Exam Question 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Moist, Stable air flowing upslope can be expected to

A

Produce stratus type clouds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What airspeed should be flown during stabilized approach?

A

The landing speed specified in the POH or AFM+ 10/-5 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When exiting the runway, What is the purpose of the runway exit Sign?

A

Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during?

A

Taxi, Takeoffs, and landings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aeronautical decision making can be defined as:

A

Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A

A stable layer of air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?

A

Air temperature warmer than standard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current?

A

Medical certificate if required an an appropriate pilot certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will?

A

Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

As Altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will?

A

Remain the same regardless of altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Inbound to an airport with no tower, FSS, or UNICOM in operation, a pilot should self announce on MULTICOM frequency

A

122.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is?

A

20 nautical miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the specific Fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

To obtain current information regarding cloud tops, icing, and turbulence check the:

A

Pilot reports (PIREPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

A

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why should pilots always fly stabilized approach?

A

Reduce pilot workload.

17
Q

If you don’t maintain a constant glide speed in attempting to land in an emergency:

A

It is difficult to judge your gliding distance and landing spot/

18
Q

To fly in Class B airspace

A

The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.

19
Q

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircrafts operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately- rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated.

A

With passengers aboard.

20
Q

Advisory Circulars (ACs) are issued to inform the public of non-regulatory material

A

And are not binding

21
Q

The required documents necessary to be onboard the airplane include:

A

Airworthiness certificate, registration, and operating handbook.

22
Q

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a:

A

Pulsating red light. (Pulsating white light - aircraft is above glide path. ) Steady white light - on glide path

23
Q

In order to determine your distance flown, you would multiply time by:

A

Groundspeed

24
Q

What is the recommended glide path angle when flying stabilized approach?

A

3 degrees.

25
Q

ADS-B out equipment is required when flying?

A

In Class E airspace at and above 3,000 MSL over the gulf of Mexico from the U.S coastline out to 12NM

26
Q

What makes an airplane turn?

A

Horizontal Component of lift?

27
Q

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is?

A

Three white lights and one red light.

28
Q

What is the best way to slow a plane down during hydroplanning?

A

Aerodynamic braking

29
Q

During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A

The other aircraft is flying away from you. (steady white light is positioned on the tail facing rearward and a flashing red beacon light would be positioned such that it is visible in most directions. If these two lights are visible, the aircraft is flying away from you)

30
Q

How many GPS satellites are required to provide a Three - dimensional position?

A

4

31
Q

What is the main operating principle of a float - type carburetor?

A

Low pressure in the venturi of the carburetor forces fuel to flow through the main fuel jet and mix with intake air.

32
Q

What effect will landing with a tailwind have during an engine-out approach and landing?

A

Increased landing distance.

33
Q

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

A

Safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.

34
Q

How will the wind affect your engine-out gliding distance?

A

A tailwind increases the gliding distance.

35
Q

What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?

A

Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.