Exam One Flashcards

1
Q

What does the endocrine system use to regulate the body?

A

Chemicals (hormones)

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2
Q

What are the basic functions of the endocrine system?

A

Maintaining homeostasis
Responds to stress
Growth and development
Sexual reproduction

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3
Q

How does the nervous system regulate the body?

A

Electrical impulses

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4
Q

What are endocrine glands?

A

Glands that secrete only hormones

Release hormones directly into the bloodstream

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5
Q

What are exocrine glands?

A

Glands that secrete sweat and oils

Produce secretions into a duct or outside the body

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6
Q

What are neurocrine glands?

A

Nervous tissues that produce a hormone

Hypothalamus

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7
Q

What are autocrines?

A

Hormones released locally into interstitial fluid and affect same type of cell they were released from

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8
Q

What are paracrines?

A

Hormones released locally and affects neighboring cells of different type

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9
Q

What are the true endocrine glands?

A
Pineal
Anterior pituitary
Thyroid
Parathyroid
Adrenal
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10
Q

What are the multiple function endocrine glands?

A
Hypothalamus
Posterior pituitary
Thymus
Pancreas
Ovaries
Testes
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11
Q

What are the four classes of hormones?

A

Steroids
Proteins
Amino acids
Prostonoids

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12
Q

What is the process that must occur for steroids to be transported?

A

Bind to carrier protein
Pass through plasma membrane of cell
Bind to receptor inside the cell
Causes direct interaction on the cell

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13
Q

What are the four ways that steroids can be transported?

A

Cortisol - Cortisol Binding Globulin - Strong affinity
Testosterone/Estrodiol - TEBG - Strong affinity
Albumin - can bind to testosterone and estrodiol with weak affinity
Free hormone - circulates through blood alone

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14
Q

What are biologically active hormones?

A

Hormones that are able to be used right now

Free hormone and albumin

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15
Q

What are biologically inactive hormones?

A

Hormones that are unable to be used right now

TEBG and CBG

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of action for steroids?

A
  1. Steroid hormone diffuses through the plasma membrane and binds to an intracellular receptor
  2. Receptor-hormone complex enters the nucleus
  3. Receptor-hormone complex binds a specific DNA region
  4. Binding initiates transcription of the gene to mRNA
  5. The mRNA directs protein synthesis
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17
Q

What is the mechanism of action for amino acids?

A
  1. Hormone (first messenger) binds to receptor
  2. Receptor activates G protein
  3. G protein activates adenylate cyclase
  4. Adenylate cyclase converts ATP to cAMP (2nd messenger)
  5. cAMP activates protein kinases
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18
Q

How are hormones removed from blood?

A

Degrading enzymes
kidneys
liver

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19
Q

What is basal secretion?

A

General day to day hormone secretion

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20
Q

What is stimulatory secretion?

A

Secretion requires a stimulus

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21
Q

What is pulsatile stimulation?

A

Basal secretion when there are peaks throughout the day

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22
Q

What are the three types of endocrine gland stimulation?

A

Humoral
Neural
Hormonal

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23
Q

What is humoral stimulation?

A

Changing blood levels of ions and nutrients directly stimulate secretion
Calcium levels and parathyroid

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24
Q

What is neural stimulation?

A

Nerve fibers stimulate hormone release

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25
Q

What is hormonal stimulation?

A

Hormones stimulate other endocrine glands to release their hormones

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26
Q

What does target cell activation depend on?

A

Blood levels of hormone
Relative number of receptors on or in the cell
Affinity of binding between receptor and hormone

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27
Q

What is up-regulation?

A

Receptors become more sensitive due to low hormone levels

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28
Q

What is down regulation?

A

Receptors become less sensitive due to high hormone levels

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29
Q

What is permissiveness?

A

One hormone can not exert its effects without another hormone being present

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30
Q

What is synergism?

A

More than one hormone produces same effects on target cell

Amplification

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31
Q

What is antagonism?

A

One or more hormone oppose the action of another hormone

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32
Q

What is the difference between the anterior and posterior pituitary?

A

Anterior is true endocrine (adrenohypophysis)

Posterior is composed of nervous tissue (neurohypophysis)

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33
Q

What are the main parts of the posterior pituitary?

A

Hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract - neural connection of pituitary and hypothalamus

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34
Q

What is the function of ADH?

A

Causes urine retention

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35
Q

What are the main causes for the release of ADH?

A

Change is osmolality

Change in blood pressure

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36
Q

What are the different types of ADH receptors?

A

V2 receptors
V1a receptors
V1b receptors

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37
Q

Where are V2 receptors found?

A

Kidneys

Makes kidneys reabsorb water through aquaporin channels

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38
Q

Where are V1a receptors found?

A

Smooth muscle

Causes smooth muscle to contract in blood vessels to increase BP

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39
Q

Where are V1b receptors found?

A

Anterior pituitary

Cause release of ACTH

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40
Q

What are factors that increase ADH secretion?

A
Increases in osmolarity
Decreases in fluid volume
Periods of stress
Nausea and vomiting
Prolonged periods of standing
Angiotensin 2
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41
Q

What are factors that decrease ADH secretion?

A

Decrease in osmolality
Increase in extracellular fluid volume
Alcohol - supresses hypothalamus

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42
Q

What is diabetes insipidus?

A

ADH deficiency due to hypothalamus or posterior pituitary damage

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43
Q

What are the functions of oxytocin?

A

Strong stimulation of uterine contraction
Hormonal trigger for milk ejection
Releases at time of ejaculation to contract muscles and push sperm out
Positive feedback

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44
Q

What hormones does the hypothalamus produce that regulate hormone production in the anterior pituitary?

A
GHRH - Growth hormone releasing hormone
GHIH - Growth hormone inhibiting hormone
TRH - Thyroid releasing hormone
CRH - Corticotropin releasing hormone
GnRH - Gonadotropin releasing hormone
PIH - Prolactin inhibiting hormone
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45
Q

What are the three types of interaction that can occur at a target cell?

A

Permissiveness
Synergism
Antagonism

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46
Q

What are the two hormones that the hypothalamus makes?

A

Paracentricular nucleus - makes oxytocin

Supraoptic nucleus - makes ADH

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47
Q

What hormones does the anterior pituitary produce?

A
Growth hormone
Prolactin
Thyroid stimulating hormone
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Follicle stimulating hormone
Luteinizing hormone
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48
Q

What is a tropic hormone?

A

Hormone that controls the release of another hormone

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49
Q

What are the tropic hormones that the anterior pituitary produces?

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Follicle stimulating hormone
Luteinizing hormone

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50
Q

What cells in the anterior pituitary produce Growth hormone?

A

Somatotropic cells

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51
Q

What are the direct actions that growth hormone has?

A

Increases blood levels of fatty acids - encourages fatty acid use
Decrease rate of glucose uptake and metabolism
Causes glycogen breakdown and glucose release into blood

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52
Q

What are the indirect actions that growth hormone has?

A

Mediates growth via growth promoting proteins - insulin like growth factors

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53
Q

What do the insulin like growth factors stimulate?

A

Uptake of nutrition

Formation of collagen and deposition of bone matrix

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54
Q

How is growth hormone regulated?

A

Hypothalamus regulates growth hormone with GHRH and GRIH

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55
Q

What are the homeostatic imbalances of growth hormone?

A
Hypersecretion
    - In children results in gigantism
    - In adults results in acromegaly
Hyposecretion
   - In children results in dwarfism
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56
Q

What are the effects of thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

Stimulates normal development and secretion of thyroid

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57
Q

What produces thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

Thyrotropic cells of the anterior pituitary

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58
Q

How is thyroid stimulating hormone regulated?

A

Thyroidtropin releasing hormone from hypothalamus

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59
Q

What are the effects of ACTH?

A

Stimulates adrenal cortex to release corticosteriods (cortisol)

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60
Q

What produces ACTH?

A

Corticotropic cells of anterior pituitary

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61
Q

How is ACTH regulated?

A

Triggerd by corticotropin-releasing hormone from hypothalamus
Internal and external factors such as stress, fever and hypoglycemia can alter CRH release

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62
Q

What are the ganodotropins?

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone

Luteinizing hormone

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63
Q

What are the effects of follicle-stimulating hormone?

A

Stimulate gamete production (sperm or egg)

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64
Q

What are the effects of luteinizing hormone?

A

Promotes prodcution of gonadal hormones

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65
Q

What produces ganodotropins?

A

Gonadotropic cells of anterior pituitary

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66
Q

How are ganodotropins regulated?

A

Triggered by GnRH from hypothalamus

Negative feedback mechanism

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67
Q

What are the effects of prolactin?

A

Stimulates milk production

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68
Q

How is prolactin regulated?

A

Controlled by prolactin inhibiting hormone (dopamine) from hypothalamus

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69
Q

What produces prolactin?

A

Secreted by prolactin cells of anterior pituitary

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70
Q

What are the two hormones that the thyroid releases?

A

Calcitonin

Thyroid hormone

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71
Q

What are the effects of thyroid hormone?

A

Has a calorigenic effect
Has a thermogenetic effect
Regulates growth and development
Helps maintain blood pressure

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72
Q

What are the two related compounds of thryroid hormone?

A

T4 - thyroxine ( 2 tyrosine and 4 iodine)

T3 - Triiodothyronine ( 2 tyrosine and 3 iodine)

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73
Q

What makes up colloid cells?

A

Thyroglobulin

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74
Q

What is the protein that transports MIT and DIT across the cell?

A

Megalin

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75
Q

What are the steps of T3 and T4 synthesis?

A
  1. Thyroglobulin is synthesized and discharged into the follicle lumen
  2. Iodide is trapped, transported into follicular cells
  3. Iodide is oxidized into iodine in colloid
  4. Iodine is attached to tyrosine, forming DIT and MIT
  5. Iodinated tyrosines are linked together to form T3 and T4
  6. Thyroglobulin colloid is endocytosed and combined with a lysosome
  7. Lysosomal enzymes cleave T4 and T3 from thyroglobulin, hormones diffuse into blood
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76
Q

How are T3 and T4 transported?

A

Thyroxine binding globulin - tightly bound
Transthyretin - transports to brain / CNS
Albumin - weak affinity
Free in blood

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77
Q

Which is more active T3 or T4?

A

T3 is about ten times more active than T4

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78
Q

What are the homeostatic imbalances of T3 and T4?

A
Hyposecretion
   - Myxedema in adults
   - Cretinism in infants
Hypersecretion
    -Grave's disease
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79
Q

What are the effects of calcitonin?

A

Inhibits osteoclast activity and stimulates calcium uptake

Antagonist to parathyroid hormone

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80
Q

What is the function of parathyroid hormone?

A

Stimulates osteoclasts and releases calcium into the blood

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81
Q

What are the two divisions of the adrenal gland?

A

Medulla and Cortex

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82
Q

What hormones does the adrenal medulla produce?

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

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83
Q

What are the effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

Vasoconstriction to abdomen
Increased heart rate
Increased blood glucose levels

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84
Q

What are the three layers of the adrenal cortex and what are their hormones?

A

Zona Glomrulosa - aldosterone

Zona fasciculata and reticularis - Cortisol and androgens

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85
Q

What is the main hormone that the pineal gland produces?

A

Melatonin

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86
Q

What are the effects of melatonin?

A

Timing of sexual maturity
Day and night cycles
Rhythmic cycles (sleep, appetite, and body temp)

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87
Q

What are the different types of cells in the pancreas?

A

Acinar cells (exocrine cells)
Pancreatic islets (contains endocrine cells)
Alpha cells - produce glucagon
Beta cells - produce insulin

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88
Q

What are the effects of glucagon?

A

Main target is liver

Release of glucose into blood

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89
Q

What are the effects of insulin?

A

Transports glucose into fat and muscle cells

Lowers blood glucose levels

90
Q

What are the two types of diabetes?

A

Type 1 - Hyposecretion of insulin

Type 2 - Hypoactivity of insulin

91
Q

What is hyperinsulinism?

A

Produce to much insulin or are to sensitve to insulin

92
Q

What hormones do the ovaries produce?

A

Estrogen and progesterone

93
Q

What are the effects of estrogen?

A

Reproductive organ maturation
Appearance of secondary sexual characteristics
Cause breast development

94
Q

What is the function of the thymus?

A

Activates white blood cells for children

95
Q

What hormones do adipose tissue produce?

A

Leptin - appetite control

Resistin - insulin antagonist

96
Q

What hormones do enteroendocrine cells produce?

A

Gastrin - stimulates release of HCl for food breakdown
Secretin - stimulates liver
Serotonin - acts as paracrine

97
Q

What hormones does the heart produce?

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide - decreases blood sodium

98
Q

What hormones do the kidney produce?

A

Erythropoietin - signals red blood cell production

Renin - initiates renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism

99
Q

What makes blood more viscous than water?

A

Formed elements

100
Q

What are the formed elements in blood?

A

Erythrocytes - no nucleus or organelles
Luekyocytes - only true cell
Plateletes - cell fragments

101
Q

What are the functions of blood?

A

Protection - immune system, blood clotting
Regulation of blood - pH, fluid volume, temperature
Transport

102
Q

What is the make up of plasma?

A

90% water

10% plasma proteins

103
Q

What are the proteins in blood plasma?

A

60% albumin
36% globulin
4% fibrinogen

104
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

Percent of blood volume that is RBCs

Average is 45% for males, 40% for females

105
Q

What are the two major categories of luekyocytes?

A

Granulocytes - visible cytoplasmic granules

Agranulocytes - no cytoplasmic granules

106
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

Engulf foreign particles

Kill bacteria

107
Q

What are the different types of granulocytes?

A

Neutrophil
Basophil
Esinophil

108
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

Helps kill parasitic worms

Helps with allergic reactions

109
Q

What is the function of basophils?

A

Releases histamine
Releases heparin
Helps with allergic reaction response

110
Q

What are the different types of agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

111
Q

What are the functions of lymphocytes?

A

Direct cell to cell attack

Helps develop antibodies

112
Q

What are the functions of monocytes?

A

Engulf other debris

Can become a macrophage

113
Q

What are the functions of erythrocytes?

A

Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide with hemoglobin

Contain spectrin - allow RBC to fold over on itself

114
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A type of glycoprotein that generates an immune response

Helps classify blood types

115
Q

What happens in a transfusion reaction?

A

Blood can glutinate and clot
Diminished oxygen carrying
Kidney damage

116
Q

What is the structure of hemoglobin?

A

Globin - 4 polypeptide chains (2 alpha and 2 beta)

Heme - pigment bonded to each globin

117
Q

How many oxygen can each hemoglobin transport?

A

Four

118
Q

How many hemoglobin can each RBC contain?

A

250 million

119
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A

Blood cell formation in red bone marrow

120
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

Development of RBCs

121
Q

What is an immature red blood cell called?

A

Reticulocyte

122
Q

What stimulates erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoietin

123
Q

What causes hypoxia?

A

Having low levels of red blood cells
Insufficient hemoglobin per RBC
Reduced availability of oxygen

124
Q

What is anemia?

A

Blood has abnormally low oxygen carrying capacity

125
Q

What are the causes of anemia?

A

Blood loss
Low RBC production
High RBC destruction

126
Q

What are platelets?

A

Cytoplasmic fragments of megakaryocytes from bone marrow

127
Q

What are the stages of hemostasis?

A

Vascular spasm
Platelet plug formation
Coagulation

128
Q

What is vascular spasm?

A

Smooth muscle inside artery begins to contract

129
Q

What are the causes of vascular spasm?

A

Direct injury to smooth muscle

130
Q

What is important about the intrinsic pathway of coagulation?

A

Slow, takes about six minutes

Activated by internal damage

131
Q

What is important about the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?

A

Fast, takes 6-15 seconds

132
Q

Where do the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways meet?

A

Common pathway at clotting factor ten

133
Q

What are pain reflexes?

A

Tells muscle contraction to occur more

134
Q

What are the two chemical messengers released during platelet plug formation?

A

ADP - causes more platelets to stick

Serotonin and thromboxane A2 - Enhance vascular spasm

135
Q

What happens in the coagulation step?

A

Reinforces platelet plug with fibrin threads

Blood transformed from liquid to gel

136
Q

What is a critical activation step in clotting?

A

Thrombin

137
Q

What is clot retraction?

A

Actin and myosin platelets contract

Squeezing serum from clot

138
Q

What limits clot size?

A

Swift removal and dilution of clotting factors

Inhibition of clotting factors

139
Q

What is a thrombus?

A

Clot that develops and persists in unbroken blood vessel

140
Q

What are the conditions associated with a thrombus?

A

Embolus - thrombus free floating in blood stream

Emobolism - embolus obstructing a blood vessel

141
Q

Which side of the heart is the systemic circuit?

A

Left side

Pumps blood to the body

142
Q

Which side of the heart is the pulmonary circuit?

A

Right side

Pumps blood to the lungs

143
Q

What are the four chambers of the heart?

A

Right atrium
Left Atrium
Right ventricle
Left ventricle

144
Q

What is the function of the right atrium?

A

Receives blood returning from the systemic cicuit

145
Q

What is the function of the left atrium?

A

Receives blood returning from the pulmonary circuit

146
Q

What is the function of the left ventricle?

A

Pumps blood through the systemic circuit

147
Q

What is the function of the right ventricle?

A

Pumps blood through the pulmonary cicuit

148
Q

What is the name of the covering of the heart?

A

Pericardium

149
Q

What are the layers of the heart wall?

A

Epicardium
Myocardium
Endocardium

150
Q

What is pericarditis?

A

Inflammation of the pericardium

Roughens surface causing a creaking sound

151
Q

What are the three veins that empty into the right atrium?

A

Superior vena cava
Inferior vena cava
Coronary sinus

152
Q

What are the four valves of the heart?

A

Tricuspid
Bicuspid
Aortic semilunar
Pulmonary semilunar

153
Q

What is the function of the tricuspid valve?

A

Lets blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle

154
Q

What is the function of the bicuspid valve?

A

Lets blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle

155
Q

What is the function of the aortic semilunar valve?

A

Lets blood flow from left ventricle into aorta

156
Q

What is the function of the pulmonary semilunar valve?

A

Lets blood flow from right ventricle into pulmonary trunk

157
Q

What are the two conditions associated with bad valves?

A

Incompetent valve - blood backflows

Valvular stenosis - valves become stiff

158
Q

What is coronary circulation?

A

Blood flow that supplies the heart

159
Q

What arteries supply the right side of the heart?

A

Right marginal artery

Posterior interventricular artery

160
Q

What arteries supply the left side of the heart?

A

Circumflex artery

Anterior interventricular artery

161
Q

What are the homeostatic imbalances associated with the heart?

A

Angina pectoris - thoracic pain caused by poor blood flow

Myocardial infarction - heart attack

162
Q

How is cardiac muscle different from skeletal muscle?

A

Automaticity - can beat without a nervous system
All or nothing principle
Refractory period - Long absolute refractory period

163
Q

What are the important structures in cardiac muscle?

A

Many mitochondria - very oxygen dependent
Intercolated discs - allows complete contraction
Gap junction - helps allow sequential contraction

164
Q

What is the term for the heart lacking oxygen?

A

Ischemia

165
Q

What is normal heart rate and what are the terms associated with abnormal heart rate?

A

Normal: 60 - 100 BPM
Tachycardia - Heart rate above normal
Bradycardia - Heart rate below normal

166
Q

What is the path of intrinsic regulation in the heart?

A
Sinoatrial node
Atrioventricular node
Bundle of HIS
Right and Left bundle branches
Perkinje fibers
167
Q

What paces the heart?

A

Sinoatrial node

Paces heart at about 75 BPM

168
Q

What paces the heart in the SA node fails?

A

Atrioventricular node

Backs up heart at 40-60 BPM

169
Q

What paces the heart if both the SA and AV nodes fail?

A

Perkinje fibers

Backs up heart at 20-40 BPM if all else fails

170
Q

What does the bundle of HIS do?

A

Connects the atria to the ventricles

171
Q

What do the bundle branches do?

A

Conducts impulses through interventricular septum

172
Q

What are the different waves in an EKG reading?

A

P wave - Depolarization of the atria
QRS - wave - Depolarization of the ventricles
T wave - Repolarization of the ventricles

173
Q

What are the ways that the sympathetic nervous system can control the heart?

A

Chronotropic - causes heart rate to increase
Inotropic - causes heart to squeeze tighter
Lusotropic - Decreases resting phase

174
Q

What are the ways that the parasympathetic nervous system can control the heart?

A

Decrease heart rate and increases resting phase
Regulated by vagus nerve
Vagal tone - helps keep heart rate slow

175
Q

What are the heart conditions that can be determined by an EKG?

A

Junctional rhythm
Second degree heart block
Ventricular fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation

176
Q

How can you tell junctional rhythm on an EKG?

A

No P waves

SA node is non functional

177
Q

How can you tell second degree heart block on an EKG?

A

Twice as many P waves as QRS waves

178
Q

How can you tell ventricular fibrillation on an EKG?

A

Chaotic irregular peaks

Happens in heart attack and electrical shock

179
Q

How can you tell atrial fibrillation on an EKG?

A

Shakey at P waves
Ventricles still work
Not life threatening

180
Q

What is systole?

A

Contraction of the heart

181
Q

What is diastole?

A

Relaxation of the heart

182
Q

What is EDV?

A

End diastolic volume
Volume of blood in the heart after relaxation
About 120 mL

183
Q

What is ESV?

A

End systolic volume
Volume of blood in heart after contraction
About 50 mL

184
Q

What is EF?

A

Ejection fraction
Percentage of blood pumped by heart
SV/EDV

185
Q

What is HR?

A

Heart Rate

About 60 - 100 BPM

186
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

Amount of blood pumped by heart per minute

About 5.25 L

187
Q

What is cardiac reserve?

A

Difference between resting and maximal CO

Max is about 25 L, 35 L in trained

188
Q

What are the factors that influence SV?

A

Preload
Contractility
Afterload

189
Q

What is the Frank Sterling law of the heart?

A

Heart stretches and contracts more when the preload is higher

190
Q

What is afterload?

A

Amount of stress put on the heart to force open the aortic semilunar valve

191
Q

What happens in pulmonary congestion?

A

Left side fails

Blood backs up into lungs

192
Q

What happens in peripheral congestion?

A

Right side fails

Blood backs up into organs

193
Q

What are the three tunics of arteries and veins?

A

Tunica externa
Tunica media
Tunica intima

194
Q

What are the different types of arteries?

A

Elastic arteries

Muscular arteries

195
Q

What are the functions of capillaries?

A

Gas and nutrient exchange

Regulates blood flow

196
Q

What are the different types of capillaries?

A

Continuous capillaries
Fenestrated capillaries
Sinusoid capillaries

197
Q

What are continuous capillaries?

A

Found in skin and muscles

Have clefts for solutes to pass

198
Q

What are fenestrated capillaries?

A

Have pores for absorption

Found in intestines, kidneys and endocrine glands

199
Q

What are sinusoid capillaries?

A

Have large lumen with allow large solutes to pass

Found in liver, bone marrow and spleen

200
Q

What is microcirculation?

A

Interwoven network of capillaries connecting arterioles and venuoles

201
Q

What controls blood flow in capillaries?

A

Sphincters

202
Q

What is the direct route between terminal arterioles and venuoles?

A

Metarterioles

203
Q

How do veins return blood to the heart?

A

Uses valves and muscle contraction
Respiratory pump
Vasoconstriction

204
Q

What is flow equal to?

A

Chane in pressure/ resistance

205
Q

What are the three main factors affecting resistance?

A

Blood viscosity
Total blood vessel length
Blood vessel diameter

206
Q

What is the blood pressure in capillaries?

A

Ranges from 17 - 35 mm Hg

207
Q

What is mean arterial pressure?

A

Pressure that propels blood to tissues
Diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
Average is 93 mm Hg

208
Q

What is pulse pressure?

A

Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

209
Q

What factors influence Blood Pressure?

A

Cardiac output
Peripheral resistance
Blood volume
Arterial compliance

210
Q

What is resting heart rate maintained by?

A

Vagus nerve

211
Q

What is the short term neural control of BP?

A

Maintains MAP by altering blood vessel diameter

Alters blood distribution to organs in response to specific demand

212
Q

What role do barorecptors and chemoreceptors play in blood pressure?

A

Located in aorta and carotid sinus

Relay info to the cardiovascular center of medulla and pons

213
Q

What are the higher brain centers responsible for BP regulation?

A

Cerebral cortex - established BP set point

Hypothalamus - relays info from cerebral cortex to medulla

214
Q

How do barorecptors effect blood pressure?

A

Function as stretch receptors
Work only for short term regulation
Causes increased HR, Contractility, and CO if BP is low
Causes decreased HR, Contractility and CO if BP is high

215
Q

How do chemoreceptors effect blood pressure?

A

Detect increase in CO2, drop in pH, or drop in O2

Increases CO and vasocontriction

216
Q

What are the hormones that cause BP to increase?

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Angiostensin II
High ADH levels

217
Q

What hormone decreases BP?

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide

218
Q

What are the receptors for Epi/norepinephrine?

A

Alpha 1 - vasocontriction in skin and veins
Beta 1 - Found in heart, increases HR
Beta 2 - Coronary arteries, skeletal muscle, vessels in lungs
- Causes vasodialation

219
Q

How is long term blood pressure controlled?

A

All about maintaining fluid volume

220
Q

What are the functions of angiotensin 2?

A

Stimulates aldosterone secretion
Causes ADH release
Triggers hypothalamic thirst center