Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Spinal Anatomy 2 > Exam One Study Questions > Flashcards

Exam One Study Questions Flashcards

0
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

The ant bear and three toed sloth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

The 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which mammals have less than 7 cervical vertebrae?

A

The manatee and two toed sloth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the term “thoracic” refer to?

A

Brest plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

The loin; the region between the rib and the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

A cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

Gender variation or sexual dimorphism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age of developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

Ontogenetic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity of locational variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

Geographic variation of population based variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on the variation between individuals is identified as which type of variation?

A

Idiosyncratic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

About 70 centimeters or 28 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

About 60 centimeters or 25 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and a typical female spinal column?

A

About 3 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?

A

About 58 centimeters or 23 inches

5
11
7
5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What specifically is responsible for the shape and position of the human frame?

A

Comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs posterior height of the intervertebral disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What organ(s) are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

The eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra?

A

The vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?

A

Ages 7-9 years, appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification

Age 12 years, formation of the epiphyseal ring

Age 15 years, formation of the epiphyseal rim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

A

The basivertebral venous foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the semicircular region of the bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called?

A

The vertebral arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - posterolateral

Thoracic - posterior, slight lateral

Lumbar - posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

The ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

Para-articular process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

Accessory bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-Ray?

A

Shingling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral x-Ray?

A

The spinolaminar junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

All non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

A

The costal element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis?

A

The superior articular process or superior articular apophysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, the posterior longitudinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on x-Ray?

A

Imbrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - slight angle inferiorly

Thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly

Lumbar - no inferior angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

A

The spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

Cervical - triangular; thoracic - oval; lumbar - triangular; sacral - triangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord/spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each

A

Dura mater - tough mother; arachnoid mater - spider mother; Pia mater; tender or delicate mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?

A

Subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paraveretbral region?

A

dorsospinal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the vertebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

anterior medullary feeder arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

posterior medullary feeder arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

WHat forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C 6?

A

a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?

A

pial perforating arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargment?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T 12 vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

typically S4, S5, and Co1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of he filum terminale?

A

proximal part of the filum terminale internum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?

A

it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The last arterial vasa carona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is the name given to the condensation of meniges below S2?

A

filum terminale externum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?

A

living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to third month in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

endochondral ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to fifth month in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the mandible, sphenoid, temporal & occipital bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?

A

the diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

The bone develops within a tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be iscribed as ‘living’?

A

It has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways & facets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

WHat are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge and crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

WHat are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity, and malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the definition of an osseous meatus?

A

a blind-ended passageway which does not completely penetrate through a bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

99
Q

HOw many bones form the facial skeleton?

A

14 bones

100
Q

Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 11 and 12

101
Q

What are the classifications of rib 3-7 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs

102
Q

What are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs

103
Q

What are the classifications of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs

104
Q

What are the classifications of rib 10 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

atypical rib, false rib, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral rib

105
Q

What are the classifications of ribs 11 or 12 in the typical adult skeleton>?

A

atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs

106
Q

What term is used to identify the study of joints?

A

Arthrology

107
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

Syndesmology

108
Q

What are the three histological classifications of joints?

A

Fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid

109
Q

What are the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?

A

Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis

110
Q

What were the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints based on Latin groupings?

A

Suture, gomphosis, schindylesis and syndesmosis

111
Q

What are the characteristics of sutra vera/true sutures?

A

Sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembraneous ossification

112
Q

What were the classifications of sutura vera/true sutures based on Latin groupings?

A

serrate, denticulate and limbous

113
Q

WHat are the characteristics of sutura notha/false sutures?

A

Sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification

114
Q

What were the classifications of sutra notha/false sutures based on latin groupings?

A

Squamous and harmoina

115
Q

What is the synonym now used to identify the synarthrosis joint type?

A

Fibrous joints

116
Q

WHat is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?

A

Malocclusion

117
Q

The fibrous connective tissue holding the seams of the skull together are called?

A

Sutural ligaments

118
Q

What is the name given to the location at the top of the skull where intramembraneous ossification centers have not yet united?

A

Fontanelles

119
Q

What is the name given to the remnant of the posterior fontanelle in the adult skull?

A

Lambda

120
Q

What is the name given to the remnant of the anterior fontanelle in the adult skull?

A

Bregma

121
Q

Which suture classification demonstrates interlocking and overlapping characteristics?

A

Limbous suture

122
Q

Sutures which neither overlap nor interlock are classified as?

A

Harmonia

123
Q

Which joint classification would involve a fissure condition or appearance?

A

Schindylesis

124
Q

What are examples of temporary cartilage joints?

A

Metaphysis, neuro-central joint, neural arch joint and chondrocranium

125
Q

What are examples of permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

Costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

126
Q

What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

Fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

127
Q

What are the characteristics of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

Limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification.

128
Q

Which example of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

Symphysis menti

129
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

Articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

131
Q

What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?

A

Intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

132
Q

What are the characteristics of type 1 articular receptors?

A

Located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

133
Q

What are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors?

A

They resemble Pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

134
Q

What are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors ?

A

resemble Golgi tendon organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

135
Q

Type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels.

136
Q

Type IV b articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

137
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

Synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands & synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

138
Q

What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

Aid in spreading synovial fluid

139
Q

What is the location of a subcutaneous synovial bursa?

A

Bursa between integument and bone

140
Q

What is the location of a subtendinous synovial bursa?

A

Bursa between a tendon or muscle and bone or cartilage

141
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

142
Q

What are the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

143
Q

WHat is the common function of type A and type B synovial cells?

A

Formation and absorption of synovial fluid

144
Q

What is the architecture of the largest proteoglycans?

A

a backbone of hyaluronic acid to which core proteins are bound, chondroitin sulfates and keratin sulfates are bound to the core protein

145
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

146
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

147
Q

Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication.

A

Weeping theory implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film

Boosted theory implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid

Boundary theory implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is adsorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed

148
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

It is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

149
Q

What substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

hyaluronate

150
Q

What substance in synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

Lubricin

151
Q

What is a dialysate?

A

a separation phase of blood based on unequal diffusion through a semipermeable membrane

152
Q

What is a transudate?

A

Any substance produced as a result of “sweating across” a membrane

153
Q

What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

More than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial fluid.

154
Q

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

The articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus

155
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) hinge/ginglymus and (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid

156
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar

157
Q

What are the examples of synovial (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid joints?

A

Median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

158
Q

What is the shared morphological characteristic of synovial (diarthrosis) trochoid joints?

A

An osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring

159
Q

What are examles of synovial (diarthrosis) condylar or synovial (diarthrosis) biconylar joints?

A

Temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

160
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joints?

A

Radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints fo the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

161
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar joints?

A

Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

162
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) enarthrosis joints?

A

Femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus- glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder.

163
Q

What is the location for the petrous part of the internal carotid artery?

A

Carotid canal in petrous part of temporal bone

164
Q

At what location will the common carotid artery bifurcate?

A

The C3/C4 intervertebral disc at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage

165
Q

What are the regions/divisions of the internal carotid artery?

A

Cervical, petrous, cavernous and cerebral

166
Q

What accompanies the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery in the middle cranial fossa?

A

Cavernous dural venous sinus

167
Q

What branch of the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery was stressed in the text?

A

The opthalmic artery

168
Q

What are the segmental branches of the subclavian artery?

A

Vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

169
Q

What is the location of origin of the axillary artery?

A

At the outer border of the first rib

170
Q

What is the segmental branch of the axillary artery?

A

Supreme (highest/superior) thoracic artery

171
Q

What branches of the thoracic descending aorta were stressed in the text?

A

Posterior intercostal and subcostal arteries

172
Q

What parietal/dorsal branches of the abdominal descending aorta were stressed in the text?

A

Lumbar and median sacral arteries

173
Q

What branches of the internal iliac were stressed in the text?

A

Iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries

174
Q

WHat are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

The lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

175
Q

WHat are the segmental arteries of the 5th lumbar vertebra?

A

The iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

176
Q

What vessels from the retromandibular (posterior facial) vein?

A

Superficial temporal and (internal) maxillary vein

177
Q

What will the inferior opthalmic vein drain into?

A

The pterygoid venous plexus and the cavernous dural venous sinus

178
Q

What does the superior opthalmic vein drain into?

A

the angular vein and the cavernous dural venous sinus

179
Q

What will the cavernous dural venous sinus drain into?

A

The inferior petrosal dural venous sinus and superior petrosal dural venous sinus

180
Q

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

Posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters.

181
Q

What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

The intervertebral disc height

182
Q

At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

183
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

Anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

184
Q

What are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A

Uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, lateral lip or uncus

185
Q

What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

Anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

186
Q

What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis joint

187
Q

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

Modified synovial (diarthrosis) sellar joint

188
Q

What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?

A

Cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis joint

189
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

Five

190
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

Five

191
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

Ten

192
Q

How many synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

Four

193
Q

What is the purpose of the lymphatic capillaries?

A

Remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema

194
Q

What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?

A

They begin as blind-ended sacs, have a greater lumenal diameter than blood capillaries, and are more variable in lumenal diameter than blood capillaries and are more layered in plexus arrangements than blood capillaries.

195
Q

How do lymphatics (medium sized vessels) differ from veins?

A

More numerous, possess more valves and anastomose more frequently than veins

196
Q

What are the names of the ducts of the lymphatic system?

A

Right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct

197
Q

WHat parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?

A

The right side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall, as well as the right upper extremity, right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver

198
Q

What is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?

A

L2 from the cisterna chyli

199
Q

What is the cisterna chyli?

A

A triangular dilation formed from the union of the intestinal, abdominal and lumbar trunks

200
Q

What parts of the body will the thoracic duct drain?

A

The left side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall, the left upper extremity, left lung, most of the liger, the remainder of the abdominal contents, all pelvic contents and both lower extremities.

201
Q

What are the lymphatic organs?

A

Lymph nodules, lymph nodes (lymph glands), spleen and thymus

202
Q

What will form the lymph nodule?

A

Migration and proliferation of T-cells from the thymus

203
Q

Are the lymph nodules encapsulated?

A

No

204
Q

What forms an aggregate lymph nodule?

A

The union of several solitary lymph nodules

205
Q

What are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?

A

Peyer’s patches of the small intestine and the tonsils

206
Q

What are the functions of lymph nodules?

A

Lymphocytopoiesis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line) and to aid in the immune response

207
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

They primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they participate in the immune response

208
Q

What joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

Anterior groove, posterior groove, right uncinate process, left uncinate process, spongy bone, anterior lip, posterior lip, right lateral groove, left lateral groove, spongy bond

209
Q

What other terms are used to identify the uncinate process?

A

Unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus, lateral lip

210
Q

WHat is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

Joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

211
Q

The joint of Luschka is formed from what surfaces?

A

The uncinate process and lateral groove

212
Q

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

Th longus colli muscle

213
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

A

Posterolateral, 45 degrees

214
Q

What is the outline of the vertebral foramen of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

Hear-shaped or triangular

215
Q

Which is the greatest diameter of the vertebral foramen of typical cervicals?

A

Transverse

216
Q

What soft tissue diameter mimics the outline of the typical cervical vertebral foramen?

A

The transverse diameter of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord.

217
Q

The greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at ___?

A

C6

218
Q

The greatest frequency of osteophyte associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?

A

C5/C6

219
Q

List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.

A

Costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

220
Q

What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransverse muscles

221
Q

What muscles may attach to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

Splenius cervicis, iliocostalis cervicis, longissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalene, rotators and posterior intertransverse muscles

222
Q

What muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?

A

Middle scalene and posterior intertransverse muscles

223
Q

What produces the primary tension on the transverse process that will cause remodeling in the anteriolateral and inferior directions?

A

Cervical spinal nerves as they are directed anterolaterally and inferiorly to form the cervical and brachial plexuses

224
Q

What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?

A

Sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

225
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?

A

60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)

226
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

The Carotid tubercle

227
Q

What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?

A

The vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers

228
Q

What is the name of the lamina-pedicle junction of typical cervical vertebrae?

A

the articular pillar

229
Q

What is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?

A

The groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

230
Q

What nerve indents the articular pillar of typical cervical vertebrae?

A

The medial branch of the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

231
Q

Recent work suggests what angulation for typical cervical articular facets?

A

Fifty-five to sixty degrees

232
Q

What is the orientation of the typical cervical superior articular facet?

A

backward, upward, medial (BUM)

233
Q

What is the orientation of the typical cervical inferior articular facet?

A

Forward, Lateral and Down (FoLD)

234
Q

What muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes?

A

The longissimus capitis, longissimus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators

235
Q

What muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophyses?

A

The semispinalis capitis, multifidis and rotator longus

236
Q

What is the jointclassification fo the typical cervical zygapophysis?

A

Synovial (diarthrosis) arthrodia joint

237
Q

What modifications of the synovial joint are observed in the cervical spine?

A

Meniscoidal folds

238
Q

What function will meniscoidal folds provide in cervical zygapophyses?

A

They are assumed to distribute pressure across the joint surface

239
Q

The greatest range of flexion - extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?

A

Typically C5/C6

240
Q

WHat motions are coupled in the cervical spine?

A

Lateral bending and axial rotation

241
Q

Ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will be similar for what cervical vertebral couples?

A

The C2/C3, C3/C4, C4/C5 vertebral couples

242
Q

Ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will begin to decrease at what cervical vertebral couple?

A

The C5/C6 vertebral couples

243
Q

What is the usual condition for the African-American typical cervical spinous process?

A

They are non-bifid

244
Q

What muscles may attach to the typical cervical spinous process?

A

The spinalis cervicis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotators and interspinalis

245
Q

What ligaments will attach to the typical cervical spinous process?

A

The interspinous ligament and ligamentum nuchae

246
Q

What will form the unique anterior boundary of A typical cervical intervertebral foramen?

A

The uncinate process of the segment below and the lateral groove of the segment above forms the joint of Luschka

247
Q

What forms the unique anterior boundary of the intervertebral foramen for the C4 Spinal nerve?

A

The lateral groove of C3 and uncinate process of C4 forming the joint of Luschka

Spinal Anatomy 2 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions