Exam One Study Questions Flashcards
0
Q
Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?
A
The ant bear and three toed sloth
1
Q
What constitutes the spine?
A
The 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae
2
Q
Which mammals have less than 7 cervical vertebrae?
A
The manatee and two toed sloth
3
Q
What does the term “thoracic” refer to?
A
Brest plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso
4
Q
What does the term “lumbar” refer to?
A
The loin; the region between the rib and the hip
5
Q
What does the term “coccyx” refer to?
A
A cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak
6
Q
Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation?
A
Gender variation or sexual dimorphism
7
Q
Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age of developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?
A
Ontogenetic variation
8
Q
Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity of locational variation is identified as which type of variation?
A
Geographic variation of population based variation
9
Q
Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on the variation between individuals is identified as which type of variation?
A
Idiosyncratic variation
10
Q
What is the length of a typical male spinal column?
A
About 70 centimeters or 28 inches
11
Q
What is the length of a typical female spinal column?
A
About 60 centimeters or 25 inches
12
Q
What is the length difference between a typical male and a typical female spinal column?
A
About 3 inches
13
Q
Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?
A
About 58 centimeters or 23 inches
5
11
7
5
14
Q
What specifically is responsible for the shape and position of the human frame?
A
Comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs posterior height of the intervertebral disc
15
Q
What organ(s) are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?
A
The eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
16
Q
What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra?
A
The vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions
17
Q
What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?
A
Cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform
18
Q
What are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?
A
Ages 7-9 years, appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
Age 12 years, formation of the epiphyseal ring
Age 15 years, formation of the epiphyseal rim
19
Q
What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?
A
The basivertebral venous foramen
20
Q
What is the semicircular region of the bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called?
A
The vertebral arch
21
Q
What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?
A
Cervical - posterolateral
Thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
Lumbar - posterior
22
Q
What ligament will attach to the lamina?
A
The ligamentum flavum
23
Q
What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?
A
Para-articular process
24
What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?
Accessory bone
25
What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-Ray?
Shingling
26
What is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?
Cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis
27
What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral x-Ray?
The spinolaminar junction
28
All non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?
The costal element
29
What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?
Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position
30
What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?
The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward
31
What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis?
The superior articular process or superior articular apophysis
32
What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
The inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum
33
What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
The vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, the posterior longitudinal ligament
34
What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?
Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane.
35
What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on x-Ray?
Imbrication
36
What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?
Cervical - slight angle inferiorly
Thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly
Lumbar - no inferior angle
37
What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?
The spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges.
38
What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?
Cervical - triangular; thoracic - oval; lumbar - triangular; sacral - triangular
39
Identify the meninges of the spinal cord/spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each
Dura mater - tough mother; arachnoid mater - spider mother; Pia mater; tender or delicate mother
40
Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?
Subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
41
what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?
interstitial fluid
42
What is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?
cerebrospinal fluid
43
What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paraveretbral region?
dorsospinal artery
44
Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery
45
Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?
anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery
46
The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
the vertebral artery
47
As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
anterior medullary feeder arteries
48
The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
the posterior inferior cerebellar artery
49
As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
posterior medullary feeder arteries
50
WHat forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?
right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries
51
What forms the arterial vasa corona below C 6?
a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries
52
What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?
ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries
53
What arterial vasa corona branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?
pial perforating arteries
54
Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?
right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins
55
What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?
filum terminale internum
56
What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?
typically S2, the dural cul de sac
57
What is the generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargment?
L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T 12 vertebra
58
What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?
typically S4, S5, and Co1
59
In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?
L1
60
Neural tissue has been identified in what part of he filum terminale?
proximal part of the filum terminale internum
61
What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?
it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4
62
The last arterial vasa carona creates what feature on angiogram?
cruciate anastomisis
63
what is the name given to the condensation of meniges below S2?
filum terminale externum
64
What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?
coccygeal medullary vestige
65
What is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?
tethered cord syndrome
66
What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?
the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple
67
What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
glycosaminoglycans
68
What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?
collagen type 1
69
What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?
hydroxyapatite
70
What is Wolff's Law as it pertains to bone?
living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress
71
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
intramembranous ossification
72
What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
from the second to third month in utero
73
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?
endochondral ossification
74
What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?
from the second to fifth month in utero
75
What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?
chondrocranium
76
Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
the mandible, sphenoid, temporal & occipital bones
77
What bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
the clavicle
78
What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?
the diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)
79
What are examples of short bones?
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
80
What are examples of pneumatic bone?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal
81
What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?
The bone develops within a tendon
82
What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?
patella and pisiform
83
What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be iscribed as 'living'?
It has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age
84
What are the four basic surface feature categories?
elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways & facets
85
WHat are the types of osseous linear elevation?
the line, ridge and crest
86
WHat are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity, and malleolus
87
What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?
spine and process
88
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus
89
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
the fovea and fossa
90
What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?
ostium or orifice and hiatus
91
What is the definition of an osseous foramen?
an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone?
92
What is the definition of an osseous canal?
an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone
93
What is the definition of an osseous meatus?
a blind-ended passageway which does not completely penetrate through a bone
94
what is the definition of an osseous fissure?
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
95
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles?
96
What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?
the cranium
97
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?
28 bones
98
How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?
8 bones
99
HOw many bones form the facial skeleton?
14 bones
100
Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?
ribs 11 and 12
101
What are the classifications of rib 3-7 in the typical adult skeleton?
typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs
102
What are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton?
atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs
103
What are the classifications of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton?
typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs
104
What are the classifications of rib 10 in the typical adult skeleton?
atypical rib, false rib, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral rib
105
What are the classifications of ribs 11 or 12 in the typical adult skeleton>?
atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs
106
What term is used to identify the study of joints?
Arthrology
107
What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?
Syndesmology
108
What are the three histological classifications of joints?
Fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid
109
What are the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?
Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis
110
What were the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints based on Latin groupings?
Suture, gomphosis, schindylesis and syndesmosis
111
What are the characteristics of sutra vera/true sutures?
Sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembraneous ossification
112
What were the classifications of sutura vera/true sutures based on Latin groupings?
serrate, denticulate and limbous
113
WHat are the characteristics of sutura notha/false sutures?
Sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification
114
What were the classifications of sutra notha/false sutures based on latin groupings?
Squamous and harmoina
115
What is the synonym now used to identify the synarthrosis joint type?
Fibrous joints
116
WHat is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?
Malocclusion
117
The fibrous connective tissue holding the seams of the skull together are called?
Sutural ligaments
118
What is the name given to the location at the top of the skull where intramembraneous ossification centers have not yet united?
Fontanelles
119
What is the name given to the remnant of the posterior fontanelle in the adult skull?
Lambda
120
What is the name given to the remnant of the anterior fontanelle in the adult skull?
Bregma
121
Which suture classification demonstrates interlocking and overlapping characteristics?
Limbous suture
122
Sutures which neither overlap nor interlock are classified as?
Harmonia
123
Which joint classification would involve a fissure condition or appearance?
Schindylesis
124
What are examples of temporary cartilage joints?
Metaphysis, neuro-central joint, neural arch joint and chondrocranium
125
What are examples of permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
Costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint
126
What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
Fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage
127
What are the characteristics of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
Limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification.
128
Which example of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?
Symphysis menti
129
What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?
Articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid
131
What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?
Intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments
132
What are the characteristics of type 1 articular receptors?
Located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint "at rest"
133
What are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors?
They resemble Pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion
134
What are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors ?
resemble Golgi tendon organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion
135
Type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations?
fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels.
136
Type IV b articular receptors would be present in what locations?
accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine
137
What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?
Synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands & synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
138
What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane?
Aid in spreading synovial fluid
139
What is the location of a subcutaneous synovial bursa?
Bursa between integument and bone
140
What is the location of a subtendinous synovial bursa?
Bursa between a tendon or muscle and bone or cartilage
141
What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?
are phagocytic
142
What are the specific function of type B synovial cells?
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
143
WHat is the common function of type A and type B synovial cells?
Formation and absorption of synovial fluid
144
What is the architecture of the largest proteoglycans?
a backbone of hyaluronic acid to which core proteins are bound, chondroitin sulfates and keratin sulfates are bound to the core protein
145
What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
form a network for water retention
146
What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
147
Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication.
Weeping theory implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film
Boosted theory implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid
Boundary theory implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is adsorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed
148
What are the properties of synovial fluid?
It is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
149
What substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
hyaluronate
150
What substance in synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
Lubricin
151
What is a dialysate?
a separation phase of blood based on unequal diffusion through a semipermeable membrane
152
What is a transudate?
Any substance produced as a result of "sweating across" a membrane
153
What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
More than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial fluid.
154
What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
The articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus
155
What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?
(diarthrosis) hinge/ginglymus and (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid
156
What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?
(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar
157
What are the examples of synovial (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid joints?
Median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint
158
What is the shared morphological characteristic of synovial (diarthrosis) trochoid joints?
An osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring
159
What are examles of synovial (diarthrosis) condylar or synovial (diarthrosis) biconylar joints?
Temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee
160
What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joints?
Radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints fo the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
161
What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar joints?
Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
162
What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) enarthrosis joints?
Femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus- glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder.
163
What is the location for the petrous part of the internal carotid artery?
Carotid canal in petrous part of temporal bone
164
At what location will the common carotid artery bifurcate?
The C3/C4 intervertebral disc at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage
165
What are the regions/divisions of the internal carotid artery?
Cervical, petrous, cavernous and cerebral
166
What accompanies the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery in the middle cranial fossa?
Cavernous dural venous sinus
167
What branch of the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery was stressed in the text?
The opthalmic artery
168
What are the segmental branches of the subclavian artery?
Vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery
169
What is the location of origin of the axillary artery?
At the outer border of the first rib
170
What is the segmental branch of the axillary artery?
Supreme (highest/superior) thoracic artery
171
What branches of the thoracic descending aorta were stressed in the text?
Posterior intercostal and subcostal arteries
172
What parietal/dorsal branches of the abdominal descending aorta were stressed in the text?
Lumbar and median sacral arteries
173
What branches of the internal iliac were stressed in the text?
Iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries
174
WHat are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?
The lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery
175
WHat are the segmental arteries of the 5th lumbar vertebra?
The iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
176
What vessels from the retromandibular (posterior facial) vein?
Superficial temporal and (internal) maxillary vein
177
What will the inferior opthalmic vein drain into?
The pterygoid venous plexus and the cavernous dural venous sinus
178
What does the superior opthalmic vein drain into?
the angular vein and the cavernous dural venous sinus
179
What will the cavernous dural venous sinus drain into?
The inferior petrosal dural venous sinus and superior petrosal dural venous sinus
180
What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?
Posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters.
181
What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?
The intervertebral disc height
182
At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?
C5/C6
183
What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
Anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes
184
What are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?
Uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, lateral lip or uncus
185
What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
Anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves
186
What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation?
fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis joint
187
What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?
Modified synovial (diarthrosis) sellar joint
188
What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?
Cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis joint
189
How many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?
Five
190
How many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?
Five
191
How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
Ten
192
How many synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
Four
193
What is the purpose of the lymphatic capillaries?
Remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema
194
What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?
They begin as blind-ended sacs, have a greater lumenal diameter than blood capillaries, and are more variable in lumenal diameter than blood capillaries and are more layered in plexus arrangements than blood capillaries.
195
How do lymphatics (medium sized vessels) differ from veins?
More numerous, possess more valves and anastomose more frequently than veins
196
What are the names of the ducts of the lymphatic system?
Right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct
197
WHat parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?
The right side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall, as well as the right upper extremity, right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver
198
What is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?
L2 from the cisterna chyli
199
What is the cisterna chyli?
A triangular dilation formed from the union of the intestinal, abdominal and lumbar trunks
200
What parts of the body will the thoracic duct drain?
The left side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall, the left upper extremity, left lung, most of the liger, the remainder of the abdominal contents, all pelvic contents and both lower extremities.
201
What are the lymphatic organs?
Lymph nodules, lymph nodes (lymph glands), spleen and thymus
202
What will form the lymph nodule?
Migration and proliferation of T-cells from the thymus
203
Are the lymph nodules encapsulated?
No
204
What forms an aggregate lymph nodule?
The union of several solitary lymph nodules
205
What are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?
Peyer's patches of the small intestine and the tonsils
206
What are the functions of lymph nodules?
Lymphocytopoiesis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line) and to aid in the immune response
207
What is the function of lymph nodes?
They primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they participate in the immune response
208
What joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
Anterior groove, posterior groove, right uncinate process, left uncinate process, spongy bone, anterior lip, posterior lip, right lateral groove, left lateral groove, spongy bond
209
What other terms are used to identify the uncinate process?
Unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus, lateral lip
210
WHat is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?
Joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint
211
The joint of Luschka is formed from what surfaces?
The uncinate process and lateral groove
212
What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?
Th longus colli muscle
213
What is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?
Posterolateral, 45 degrees
214
What is the outline of the vertebral foramen of a typical cervical vertebra?
Hear-shaped or triangular
215
Which is the greatest diameter of the vertebral foramen of typical cervicals?
Transverse
216
What soft tissue diameter mimics the outline of the typical cervical vertebral foramen?
The transverse diameter of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord.
217
The greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at ___?
C6
218
The greatest frequency of osteophyte associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?
C5/C6
219
List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.
Costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process
220
What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?
anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransverse muscles
221
What muscles may attach to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?
Splenius cervicis, iliocostalis cervicis, longissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalene, rotators and posterior intertransverse muscles
222
What muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?
Middle scalene and posterior intertransverse muscles
223
What produces the primary tension on the transverse process that will cause remodeling in the anteriolateral and inferior directions?
Cervical spinal nerves as they are directed anterolaterally and inferiorly to form the cervical and brachial plexuses
224
What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?
Sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
225
What is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?
60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)
226
What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?
The Carotid tubercle
227
What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?
The vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers
228
What is the name of the lamina-pedicle junction of typical cervical vertebrae?
the articular pillar
229
What is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?
The groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
230
What nerve indents the articular pillar of typical cervical vertebrae?
The medial branch of the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
231
Recent work suggests what angulation for typical cervical articular facets?
Fifty-five to sixty degrees
232
What is the orientation of the typical cervical superior articular facet?
backward, upward, medial (BUM)
233
What is the orientation of the typical cervical inferior articular facet?
Forward, Lateral and Down (FoLD)
234
What muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes?
The longissimus capitis, longissimus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators
235
What muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophyses?
The semispinalis capitis, multifidis and rotator longus
236
What is the jointclassification fo the typical cervical zygapophysis?
Synovial (diarthrosis) arthrodia joint
237
What modifications of the synovial joint are observed in the cervical spine?
Meniscoidal folds
238
What function will meniscoidal folds provide in cervical zygapophyses?
They are assumed to distribute pressure across the joint surface
239
The greatest range of flexion - extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?
Typically C5/C6
240
WHat motions are coupled in the cervical spine?
Lateral bending and axial rotation
241
Ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will be similar for what cervical vertebral couples?
The C2/C3, C3/C4, C4/C5 vertebral couples
242
Ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will begin to decrease at what cervical vertebral couple?
The C5/C6 vertebral couples
243
What is the usual condition for the African-American typical cervical spinous process?
They are non-bifid
244
What muscles may attach to the typical cervical spinous process?
The spinalis cervicis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotators and interspinalis
245
What ligaments will attach to the typical cervical spinous process?
The interspinous ligament and ligamentum nuchae
246
What will form the unique anterior boundary of A typical cervical intervertebral foramen?
The uncinate process of the segment below and the lateral groove of the segment above forms the joint of Luschka
247
What forms the unique anterior boundary of the intervertebral foramen for the C4 Spinal nerve?
The lateral groove of C3 and uncinate process of C4 forming the joint of Luschka
