

a reaction in which energy is being released is called:

A

exergonic

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80
Q

In an anabolic reaction, which of the following would best describe the “free energy?”

A

endergonic

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81
Q

The synthesis of a polypeptide from peptide monomers would be best described as:

A

endergonic, anabolic

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82
Q

The process by which starch decomposes to form a-glucose monomers is called:

A

hydrolysis

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83
Q

Generally speaking, one would expect that the ______ the concentration of enzyme, the ______ the rate of reaction?

A

higher/higher, lower/lower

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84
Q

When a protein configuration is changed due to heat, pH, or salinity so that it no longer functions as it should,
the protein is said to have been:

A

denatured

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85
Q

Enzymes speed the rate of reaction by lowering the _____ energy, the energy required to drive the reaction.

A

activation

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86
Q

The groove in the surface of a three dimensional protein molecule acting as an enzyme, the site at which reactants
bind, is called the _____

A

active site

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87
Q

The molecule or ion that is required to bind to the active site of an enzyme to activate that enzyme so it can
bind reactants is called:

A

cofactor
coenzyme
prosthetic group

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88
Q

In the equation below, the enzyme catalase is working as a(n):

           catalase 2H202 —————-> 2H20 + 02
A

catalyst

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89
Q

In the exposure of fruit to air, like a cut apple or avacado, the flesh undergoes a color change resulting from a catalyzed reaction as depicted. how would we most appropriately depict this reaction?

A

anabolic

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90
Q

The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or events

A

accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain, combining with H+ to form H2O

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91
Q

Which of the following statements describes the results of the reaction below?
C6H12O6 + 6O2 —> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy

A

C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced.

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92
Q

The free energy for the oxidation of glucose to CO, and water is -686 kcal/mole and the free energy for the reduction of NAD+ to NADH is +53 kcal/mole. Why are only two molecules of NADH formed during glycolysis when it appears that as many as a dozen could be formed?

A

Most of the free energy available from the oxidation of glucose remains in pyruvate,
one of the products of glycolysis.

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93
Q

Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) in cellular respiration?

A

38 or 36

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94
Q

Figure 10.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll and the action spectrum for photosynthesis
Why are they different?

A

Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a, the antenna pigments, like beta-carotene.

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95
Q

CAM plants keep stomata closed in daytime, thus reducing loss of
water. They can do this because they:

A

fix CO2 into organic acids during the night.

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96
Q

Which of the following produces the most ATP when glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized to
carbon dioxide (CO2) and water?

A

oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis);

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97
Q

in the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in the production of;

A

ATP, CO2, and ethanol (ethyl alcohol).

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98
Q

C) ATP, NADH, and pyruvate are the products of?

A

glycolysis

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99
Q

When glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide (CO2) and water, the CO2 breaks free in the form of:

A

a -COOH group, the H binds to NAD to form NADH;

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100
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes what is
happening along this chain in Figure 9.3?

A

Each electron carrier alternates between being reduced and being oxidized.

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101
Q

Which statement describes the functioning of photosystem II

A

The electron vacancies in p680 are filled by electrons derived from water when the water molecule is split.

102
Q

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is released during which of the following
stages of cellular respiration?

A

oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle;

103
Q

What did Engelmann conclude about the congregation of bacteria in the red and blue areas?

A

Bacteria congregated in these areas because these areas had the most oxygen being released.

104
Q
  • An outcome of Engelmann’s experiment was to help determine:
A

the relationship between wavelengths of light and the oxygen released during photosynthesis.

105
Q

In chemiosmotic phosphorylation, what is the most direct source of energy that is used
to convert ADP + P. to ATP?

A

energy released from movement of protons, hydronium ions, through ATP synthase in the mitochondrial matrix;

106
Q

The pH of the inner thylakoid space has been measured, as have the pH of the stroma and of the cytosol of a
particular plant cell. Which, if any, relationship would you expect to find?

A

The pH within the thylakoid is less than that of the stroma.

107
Q

When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a by-product of which of the following?

A

splitting the water molecules;

108
Q

What is the primary function of the Calvin-Benson (C3) cycle?

A

synthesizes simple sugars from carbon dioxide;

109
Q

Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle?

A

The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, Pi, and NADP+ to the light reactions.

110
Q

Which reaction would prevail if both Q and S were present in the cell in high concentrations?

A

L —> N

111
Q

A competitive inhibitor functions by doing which of the following?

A

the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme, preventing the substrate from binding;

112
Q

Which curve at the right represents the behavior of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in hot springs at temperatures of 70°C or higher?

A

3

113
Q

Which curve at the right was most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme from a human stomach where
Rate of reaction
conditions are strongly acid?

A

4

114
Q

Which of the following terms best describes the reaction? (figure 8.2)

A

exergonic

115
Q

Which of the following represents the delta G of the reaction? (figure 8.2)

A

d

116
Q

Which of the following bests describes the reaction? (figure 8.2)

A

negative delta G, spontaneous

117
Q

Which of the following represents the activation energy required for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction? (figure 8.2)

A

b

118
Q

The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is known as:

A

feedback inhibition

119
Q

If ATP used by this plant is labeled with radioactive phosphorus, in which molecules will the radioactivity be measurable after one “turn” of the cycle?

A

b,c,d,e

120
Q

If the carbon atom of the incoming CO, molecule is labeled with a radioactive isotope of carbon, where will the radioactivity be measurable after one cycle?

A

a,b,c

121
Q

What is the challenge presented by surface area to volume ratios in determining cell size?

A

B) All materials needed by the cell must enter through the plasma membrane.
As a cell gets larger the amount of membrane available to support a unit of volume gets smaller and a cell may starve for lack of nutrient;
C) All materials produced by the cell as waste must exit through the plasma membrane.
As a cell gets larger the amount of membrane availabie to support a unit of volume gets smaller and a cell may be poisoned by the toxicity of accumulating waste;

122
Q

According to our study, what is the most significant limitation to cell size?

A

surface area-volume ratio;

123
Q

A piece of laboratory equipment that uses the reflection or transmission of light, focused through glas
lenses, to facilitate inemaised resoiving power:

A

light microscope;

124
Q

The electron microscope has a number of advantages over the light microscope. Which of the following might be considered disadvantages?

A

A) tissue samples must be dead;
C) samples are partially desiccated;

125
Q

A slimy layer found on some prokaryotic cells, the capsule or sheath, may protect bacteria in which of the following ways?

A

A) protects from desiccation;
C) protects from attack by white blood cells;

126
Q

Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes generally:

A

A) lack a nucleus;
B) lack independent, membrane-bound organelles;
C) have circular DNA with no associated histone proteins;
D) produce proteins that begin with formylmethionine rather than methionine:

127
Q

According to Rudolf Virchow’s assertions in the Cell Theory, which of the following could not be true:

A

spontaneous generation

128
Q

A form of endocytosis in which a solid particle is incorporated by forming a pocket of plasma membrane outward, as in the formation of pseudopods, followed by a pinching off to form a
vesicle:

A

phagocytosis

129
Q

The nucleolus functions as the site of ______ in eukaryotic cells:

A

ribosome synthesis

130
Q

The sub-cellular organelle that functions as the site of cellular respiration in the eukaryotic cell:

A

mitochondrian

131
Q

The pores of the nuclear envelope prevent the movement of _____
through the envelope while allowing _____ to move freely out of the nucleus:

A

DNA/mRNA

132
Q

Proteins that are to be used inside the cell for cellular purposes are synthesized:

A

on free ribosomes

133
Q

Plastids that are specialized for the storage of starch are called:

A

amyloplasts (or leukoplasts);

134
Q

Proteins that are to be transported from the cell are synthesized.

A

on ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum;

135
Q

The endoplasmic reticulum allows proteins to be exported from the cell because:

A

it packages the proteins produced in a membrane, allowing the resulting vesicles to fuse with other membranes, including the cell membrane;

136
Q

Nuclear proteins and RNA pass into and from the nucleus by means of:

A

nuclear pores

137
Q

During periods when cells are not undergoing division, most of the genetic material of the nucleus exists as a loose, indistinct tangle called:

A

chromatin

138
Q

The ability to distinguish two closely adjacent objects as being separate depends on the microscope:

A

resolving power

139
Q

Which eukaryotic membrane-bound organelles are believed to have evolved from prokaryotic cells?
1. nucleolus 2. lysosomes 3. mitochondria
4. plastids 5. the Golgi complex

A

3 and 4

140
Q

Which is not a correct statement?

A

prokaryotes use a cytoplasmic protein-fiber framework for internal support whereas eukaryotes use membranous organelles as their cytoskeleton.

141
Q

Which of the following are organelles found in plant cells but not in animal cells?

A

chloroplast, large central vacuole, cell wall

142
Q

Which of the following are organelles found in some animal cells but not in any plant cells?

A

centrioles;

143
Q

The fluid pressure inside the central vacuole of plant cells is termed the:

A

turgor pressure

144
Q

Which of the following sub-cellular organelles is not among those belonging to the endomembrane system?

A

mitochondrian

145
Q

The energy produced by the mitochondrion is in the form of:

A

ATP

146
Q

Centrioles perform which of the following functions?

A

A) they form the basal body at the base of cilia and flagella;
B) they migrate with the formation of a spindle network during nuclear division in animal cells;

147
Q

According to the endomembrane theory of eukaryotic origin, which of the following explains the origin of
the definitive eukaryotic characteristic?

A

an inwardly expanding membrane surrounded the DNA, forming the nuclear envelope;

148
Q

Which of the following pieces of evidence supports the theory that mitochondria and plastids may have originated as independent prokaryotic cells taken into an early eukaryote by endocytosis?

A

A) they are about the same size as prokaryotes.
B) the proteins produced independently by mitochondria and plastids begin with formyl-methionine like those of the prokaryotes, rather than the methionine of eukaryotic proteins.
C) both have a double membrane
D) the ribosomal subunits will hybridize with those of prokaryotic cells, but not of eukaryotic cells;

149
Q

The proteins produced independently by mitochondria and plastids begin with ____ like those of _____ suggesting a possible origin of these organelles outside the modern eukaryote:

A

formylmethionine, prokayote;

150
Q

Prokaryotes have

A

A) no nucleus;
B) may have a mesosome region that functions like the eukaryotic mitochondrion
C) they have few, if any, independent membrane-bound structures, unlike the eukaryote:
D) they may have a primitive chromatophore region in their membrane that functions like the chloroplast in eukaryotes;
E) they have a cell wall composed of peptidoglycan rather than cellulose;

151
Q

Among the proteins associated with the cell membrane are some that sit on, or are imbedded in the surface of the membrane where they act as staging areas for cellular activities, as part of the major histocompatibility complex, or in cell to cell identification. These proteins as a group are referred to as:

A

intrinsic/integral proteins

152
Q

Observed the compartmentalization of tissue in a sample of cork and
called the compartments cells

A

hooke

153
Q

Associated with the cell membrane, these molecules act to transport materials through the membrane.

A

intrinsic/integral proteins

154
Q

-The process by which solar energy is converted to chemical energy in the chloroplast.

A

photosynthesis

155
Q

Organelle composed of stacks of flattened cavities, functions in storage and modification of proteins for export.

A

golgi apparatus

156
Q

Mitochondria and plastids may have originated as independent ___
taken into an early eukaryote by ___

A

prokaryotes/endocytosis

157
Q

This molecule may play a key role in providing stability to the plasma
membrane.

A

cholesterol

158
Q

The centriole may function as the _____. the structure that gives rise to cilia
or flagella.

A

basal body

159
Q

Like that of the eukaryote, prokaryotic DNA tends to be _____
with very little associated _____

A

circular and naked/protein or histoproteins

160
Q

This guy was first to claim all cells come from pre-existing cells, contradicting the accepted theory of the day, Spontaneous Generation

A

rudolf verchow

161
Q

Anton van Leeuwenhoek’s great contribution to the Cell Theory is that he observed _______________
using a compound microscope

A

living single celled organisms

162
Q

In the pairing of nucleotides, a larger _____ nucleotide always pairs with a smaller_______ nucleotide to maximize H-bonding between the polymers:

A

A) Purine / Pyrimidine;
C) Guanine / Cytosine;
D Adenine / Thymine, except in RNA where Thymine is replaced by Uracil;

163
Q

Which of the following are differences between DNA and RNA?

A

DNA is a double-stranded molecule whereas RNA is single-stranded;

164
Q

Which of the following represents the importance of the double helical structure of DNA?

A

Forms a wider molecule that can’t fit through pores in the nuclear envelope;
Places a sugar-phosphate backbone chain to the outside of the molecule protecting the coding base pairs to the interior of the molecule
The double helix with bases paired to the interior of the molecule promotes maintenance of the genetic code and faithful replication of the DNA during mitosis;

165
Q

In the transcription of DNA into RNA, an Adenine nucleotide on the DNA template will bond to a(n) _ nucleotide in the forming RNA polymer:

A

uracil

166
Q
  • In preparation for nuclear division, the genetic material of the nucleus supercoils, converting it from a loose, indistinct tangle of chromatin into compact, discrete units called:
A

chromosomes

167
Q

Probably the greatest advantage to the use of the transmitting electron microscope is that it offers the opportunity to make density distinctions allowing us to see _____
that cannot be seen
with a light microscope:

A

membranes

168
Q

To increase the surface area of cuboidal and columnar epithelium specialized for absorption, these tissues often have _____ on their free surface

A

Microvilli

169
Q

Epithelial tissues specialized for absorption might be found in which of the following areas of the body?

A

Lining of the stomach and intestines

170
Q

Squamous epithelium, like that lining the alveoli in lungs, is specialized for:

A

Absorption

171
Q

To increase the surface area of cuboidal and columnar epithelium specialized for secretion, these tissues often have an infolding of their free surface

A

Glandular epithelium

172
Q

Ciliated epithelium is specialized for…

A

Movement of materials

173
Q

Ciliated epithelium is commonly found in _____ where it helps to move _____

A

Respiratory tract/mucus

174
Q

The specialized epithelial tissue of which the lining of the heart and the blood vessels is composed

A

Endothelial tissue

175
Q

Your skin is a very good example of

A

Stratified epithelium

176
Q

Ligaments are composed primarily of

A

Elastic fibers

177
Q

A specialized type of ____ tissue, this tissue connects muscle to bone

A

Connective/tendons

178
Q

This tissue functions in the transmission of electrical messages from one part of the body to another; responsible for regulation and coordination

A

Nervous tissue

179
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of visceral (smooth) muscle tissue?

A

Cell are uninucleate
Controlled by the autonomic nervous system
Fatigues slowly

180
Q

The fluid portion of blood in which all other blood components are suspended

A

Plasma

181
Q

This component of blood is primarily responsible for the transport of O2 throughout the bodies of higher animals

A

Red blood cells

182
Q

The muscle tissue controlled by the voluntary nervous system, capable of quick, powerful contractions that move skeletal components

A

Skeletal muscle
Striated muscle

183
Q

Reproductive tissues are highly specialized tissues found in the ovaries and tested of animals where they function in the production of

A

Sperm and egg

184
Q

Plant epidermis secreted a waxy ____ that covers the surface of the leaf

A

Cuticle

185
Q

All of the following are true of meristematic tissue except

A

It is the most highly specialized plant tissue

186
Q

Xylem and phloem function in material transport throughout the plant, this they are referred to as

A

Vascular tissue

187
Q

The tissue that covers leaf surfaces in the plants is called

A

Epidermal tissue

188
Q

Massed cells we observed in the center of a leaf cross-section, where they function in filling space

A

Parenchyma

189
Q

When parenchyma tissues contain chloroplast and function in photosynthetic activity they may be referred to as

A

Chlorenchyma

190
Q

The woody fibers found primarily in stems and the mid ribs of leaves where they provide toughness and rigidity

A

Sclerenchyma

191
Q

The only plant tissue, other than reproductive tissues, that has the potential to give rise to a new plant:

A

Non-differentiated meristematic tissue

192
Q

Elongated lignified tubes which conduct water and mineral salts from the roots to the leaves:

A

Xylem

193
Q

The cuticle of the leaf and other plant structures play what role in the plant?

A

Protects plant from dissicating
Protects plant from penetration by parasites
Protects plant from penetration by pathogens

194
Q

Unlignified tissue, formed of sieve tube, elements, capable of transporting food material throughout the plant

A

Phloem

195
Q

The fat filled cells that wrap the axon of a neuron are called

A

Oligodendroglia in the CNS
Schwann cells in the PNS
Glial cells generally

196
Q

The primary cellular component of blood

A

Red blood cells

197
Q

Glycoprotein matrix

A

Connective tissue

198
Q

Composed of elastic fibers in a glycoprotein matrix

A

Ligament

199
Q

Composed of collagen fibers in a glycoprotein matrix

A

Tendon

200
Q

Search and destroy pathogens

A

White blood cells

201
Q

Polynucleotide protein fiber bundles

A

Skeletal muscle

202
Q

Uninucleate cell packed with contractile fibrils

A

Smooth muscle

203
Q

Osteoblasts secreting calcium salts

A

Bone

204
Q

Chondrin secreted by chondroblasts

A

Cartilage

205
Q

Unlignified tubes

A

Phloem

206
Q

Lignified cell walls

A

Xylem

207
Q

Protein fibers found in upper layers of stratified epithelium responsible for the protective quality of skin

A

Keratin

208
Q

One method utilized by organisms to deal with surface area : volume ratios

A

Highly folded free surface
Micro-villi covering the free surface
Invagination of free surface

209
Q

Simple diffusion may be defined as the

A

Movement of a solute from regions of higher solute concentration to areas of lower solute concentration
Free movement of solute in the direction of the concentration gradient

210
Q

Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion both describe movement of solute particles down there concentration gradient. This is dictated by which of the following

A

The law of Thermodynamics, suggests all systems change in such a way that free energy is minimized
The fact that solute particles in concentrated solution have higher kinetic energy than those in a system of lower solution concentration
As systems are most stable when they have the least amount of energy, particles diffuse to reduce the overall energy of the system and promote stability

211
Q

To move “in the direction” of the concentration gradient means that solute particles

A

Move from an area of high solute to an area of lower solute

212
Q

Which of the following is/are true of the process of facilitated diffusion

A

May utilize carrier proteins for transport
May utilize channel proteins for transport
Moves substances down their concentration gradient

213
Q

This form of movement across the bilayer allows particles to move against the concentration gradient

A

Active transport

214
Q

In an isotonic condition, the is initially active particles of two solutions might be said to be

A

At equilibrium
Equally distributed throughout the 2 solutions
Of equal concentrations in the 2 solutions

215
Q

most animal cells will tend to undergo lysis if they are placed in a

A

Very hypotonic solution

216
Q

many ions do not pass through membranes easily, because

A

they are repelled by the hydrophilic heads of phospholipid molecules

217
Q

which of the following might be considered revolutionary trans dealing with the law of diffusion

A

Development of a circulatory system
Development of tracheal tubes as in the insects
The branched digestive system of the planarian
The flattened body of platyhelminthes

218
Q

This refers to the rupturing of the cell

A

Lysis

219
Q

The Law of Diffusion states in part

A

The rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to the distance over which it has to take place

220
Q

if a concentrated sucrose solution is placed in the Reservoir of a thistle tube, sealed in a semi permeable membrane, and placed in distilled water, the level of fluid in the thistle tube will

A

Rise as water enters the tube through osmosis

221
Q

Glucose is too large to pass freely through the cell membranes, it must therefore cross by means of

A

Carrier/mediated diffusion
Facilitated diffusion

222
Q

Which substance is least able to move through biological membranes by means of simple diffusion

A

Glucose

223
Q

The fluid pressure inside the central vacuole of plant cells is termed, the

A

Turgor pressure

224
Q

to increase the surface area of cuboidal and columnar epithelium these tissues often have ____ on their free surface

A

Lignin

225
Q

Super coiling of the chromatin to form chromosomes prior to nuclear division, has what major advantage to the cell

A

Prevents entanglement of DNA
Reduces risk of loss from or damage to chromosomes during nuclear division
Protects the genetic code and maintains integrity of chromosome during nuclear division

226
Q

The branch of biology that desks with heredity and variation among related organisms is called

A

Genetics

227
Q

Which of the following is not true about the life and work of Gregor Mendel

A

He was a good friend of Charles Darwin and his discovers allowed Darwin to explain evolution

228
Q

Which do the following are reasons that made the pea a good subject for Mendel’s studies

A

Ease of cultivation
Controllable pollination
Availability of a variety of different traits for study
Well-defined contrasting alternatives in traits
Availability of true breeding characteristics

229
Q

The “discrete unit” that Mendel suggested in his Particulate Theory is the

A

Gene

230
Q

A particulate form of a given gene, distinguishable from other forms of the same gene is an

A

Allele

231
Q

according to Mendels law of segregation, which of the following is necessarily true

A

Alleles of a given gene separate from each other during gamete formation

232
Q

What is the Law of Independent Assortment

A

The alleles separated in gamete formation combine randomly with the alleles of another gene

233
Q

The characteristic expressed in the phenotype of the heterozygous is referred to as the ____ trait

A

Dominant

234
Q

The phenotypic ratio in the F2 of a typical monohybrid cross of parental strains is

A

3:1

235
Q

in the case of a mono hybrid cross involving incomplete dominance, we should observe a phenotypic ratio in the F2 of

A

1:2:1

236
Q

One effective way to determine that an organism expressing a dominant trait, is indeed homozygous for that trait would be to

A

Conduct a test cross
Conduct an F2 cross by “selfing” the organism (only for organisms who self pollinate)

237
Q

The probability of producing a homozygous dominant individual in the mating of two heterozygous would be

A

1/4

238
Q

The physical manifestation of that which is contained within the genetic composition of an organism, is called its

A

Phenotype

239
Q

In a typical dihybrid cross involving a dominant and recessive allele pair we expect an F2 phenotypic ratio of

A

9:3:3:1

240
Q

In a cross involving parents of CyCy and CrCr genotype, the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation would be

A

1:2:1

241
Q

The production, by a single gene of two or more, apparently unrelated affects, for example, when phenylketonuria (PKU) can cause mental retardation and reduced hair and skin pigmentation, it is referred to as

A

Pleiotropy

242
Q

Eye color in humans is regulated in part by the interaction of three genes. We would rightly refer to an eyecolor in humans as an an example of

A

Polygenetic character

243
Q

Lignin is a polymer of various sugars and amino acids, deposited between cellulose molecules of the cell wall in the formation of…

A

Wood
Xylem tubes
Sclerenchymal tissue
(all but D)

244
Q

The reason that lignified plant material can no longer carry out life functions

A

Lignin is impermeable

245
Q

Osteoporosis, a disease common especially among post-menopausal women, results from an ineffective mechanism for the deposition of new calcium salts in bone. Andre the Giant suffered from a disease that affected the absorption of bone tissue called

A

Acromegaly

246
Q

If the water of one solution has a tendency to leave that solution to enter a second, we say that the first solution is _____ to the second

A

Hypertonic

247
Q

Organisms that reliably produce progeny that bear the same given trait as the parents are said to be

A

True breeding

248
Q

Offspring of genetically different parents of the same species

A

Hybrids

249
Q

The genotype of an organism is its

A

Exact description of genetic constitution

250
Q

An organism described in the following way would be considered heterozygous for which gene(s)? AA/Bb/CyCr/dd:

A

B and C

251
Q

In Drosophila melanogaster the gene for eye color cannot be expressed if the fly has no eyes, a second genetic trait. This, then, would be a good example of

A

Epistasis

252
Q

each time the sodium-potassium pump cycles, ____ are moved across the plasma membrane:

A

three sodium ions (moved out) and two potassium ions (moved in)

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