exam review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four main components of the periodontium?

A

Gingiva, Periodontal Ligament (PDL), Cementum, Alveolar Bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three divisions of the gingiva?

A

Free gingiva, attached gingiva, interdental gingiva (papilla).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the clinical features of healthy gingiva?

A

Pink color, keratinized, stippled appearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the main function of the periodontal ligament (PDL)?

A

Shock absorption, proprioception, and maintaining homeostasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which PDL fiber group is the most abundant and acts as the primary load absorber?

A

Oblique fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two types of cementum, and where are they found?

A

Acellular Cementum: Cervical 2/3 of the root, provides most of the attachment.
Cellular Cementum: Apical 1/3 and furcations, contains cementocytes and adapts to wear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three components of alveolar bone?

A

Alveolar Bone Proper (Lamina Dura), Cortical Bone, Cancellous Bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the three types of gingival epithelium?

A

Oral epithelium, sulcular epithelium, junctional epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which gingival epithelium type is keratinized?

A

Oral epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What makes junctional epithelium unique?

A

It is non-keratinized, has wider intracellular spaces, and allows immune cell migration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the four layers of oral epithelium?

A

Stratum corneum (keratinized layer)
Stratum granulosum (keratohyalin granules)
Stratum spinosum (desmosomes)
Stratum basale (cell renewal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the turnover rate of junctional epithelium?

A

4-6 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the three types of non-keratinocytes in gingival epithelium?

A

Melanocytes – produce melanin.
Langerhans cells – antigen-presenting immune cells.
Merkel cells – involved in touch sensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary function of collagen in the ECM?

A

Provides tensile strength and structural integrity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the role of elastin in the ECM?

A

Contributes to tissue elasticity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), and what do they do?

A

Linear polysaccharides that maintain tissue hydration and resilience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which type of collagen is most abundant in the periodontium?

A

Type I collagen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of collagen is found in basement membranes?

A

Type IV collagen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the role of Connective Tissue Growth Factor (CTGF)?

A

It is an extracellular matrix protein involved in the control of biological processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of Transforming Growth Factor Beta (TGF-β)?

A

It is a potent stimulator of collagen production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the first two steps of collagen biosynthesis in the ER?

A

1) Translation on the ribosome
2) Hydroxylation of Proline and Lysine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the next four steps of collagen biosynthesis inside the cell?

A

1) Release from ribosomes
2) Glycosylation
3) Triple helix formation (requires Vitamin C)
4) Secretion from the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens in steps 7-8 of collagen biosynthesis in the ECM?

A

1) Removal of N- and C-terminal domains
2) Crosslink formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens to defective collagen chains that fail to form a stable triple helix?

A

They are immediately degraded within the cell, leading to blood vessel fragility and loss of tooth attachment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the three phases of collagen homeostasis?

A

1) Synthesis (fiber and matrix maturation)
2) Degradation (natural breakdown by age, UV, and MMPs)
3) Stimulation (collagen fragments trigger new collagen production).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the four phases of bone remodeling?

A

Resting, resorption, reversal, formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What signaling molecule stimulates osteoclast differentiation and bone resorption?

A

RANKL (Receptor Activator of Nuclear Factor Kappa-B Ligand).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What molecule inhibits RANKL to prevent excessive bone resorption?

A

Osteoprotegerin (OPG).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does chronic inflammation in periodontal disease affect bone remodeling?

A

Increases RANKL activation, leading to prolonged osteoclast activity and bone loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which pro-inflammatory cytokines contribute to periodontal bone loss?

A

IL-1, TNF-α, IL-6.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the dental pellicle, and how does it form?

A

A proteinaceous layer derived from saliva, gingival crevicular fluid (GCF), and bacterial components; forms within minutes on clean enamel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the function of the dental pellicle?

A

Provides protection, lubrication, and a surface for bacterial adhesion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which bacteria are primary colonizers in biofilm formation?

A

Gram-positive facultative aerobes like Streptococcus mitis, S. sanguinis, S. oralis, and Actinomyces species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the role of Fusobacterium nucleatum in biofilm development?

A

Acts as a bridging species, connecting early and late colonizers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which bacterial species are part of the red complex, associated with periodontitis?

A

Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia, Treponema denticola.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the primary difference between primary and secondary colonizers?

A

Primary colonizers attach directly to the tooth surface, while secondary colonizers adhere to pre-existing bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does the Non-Specific Plaque Hypothesis propose?

A

Disease results from overall plaque accumulation, regardless of bacterial species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the main limitation of the Non-Specific Plaque Hypothesis?

A

Some individuals have heavy plaque but no disease, suggesting host factors play a role.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does the Specific Plaque Hypothesis suggest?

A

Only certain bacterial species cause periodontal disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the main flaw in the Specific Plaque Hypothesis?

A

Periodontal pathogens can also be found in healthy individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does the Ecological Plaque Hypothesis explain periodontal disease?

A

A dysbiotic shift in the microbiome, driven by environmental changes, leads to disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the therapeutic goal of the Ecological Plaque Hypothesis?

A

Restore microbial homeostasis rather than eliminate all bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which microbes are dominant in periodontal health?

A

Streptococcus mitis, S. sanguinis, S. oralis, Actinomyces viscosus, A. naeslundii.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How does the microbial composition shift in gingivitis?

A

Increase in Gram-negative anaerobes such as Fusobacterium nucleatum, Capnocytophaga, Prevotella intermedia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the primary bacterial species associated with chronic periodontitis?

A

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia, Treponema denticola.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the key pathogen in aggressive periodontitis?

A

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What bacterial virulence factor allows P. gingivalis to adhere to host tissues?

A

Fimbriae that bind to fibrinogen and fibronectin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do endotoxins (LPS) contribute to periodontal disease?

A

They stimulate inflammatory cytokines (IL-1, TNF-α, prostaglandins) leading to bone resorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What bacterial enzyme degrades collagen in periodontal tissues?

A

Matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How does biofilm contribute to gingivitis?

A

Plaque accumulation triggers an inflammatory response but does not cause attachment loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which bacteria are commonly associated with gingivitis?

A

Streptococcus spp., Actinomyces spp., Fusobacterium nucleatum, Capnocytophaga, Prevotella intermedia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How does biofilm contribute to periodontitis?

A

Biofilm leads to inflammation, tissue invasion, and alveolar bone loss when combined with a susceptible host response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What microbial shift occurs in periodontitis?

A

From Gram-positive facultative bacteria to Gram-negative anaerobic species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Name three bacterial species that invade periodontal tissues.

A

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema denticola.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the two primary goals of periodontal therapy regarding microbiology?

A

Reduce biofilm mass and create shallow gingival crevices to limit anaerobic bacterial growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What periodontal therapy methods reduce biofilm mass?

A

Scaling and root planing, antimicrobial agents, and improved oral hygiene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How does reducing pocket depth help periodontal health?

A

Creates an environment less suitable for anaerobic Gram-negative bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are two treatments used to reduce pocket depth?

A

Surgical intervention and host modulation therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the clinical features of gingivitis?

A

Red, swollen gums, glossy appearance, no stippling, bleeding on probing, possible tenderness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What histological changes occur in gingivitis?

A

PMN infiltration, increased GCF, vascular dilation, loss of 5-15% perivascular collagen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the radiographic findings in gingivitis?

A

No bone loss, intact lamina dura.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the clinical features of periodontitis?

A

Red/bluish-red, swollen gingiva, gingival recession, pocket formation, tooth mobility, possible suppuration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What histological changes occur in periodontitis?

A

Plasma cells/macrophages infiltrate connective tissue, apical migration of junctional epithelium, PDL and alveolar bone destruction.

64
Q

What are the radiographic findings in periodontitis?

A

Horizontal/vertical bone loss, loss of lamina dura, widened PDL space.

65
Q

What are the four lesions in the Experimental Gingivitis Model?

A

Initial lesion, early lesion, established lesion, advanced lesion.

66
Q

What histological changes occur in the initial lesion (2-4 days)?

A

PMN infiltration, increased vascular permeability, slight collagen degradation.

67
Q

What are the clinical signs of the initial lesion?

A

Subclinical, no visible changes, increased GCF.

68
Q

What histological changes occur in the early lesion (4-7 days)?

A

T-cell infiltration, vascular proliferation, rete peg formation, 60-70% collagen loss.

69
Q

What are the clinical signs of the early lesion?

A

Erythema, mild swelling, early gingival bleeding.

70
Q

What histological changes occur in the established lesion (14-21 days)?

A

Plasma cell infiltration, increased pocket epithelium proliferation, further collagen degradation, no bone loss.

71
Q

What are the clinical signs of the established lesion?

A

Chronic gingivitis, gingival enlargement, deeper pockets, continued bleeding on probing.

72
Q

What histological changes occur in the advanced lesion?

A

Plasma cells/macrophages dominate, alveolar bone resorption, periodontal pocket formation.

73
Q

What are the clinical signs of the advanced lesion?

A

Attachment loss, deep periodontal pockets, tooth mobility.

74
Q

What is a gingival pocket (pseudopocket)?

A

A pocket formed by gingival enlargement without apical migration of the junctional epithelium.

75
Q

What are the two types of periodontal pockets?

A

Suprabony and infrabony pockets.

76
Q

What is a suprabony pocket?

A

A periodontal pocket where the base is coronal to the alveolar bone crest with horizontal bone loss.

77
Q

What is an infrabony pocket?

A

A periodontal pocket where the base is apical to the alveolar bone crest with vertical bone loss.

78
Q

What are the four zones of the root surface in periodontal pockets?

A

Cementum covered by calculus, attached plaque, unattached plaque, semi-destroyed connective tissue fibers.

79
Q

How do bacterial endotoxins affect the root surface?

A

They penetrate the cementum, causing necrosis and demineralization.

80
Q

What changes occur in the gingival wall of a periodontal pocket?

A

Accumulation of bacteria, leukocytes, inflammatory mediators, epithelial desquamation, ulceration, and hemorrhage.

81
Q

What are the two main pathways of inflammation in periodontal disease?

A

Interproximal and facial/lingual pathways.

82
Q

Describe the interproximal pathway of inflammation.

A

Gingiva → Periosteum, Periosteum → Alveolar bone, Gingiva → PDL.

83
Q

Describe the facial/lingual pathway of inflammation.

A

Similar to the interproximal pathway, following blood vessels and collagen fiber bundles to the crestal bone.

84
Q

What does the Episodic Burst Model propose?

A

Periodontal destruction occurs in bursts of activity and quiescence, rather than a continuous process.

85
Q

What happens during periods of quiescence (inactivity)?

A

Reduced inflammation, little/no bone loss, decreased inflammatory mediators.

86
Q

What happens during periods of exacerbation (activity)?

A

Increased Gram-negative bacteria, elevated cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-α), higher MMP activity, significant attachment loss, and bone resorption.

87
Q

What is the definition of a risk factor?

A

Any environmental, behavioral, or biological factor associated with disease onset.

88
Q

What are the two main categories of risk factors for periodontal disease?

A

Systemic risk factors and local risk factors.

89
Q

How does age affect periodontal disease risk?

A

Older individuals experience more severe attachment loss.

90
Q

Why do males have a higher prevalence of periodontal disease?

A

Due to differences in hygiene habits, hormones, or behavior.

91
Q

How does socioeconomic status influence periodontal disease?

A

Lower status reduces access to dental care and education.

92
Q

How do genetics and race contribute to periodontal disease?

A

Some individuals have genetic predispositions that affect immune responses.

93
Q

How does smoking impact periodontal disease?

A

Increases bacterial colonization and decreases immune function.

94
Q

Name three medical conditions that increase periodontal disease risk.

A

Diabetes, AIDS, osteoporosis.

95
Q

How does stress affect periodontal health?

A

It impairs immune function and increases inflammation.

96
Q

What are plaque-retentive factors that contribute to periodontal disease?

A

Calculus, caries, poor restorations, open contacts.

97
Q

How can tooth morphology contribute to periodontal disease?

A

Furcations, root grooves, and enamel pearls make cleaning difficult.

98
Q

What role does occlusion and trauma play in periodontal disease?

A

They can accelerate disease progression but do not initiate it.

99
Q

What are endo-perio lesions?

A

Infections originating from the pulp that lead to periodontal destruction.

100
Q

How do systemic risks contribute to periodontal disease?

A

They lower immune defenses, making tissues more vulnerable to infection.

101
Q

How do local risk factors contribute to periodontal disease?

A

They promote bacterial colonization and inflammation.

102
Q

What happens when risk factors persist over time?

A

The severity of periodontal disease increases.

103
Q

What is the primary cause of periodontal disease?

A

A specific bacterial infection in biofilm.

104
Q

How does plaque accumulation contribute to periodontal disease?

A

It triggers an inflammatory response that leads to tissue destruction.

105
Q

What is essential for preventing periodontal disease?

A

Identifying and modifying risk factors.

106
Q

What is the primary etiology of periodontitis?

A

Periodontitis is an inflammatory disease initiated by bacterial plaque.

107
Q

Name three key periodontal pathogens.

A

Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia, Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans.

108
Q

What are the virulence factors of periodontal bacteria?

A

Promote inflammation, evade the immune system, and contribute to tissue destruction.

109
Q

Why does tissue damage occur in periodontitis?

A

Largely due to an exaggerated immune response rather than direct bacterial invasion.

110
Q

What was the early model of periodontal disease pathogenesis?

A

It was thought that direct bacterial infection caused the disease.

111
Q

How did the model shift in the 1980s?

A

Emphasis moved to the immune and inflammatory responses to plaque.

112
Q

What is the current model of periodontal disease?

A

Periodontitis results from a dysregulated host response. Genetic and environmental factors influence disease progression. Inflammation can be both protective and destructive.

113
Q

How does homeostasis disruption lead to periodontal disease?

A

Bacteria trigger chronic inflammation, leading to tissue breakdown.

114
Q

Which inflammatory mediators contribute to tissue destruction?

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF-α, PGE2.

115
Q

How does tissue destruction occur in periodontitis?

A

MMPs (Matrix Metalloproteinases) degrade collagen, weakening tissues. Osteoclast activation leads to alveolar bone resorption.

116
Q

What factors increase the severity of periodontal disease?

A

Genetic susceptibility, smoking, diabetes, and environmental factors.

117
Q

What are the key cells of innate immunity in periodontal disease?

A

PMNs (Neutrophils): First line of defense, phagocytose bacteria. Macrophages: Release pro-inflammatory cytokines in response to LPS. Toll-Like Receptors (TLRs): Recognize bacteria, activating NF-kB and inflammation.

118
Q

What are the key adaptive immune cells in periodontal disease?

A

Th1 Cells: Promote inflammation. Th2 Cells: Enhance antibody production. Th17 Cells: Secrete IL-17, stimulating osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. B Cells: Produce antibodies but also contribute to inflammation.

119
Q

Name key pro-inflammatory cytokines in periodontitis.

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF-α, PGE2.

120
Q

Name key anti-inflammatory cytokines in periodontitis.

A

IL-10, IL-4.

121
Q

What enzymes are responsible for collagen degradation?

A

Matrix Metalloproteinases (MMPs).

122
Q

What happens when MMPs are overexpressed?

A

Excessive breakdown of connective tissue.

123
Q

What is the RANK/RANKL/OPG pathway?

A

RANKL: Stimulates osteoclasts → bone resorption. RANK: Receptor on osteoclast precursors; activation leads to bone loss. OPG: Inhibits RANKL, preventing excessive bone resorption.

124
Q

How does inflammation drive bone resorption?

A

Bacterial LPS and inflammatory cytokines increase RANKL, leading to increased osteoclast activity and alveolar bone loss.

125
Q

What is the primary role of PMNs in periodontal disease?

A

They act as the first line of defense, clearing bacteria through chemotaxis, phagocytosis, and antimicrobial enzyme release.

126
Q

What happens in PMN dysfunction due to Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD-1)?

A

Defective PMN recruitment leads to persistent bacterial infection, increased IL-17, and bone resorption.

127
Q

How does PMN hyperactivity contribute to periodontal destruction?

A

Excessive release of hydrolytic enzymes and reactive oxygen species damages tissues.

128
Q

What happens when PMNs are hypoactive?

A

Reduced bacterial clearance leads to immune dysregulation and increased periodontal destruction.

129
Q

How do Th1 cells contribute to periodontal disease?

A

They secrete IFN-γ, enhancing macrophage activation and inflammation.

130
Q

What is the role of Th17 cells in periodontitis?

A

They produce IL-17, promoting osteoclastogenesis, bone resorption, and excessive inflammation.

131
Q

How do B cells contribute to periodontal destruction?

A

They produce antibodies against periodontal pathogens and increase RANKL, leading to bone loss.

132
Q

Which cytokines drive periodontal tissue destruction?

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF-α, PGE2.

133
Q

How does an increased RANKL/OPG ratio affect alveolar bone?

A

It leads to enhanced osteoclast activity and bone loss.

134
Q

What are pro-resolving lipid mediators, and what do they do?

A

Lipoxins, resolvins, and protectins derived from polyunsaturated fatty acids that reduce PMN infiltration and resolve inflammation.

135
Q

How does RvE1 treatment help in periodontitis?

A

It prevents bone loss, reduces inflammatory cytokines, and improves bacterial balance.

136
Q

Name three types of host-modulation therapy used in periodontal treatment.

A

COX Inhibitors (NSAIDs): Reduce prostaglandin-mediated inflammation.
Denosumab: Blocks osteoclast activity, reducing bone loss.
Anti-cytokine Therapy: Targets IL-1, IL-17, and TNF-α to control inflammation.

137
Q

What is the modern multifactorial model of periodontitis?

A

It results from microbial dysbiosis, host immune response, and genetic/environmental risk factors.

138
Q

How is periodontitis linked to systemic diseases?

A

Periodontopathic bacteria can enter the bloodstream, triggering systemic inflammation, contributing to diseases like diabetes and cardiovascular conditions.

139
Q

What role do excessive cytokines play in periodontitis?

A

Overexpression of IL-1, IL-6, TNF-α, PGE2, and MMPs leads to periodontal tissue breakdown.

140
Q

What are the future research directions in periodontal disease?

A

Precision medicine: Targeting immune dysregulation.
Biomarkers: Predicting disease progression and treatment response.

141
Q

What scientific evidence links genetics to periodontal disease?

A

Twin and family studies show genetic heritability influences disease susceptibility.

142
Q

What periodontal condition is strongly linked to genetic predisposition?

A

Stage 4, Grade C periodontitis (formerly aggressive periodontitis).

143
Q

What genetic defects are associated with aggressive periodontitis?

A

Neutrophil function defects and single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in immune response genes (e.g., IL-1, TLR-4).

144
Q

Which racial group has a higher prevalence of early-onset periodontitis?

A

African Americans.

145
Q

What is a Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP)?

A

A single base-pair change in DNA that affects protein function and immune response.

146
Q

What is an Insertion/Deletion Polymorphism?

A

The addition or removal of DNA segments that influence gene expression.

147
Q

What is a Microsatellite Polymorphism?

A

Repetitive DNA sequences that vary in length, affecting gene regulation.

148
Q

What is a Copy Number Variant (CNV)?

A

Variations in the number of copies of a gene, influencing disease susceptibility.

149
Q

What is the role of IL-1 in periodontal disease?

A

IL-1 is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that promotes immune response and bone resorption.

150
Q

How do IL-1 gene polymorphisms affect periodontal disease risk?

A

Variants in IL-1α and IL-1β (on chromosome 2) lead to higher IL-1 production, increasing inflammation and rapid periodontal breakdown.

151
Q

What clinical signs are associated with IL-1 polymorphisms?

A

Increased inflammation, more bleeding on probing (BoP), and faster periodontal destruction.

152
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

Modifications in gene expression without changing the DNA sequence.

153
Q

What are two major epigenetic mechanisms affecting periodontitis?

A

DNA methylation and histone modifications.

154
Q

How does epigenetic therapy help manage periodontitis?

A

It reverses harmful gene expression changes, such as excessive inflammatory cytokine production.

155
Q

What is Apabetalone (RVX-208), and how does it work?

A

A drug that interferes with gene transcription, reducing inflammatory gene expression and preventing osteoclast differentiation and bone loss.