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Physiology > Exam One > Flashcards

Exam One Flashcards

1
Q 
Physiology = […]
Pathology = […]
Pharmacology = […]
A

how it works; how it break; how we fix it

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2
Q

Physiology:

A

normal functioning of living

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3
Q

Homeostasis, think […].

A

fluid balance

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4
Q

What are the 2 main compartments for the body fluid?

A

intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid

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5
Q

Intracellular fluid is […] of the total body […] volume.

A

2/3; water

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6
Q

Extracellular fluid is […]of the total body […] volume.

A

1/3; water

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7
Q

The ECF compartment consists of:

A
  1. interstitial fluid

2. blood plasma

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8
Q

Interstitial fluid is located…

A

between the cells

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9
Q

Body compartments are in a state of […].

A

chemical disequilibrium

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10
Q

Intracellular fluid composition (what is within the cytoplasm):

A

K+ and negatively charged proteins

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11
Q

Interstitial fluid composition:

A

Na+ and Cl-

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12
Q

Plasma fluid composition:

A

Na+, Cl-, proteins

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13
Q

What are some of the constraints to cellular transport mechanisms (7)?

A
  1. hydrophobicity
  2. lipid solubility
  3. charge
  4. size
  5. sphere of hydration (water molecules associated with an ion; deals with osmolality)
  6. specificity
  7. energy requiring
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14
Q

Active transport involves (2):

A
  1. vesicular transport

2. protein mediated

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15
Q

Passive transport involves (2):

A
  1. diffusion

2. protein-mediated

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16
Q

Homeostatic vs non-homeostatic feedback control (3 ea):

A

H– return to sender; oscillates at a set point; adapt until solution

NH– reinforces stimulus; sending variable farther from setpoint; stopped only by outside force

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17
Q

PFB results in…

A

increase or acceleration of the change

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18
Q

NFB results in effectors to…

A

oppose or reduce the change

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19
Q

List the 3 characteristics of FB control:

A
  1. can’t change/fix problem (adapt until solution)
  2. operational around a tolerance
  3. local control backed up by global reflex
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20
Q

Local endocrine reflex you can think of…

A

regulation of blood glucose

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21
Q

How would you get a reduction in insulin release?

A
  1. decrease in glucose; decrease in ATP leads to opening of K+ channel
  2. K+ follows change of K+ conc which is out of the cell
  3. removal of + hyperpolarizes the cell
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22
Q

How would you get an increase in insulin release?

A
  1. increase in glucose; increase in ATP leads to the closing of K+ channels
  2. K+ efflux decreases
    • depolarizes the cell activating voltage Ca2+ channels
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23
Q

What are the 2 major communication mechanisms?

A
  1. electrical

2. chemical

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24
Q

Hormone neuromodulator vs neurotransmitter:

A

hormone NM is slow while NTs are fast

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25
Q

Neurotransmitter

A

chemicals secreted by neurons that diffuse across a small gap to the target cell

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26
Q

Neurohormones:

A

chemicals released by neurons into the blood for action at distant targets

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27
Q

Intracellularly binding signals to cytosolic or nuclear receptors triggers…

A

slower responses related to changes in gene activity

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28
Q

Extracellular binding of signals to membrane receptor triggers…

A

rapid cellular response

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29
Q

Structure: Peptides vs. steroids.

A

P: hydrophilic; can either be large (polypeptides) or small (AA)

S: hydrophobic, small

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30
Q

Site of synthesis: Peptides vs. steroids.

A

P: rough ER

S: smooth ER

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31
Q

How is peptide release regulated? How is steroid release regulated?

A

P: stored in vesicles until a signal is received

S: synthesized only when needed (not stored)

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32
Q

Peptides circulate […] while steroids […].

A

freely; stick to a protein carrier

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33
Q

Specificity of peptides vs steroids.

A

P/S: only target cells have appropriate surface receptors

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34
Q

Peptides: bind to receptors that […] which result in […] of […] activity.

A

generate second messengers; modification; enzyme

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35
Q

Steroids: bind to receptors that […] by regulating […]

A

alter gene expression; DNA transcription

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36
Q

Timing of effect: Peptide vs steroids.

A

P: rapid, short-lived
S: slow, long-lasting

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37
Q

Explain the steps in peptide synthesis:

A
  1. mRNA binds AA into preprohormone chain
  2. directed into the ER lumen by a signal sequence of AA
  3. enzymes in ER chop off signal sequence and inactivate chain
  4. prohormone passes to Golgi complex
  5. secretory vesicles bud off Golgi; enzymes inside vesicles chop off prohormone into active peptides and add additional fragments
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38
Q

List the 4 types of cell surface receptors:

A
  1. receptor channel
  2. G-protein-coupled receptor
  3. receptor-enzyme
  4. integrin receptor
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39
Q

Peptide hormones are made as […], inactive […] that include a […] sequence, one or more […] of the hormone, and additional […] fragments.

A

large; preprohormone; signal; copies; peptide

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40
Q

Preprohormone = […]

A

signal sequence of AA + peptide fragments + 6 TRH

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41
Q

Explain how different tissues produce different steroids.

A

they are made in specific tissues based on the enzymes expressed in that tissue

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42
Q

Steroidogenesis pathways are…

A

common for ALL steroid-making tissue

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43
Q

Amine-based hormones function as both…

A

hormones and NT

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44
Q

Amine hormones are […] derivatives.

A

tyrosine

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45
Q

Peptide hormones are released by their parent cell via…

A

exocytosis

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46
Q

Steroid hormones are release by their parent cell via…

A

simple diffusion

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47
Q

What are the two main amine hormones?

A
  1. catecholamines

2. thyroid hormones

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48
Q

Catecholamine vs thyroid: Synthesis and storage.

A

C: made in advance; stored in secretory vesicles

T: made in advance; precursor stored in secretory vesicles

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49
Q

Catecholamine vs thyroid: Release from parent cell.

A

C: exocytosis

T: transport protein

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50
Q

Catecholamine vs thyroid: Transport in the blood.

A

C: dissolved in plasma

T: bound to carrier proteins

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51
Q

Catecholamine vs thyroid: Half-life.

A

C: short

T: long

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52
Q

Catecholamine vs thyroid: Location of receptor.

A

C: cell membrane

T: nucleus

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53
Q

Catecholamine vs thyroid: Response to receptor-ligand binding.

A

C: activation of second messenger systems

T: activation of genes for transcription and translation

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54
Q

Catecholamine vs thyroid: General target response.

A

C: modification of existing proteins

T: induction of new protein synthesis

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55
Q

Catecholamine vs thyroid: Examples.

A

C: epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine

T: thyroxine

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56
Q

Receptors for peptides are found […] while for steroids it’s […].

A

on the cell membrane; in the cytoplasm or nucleus

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57
Q

Example of peptide hormones:

A

parathyroid and insulin

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58
Q

Example of steroid hormones:

A

estrogen, androgens, cortisol

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59
Q

Receptors define […].

A

target organs and tissues

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60
Q

Pathology = Pharmacology: […]

A

how we fix it: dink with receptor activation

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61
Q

Epinephrine + alpha receptor (on blood vessel) = […]

A

vessle constricts

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62
Q

Epinephrine + beta receptor (on blood vessel) = […]

A

vessel dialates

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63
Q

Tonic control regulates physiological parameters in an […] fashion. The signal is always present but changes in […].

A

up-down; intensity

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64
Q

Tonic control: If the signal rate is decreased in a blood vessel…

A

the blood vessel dilates

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65
Q

Tonic control: If the signal rate is increased in a blood vessel…

A

the blood vessel constricts

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66
Q

Antagonistic control uses […] signals to send a parameter in […] directions. An example of this would be neuron control of […].

A

different; opposite; heart rate

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67
Q

Heart rate: Stimulation by sympathetic nerves…

A

increases heart rate

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68
Q

Heart rate: Stimulation by parasympathetic nerves…

A

decreases heart rate

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69
Q

Antagonistic control is […] faucet control while tonic control is […] faucet.

A

dual; single

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70
Q

[…] is the control mechanism of hormone secretion.

A

feedback

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71
Q

The posterior pituitary:

A

extension of the brain that secretes neurohormones made in the hypothalamus

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72
Q

What are two neurohormones released into the blood by the posterior pituitary?

A
  1. oxytocin
  2. vasopressin (ADH)

**anti-diuretic hormone

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73
Q

The anterior pituitary:

A

true endocrine gland that secretes 6 neurohormones made in the hypothalamus

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74
Q

The hypothalamic hormones reach the anterior pituitary through a specialized region called…

A

the portal system

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75
Q

Steps of neurohormone synthesis within the anterior pituitary gland:

A
  1. neurons synthesizing NH release them into capillaries of the portal system
  2. portal veins carry the NH to the anterior pituitary where they act on endocrine cells
  3. endocrine cells release their peptide hormones into the second set of capillaries for distribution to the rest of the body
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76
Q

What are the 6 NH created in the anterior pituitary?

A
  1. prolactin
  2. GH
  3. TSH
  4. ACTH
  5. LH
  6. FSH
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77
Q

What are the target organs to the 6 NH created in the anterior pituitary gland?

A 
prolactin = mammary gland
GH = musculoskeletal system
TSH = thyroid
ACTH = adrenal cortex
LH & FSH = ovary and testis
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78
Q

Which comes first: genotypic or phenotypic sex?

A

genotypic begins and phenotypic follows

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79
Q

T/F: Male and female embryos start with common anatomical structures.

A

true

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80
Q

Internal development features:

A
  1. wolffian (M)
  2. mullerian (F)
  3. ducts
  4. bipotential gonad
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81
Q

External development features:

A
  1. genital
  2. tubercle
  3. urethral folds/groove
  4. labioscrotal swelling
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82
Q

Explain the bi-potential stage of a 6-week embryo.

A

internal reproductive organs have the potential to develop into male or female structures

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83
Q

If female at bi-potential stage 6-week:

gonadal cortex = […]
gonadal medulla = […]
wolffian duct = […]
mullerian duct = […]

A

forms ovary

regresses

regresses (testosterone absent)

becomes fallopian tube, uterus, cervix, and upper 1/2 of vagina (AMH absent)

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84
Q

If male at bi-potential stage 6-week:

gonadal cortex = […]
gonadal medulla = […]
wolffian duct = […]
mullerian duct = […]

A

regresses

forms a testis

forms epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicle (testosterone present)

regresses (AMH present)

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85
Q

Female at 10 weeks:

A
  1. gonadal cortex becomes ovary (SRY absent)

2. wolffian duct degenerate (testosterone absent)

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86
Q

Male at 10 weeks:

A
  1. gonad becomes testis (SRY present)

2. mullerian duct disappears (anti-mullerian hormone present)

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87
Q

If female:

genetic tubercle = […]
urethral folds and grooves = […]
labioscrotal swellings = […]

A

forms clitoris

form labia minors, opening of vagina and urethra

labia majora

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88
Q

If male:

genetic tubercle = […]
urethral folds and grooves = […]
labioscrotal swellings = […]

A

forms glans penis

form shaft of penis

form shaft of penis and scrotum

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89
Q

The development of external genitalia is directed by […].

A

DHT

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90
Q

The […] gene directs males development.

A

SRY

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91
Q

SRY produces […].

A

testis determining SRY protein

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92
Q

Testis-determining SRY proteins initiate the production of …

A

multiple proteins that cause gonad medulla to differentiate into testis

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93
Q

Sertoli cells secret […] while interstitial cells secrete […].

A

anti-Mullerian hormone

testosterone

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94
Q

Anti-Mullerian hormone is a […]. Testosterone is a […].

A

peptide; steroid

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95
Q

Testosterone controls… (2)

A
  1. development of wolffian duct into accessory structures

2. development of male external genitalia (DHT)

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96
Q

Anti-Mullerian hormone causes…

A

regression of mullerian duct

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97
Q

GnRH stands for…

A

gonadotropin-releasing hormone

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98
Q

LH stands for…

A

luteinizing hormone

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99
Q

FSH stands for…

A

follicle-stimulating hormone

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100
Q

Kisspeptin turns into…

A

GnRH

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101
Q

GnRH turns into …

A

LH or FSH

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102
Q

FSH turns to …

A

gamete production

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103
Q

Within the A. Pituitary…LH moves to […] which then produces […] needed for […].

A

endocrine cells; steroid and peptide hormones; gamete production

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104
Q

Females only: […] needed for gamete production.

A

LH

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105
Q

Function of LH/FSH:

A
  1. control steroid synthesis

2. control production of gametes

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106
Q

Each 1 spermatocyte = […] mature sperm

A

4

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107
Q

T/F: Spermatocytes can not be released at any time in response to behavior signals.

A

false

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108
Q

Spem cell unique morphology:

A
  1. flagellum
  2. very little cytoplasm
  3. specific arrangement of organelles
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109
Q

Composition of semen:

A
  1. sperm
  2. mucus
  3. water
  4. buffers: neutralize acidic vagina environment
  5. nutrients
  6. enzymes: clot semen in vagina
  7. zinc
  8. prostaglandins: smooth muscle contraction
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110
Q

Water in semen serves as a(n):

A

liquid medium

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111
Q

Final maturation of sperm happens where? What is it called?

A

female reproductive tract; capacitation

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112
Q

Males exhibit relatively […] hormone control.

A

simple

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113
Q

The role of FSH in males:

A

binds FSH receptors on sertoli cells

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114
Q

FSH binding receptors on Sertoli cells causes…

A
  1. AMH: duct regression
  2. produce inhibin
  3. androgen-BP: keep T in lumen
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115
Q

LH binding LH receptors on Leydig cells causes…

A
  1. T production

2. conversion to DHT

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116
Q

List 3 characteristics of oocyte:

A
  1. large, non-motile, born with declining numbers
  2. typical morphology except lots of cytoplasm
  3. released once a month in response to hormone signal
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117
Q

Follicular Development: […] die before birth. Only about […] ever ovulate.

A

50%; 480

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118
Q

Females exhibit what 3 inter-connected cycles?

A
  1. hormonal
  2. uterine
  3. follicular
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119
Q

Follicular development = […] synthesis.

A

steroid

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120
Q

At what phase doing the steroid synthesis shift (follicular development)?

A

luteal phase

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121
Q

List the follicular phases:

A
  1. early-mid follicular phase
  2. late follicular phase and ovulation
  3. early-mid luteal phase
  4. late luteal phase
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122
Q

Early to mid-follicular phase: […] levels of estrogen exert […] to GnRH, FSH, LH. Estrogen promotes […] secretion. […] prevents follicles from developing.

A

low; negative feedback; estrogen; AMH

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123
Q

Late follicular phase and ovulation: […] levels of estrogen plus increasing […] causes […] surge. FSH suppressed by […].

A

rising; progesterone; LH; inhibin

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124
Q

Early to mid-luteal phase: Combined estrogen and […] shut off FSH and […].

A

progesterone; LH

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125
Q

Late luteal phase: Estrogen and progesterone […] when corpus luteum […]. Gonadotropins start […] for a new cycle.

A

fall; dies; follicular development

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126
Q

Barriers to fertilization:

A
  1. your decisions!
  2. corona radiata
  3. zona pellucida
127
Q

Capacitated sperm release […] from their acrosomes in order to penetrate the cells and […] surrounding the egg.

A

enzymes; zona pellucida

128
Q

List the steps of fertilization:

A
  1. sperm membrane fuses with egg’s membrane = cortical reaction
  2. sperm nucleus moves into egg’s cytoplasm
  3. oocyte nucleus completes meiotic division
  4. sperm and egg nuclei fuse to form zygote nucleus
129
Q

What are the 3 critical reactions of fertilization?

A
  1. acrosomal: ENZ break down cell adhesion molecules
  2. cortical: cortical granules prevent polyspermy
  3. complete meiosis II: forms 2nd polar body
130
Q 
Sex/Phenotype:
XX = [...]
XY = [...]
XO = [...]
YO = [...]
A

female
male
turner female
nonviable

131
Q

Chromosome: Females are […] each cell 1 X provides […] material.

A

mosaic; coded

132
Q

Barr body:

A

1 inactive clump

133
Q

Where does fertilization occur?

A

fallopian tubes

134
Q

What determines sperm motility? What else is sperm dependent on?

A

high estrogen; seminal fluid and fluid in the female tract

135
Q

What does P of the luteal phase do during fertilization?

A

decreases contractions and prepares uterus further

136
Q

How many oocytes are present during fertilization? How long is an oocyte viable?

How much sperm is present during fertilization? How long is a sperm viable?

A

1 oocyte that is viable for 12-24 hours

200 million sperm that is viable for 5-6 days

137
Q

Implantation:

A

cupping of uterine muscle over blastocyst/embryo

138
Q

Placenta = […] + […] + […]

A

C; A; A

chronion; amnion; amniotic fluid

139
Q

The outer layer of the placenta is the…

A

chronion layer

140
Q

The inner cell consists of…

A
  1. you
  2. amnion: makes fluid
  3. allantoid: umbilical cord useless yolk sac
141
Q

The hCG signal is used to…

A
  1. rescue the CL

2. drive testes for male development

142
Q

The placenta is a source of…

A

glucose and blood gas, waste

143
Q

The placenta is a hormone factory for…

A
  1. metabolic shunt
  2. breast development
  3. control uterian contractility
144
Q

hCS is involved in what 2 processes?

A
  1. metabolic shunt

2. lactation preparation

145
Q

Relaxin:

A

hormones that helps prepare the tissues in the cervix for dilation

146
Q

Placenta PTHrp:

A

hormones that calcifies fetal bones

147
Q

Parturition ([…]): Labor initiation is […] but this process is sustained by […].

A

birth; unknown; PFL oxytocin

148
Q

Development of breast ducts is affected by the hormone […].

149
Q

Suckling stimulates […] and the milk let-down reflex inhibits […].

150
Q

Removal of placenta declines …

A

E/P and thus PIH

151
Q

List the 10 methods of fertilization in the order of decreasing pregnancy rate:

A
  1. no contraception
  2. spermicides
  3. abstinence during times of predicted fertility
  4. female condom
  5. male condom
  6. diaphragm, cervical cap, sponge
  7. oral contraceptive pills
  8. intrauterine devices
  9. contraceptive hormone implant
  10. sterilization
152
Q

GI tract vs gut:

A

GI tract includes your esophagus and rectum

153
Q

What are the 4 operations of the GI tract?

A
  1. digestion: chemical and mechanical
  2. secretion: into lumen
  3. absorption: lumen to ECF
  4. motility: muscular contractions
154
Q

GI motility characteristics:

A
  1. migrating motor pattern
  2. peristalsis: circular mus; move food
  3. segmental contract: sm and longitudinal; mix
155
Q

What controls the GI?

A
  1. autonomic NS
  2. enteric NS
  3. local mechanical and chemical reflexes
156
Q

GI: Short reflexes are carried out…

A

entirely within the wall of the gut

157
Q

GI: Long reflexes are integrated in the […] and can originate from either the […] or […].

A

CNS; GI tract; enteric nervous system

158
Q

List the compartments of operations along the GI tract:

A
  1. oral cavity and esophagus
  2. stomach
  3. small intestine
  4. large intestine
159
Q

What is the main job of the oral cavity/esophagus?

A

OC: secretory and motor
E: motor

160
Q

What controls the oral cavity?

A

para/sympathetic control (autonomic)

161
Q

What cranial nerves belong to the following operations/operators of the oral cavity?

Chewing: […]
Taste buds: […]
Creates bolus: […]
Swallowing: […]

A

trigeminal (5th)

7th/9th

12th

9th/10th

162
Q

Chewing increases…

A

SA exposure

163
Q

Amylase and the oral cavity:

A

one of the chemicals released to break simple bonds

164
Q

Esophagus: Connective tissue types,

A

upper 1/3 is skeletal

lower 2/3 is smooth

165
Q

List the components of the mucosa:

A
  1. mucosal epithelium
  2. lamina propria
  3. muscularis mucosae
166
Q

Apical surface refers to…

A

the top layer that is exposed to the harsh environment

167
Q

What is the cell day turnover in apical surface of the stomach

168
Q

What is the basolateral surface?

A

basement membrane that is attached to the apical surface

169
Q

Lamina propria is […] tissue with small […] and […] vessels.

A

connective; blood; lymph

170
Q

Muscularis mucosae:

A

thin layer of smooth muscle control

171
Q

Submucosa is mostly […] tissue that holds large […] and […] vessels that lead to smaller […].

A

connective; blood; lymph; mucosa

172
Q

Submucosal plexus:

A

1st division of the ENS that innervates mucosal layer and controls smooth muscle

173
Q

Submucosa and sensory:

A

icky sensations

174
Q

Muscular Externa is mostly […].

175
Q

Muscular externa layers:

A
  1. oblique muscle
  2. circular muscle
  3. longitudinal muscle
176
Q

What is in between the muscle layers in the muscular externa?

A

myenteric plexus

177
Q

What are the motor operations of the muscular externa?

A

IF FOOD:

  1. circular peristalsis
  2. longitudinal: mixing
178
Q

Serosa is a […] membrane that is a continuation of the peritoneal. An overall […] wrapping that holds […] in place.

A

connective tissue; slippery; intestines

179
Q

What are the 4 cell types found within the stomach?

A
  1. G cells
  2. parietal cells
  3. chief cells
  4. mucous cells
180
Q

What substances are secreted by the 4 cell types found in the stomach?

A
  1. G cells: gastrin
  2. parietal cells: gastric acid and intrinsic factor
  3. chief cells: pepsin and gastric lipase
  4. mucous cells: mucus
181
Q

What is the function of each secretion done by the stomach’s 4 cell types?

A

G CELLS
1. gastrin: stimulates gastric acid secretion

PARIETAL CELLS
2A. HCl: activates pepsin and kills bacteria
2B. intrinsic factor: complexes with vitamin B12 to permit absorption

CHIEF CELLS
3A. pepsin: digests proteins
3B. gastric lipase: digests fats

MUCOUS CELS
4. mucus: physical barrier between lumen and epithelium

182
Q

Cephalic phase is initiated by…

A

sight, smell, sound, or though of food or by the presence of food in the mouth

183
Q

Gastric phase is initiated by…

A

arrival of food in the stomach

184
Q

G cells are stimulated by what 3 stimulus’?

A
  1. AA
  2. distension of the stomach
  3. GRP: gastrin-releasing peptide
185
Q

GRP:

A

gastrin-releasing peptide; ENS NT that mediates short neural reflexes

186
Q

The hormone gastrin […] intestinal motility.

187
Q

What organ stimulates parietal cells?

188
Q

Explain the parietal cell pathway:

A
  1. H+ from water inside the parietal cell is pumped into the stomach lumen
  2. H+-K+ ATPase does this in exchange for K+ entering the cell
  3. Cl- follows the electrical gradient created by H+ by moving through open Cl- channels
189
Q

Gastric acid release by parietal cells has multiple functions that include (5):

A
  1. release of pepsin
  2. somatostatin release from D cells
  3. denatures proteins to by easily digested by pepsin
  4. kills bacteria/microorganisms
  5. inactivates salivary amylase
190
Q

Salivary amylase is digestion of […] that begins at the […] and stops at the […].

A

carbohydrates; mouth; stomach

191
Q

Paracrine secretions from the gastric mucosa include…

A
  1. histamine
  2. somatostatin
  3. intrinsic factor
192
Q

HA is a […] signal secreted by […].

A

paracrine; enterochromaffin-like cells

193
Q

What is the primary NFB signal for gastric phase secretion? Why?

A

somatostatin

it shuts down acid secretion directly and indirectly by decreasing gastrin/HA/pepsinogen secretion

194
Q

How is autodigestion prevented?

A

mucus layer

195
Q

Once […] passes into the […] intestine, the intestinal phase begins.

A

chyme; small

196
Q

Majority of digestion and absorption occur in the […] phase.

A

intestinal

197
Q

What promotes intestinal motility? What inhibits it?

A

P: parasympathetic innervation (ACh), gastrin (G cells), CCK

I: sympathetic innervation

198
Q

What is the brush border of the intestine?

A

microvilli covered with membrane bound enzymes and a glycocalyx coat

SA large so it deals with a lot of the absorption

199
Q

Enterocytes transport […] and […]. Goblet cells secrete […]. Lacteals transport […] to the […]. Crypt cells secrete […] and […].

A

nutrients; ions; mucus; most fats; lymph; ions; water

200
Q

Before absorbed nutrients get into the systemic circulation they pass through which organ? What is done at the location?

A

liver

filters out potentially harmful xenobiotics

201
Q

Crypt cells secrete an […] solution.

A

isotonic saline solution (NaCl)

202
Q

The pancreas contain both types of secretory epithelium […] and […].

A

endocrine; exocrine

203
Q

Endocrine secretions of the pancreas come from clusters of cells called […] and include which hormones?

A

islets

insulin and glucagon

204
Q

Exocrine secretions of the pancreas include what?

A
  1. digestive enzymes

2. watery solution of sodium bicarbonate

205
Q

What secretes the digestive enzymes within the pancreas? What secrets the NaHCO3?

A

acinar cells

ducts

206
Q

Most pancreatic enzymes are secreted as […] which must be […] upon arrival in the intestine.

A

zymogens; activated

207
Q

How are zymogens activated?

A

cascade along the brush border enteropeptidase

**intestinal enzyme that activates trypsin from trypsinogen

208
Q

CCK sites of secretion:

A

duodenum and jejunum

209
Q

Secretin sites of secretion:

A

duodenum and jejunum

210
Q

Glucose-dependent insulinotropic site of secreiton:

A

duodenum and jejunum

211
Q

Bicarbonate secretion into the duodenum […] entering the stomach.

A

neutralizes acid

212
Q

Bile is a nonenzymatic solution secreted from […].

A

hepatocytes

213
Q

Explain the flow of macromolecule digestion along the GI tract:

A

O/E: carbohydrates

S: proteins

Lumen SI: all

Brush Border SI: carbs/proteins/nucleic acids

214
Q

Absorption phase: The small intestine absorbs […] from the blood through […]. It also absorbs […] from the lymphocytes through […].

A

carbs & AA; active transport and facilitated diffusion; fats; diffusion

215
Q

Absorption phase: The LI absorbs…

A

water and` minerals

216
Q

After absorption, there’s a first pass to the […], the […] system.

A

liver; haptic portal

217
Q

What are the functions of the liver (6)?

A
  1. glucose and fat metabolism
  2. protein synthesis
  3. hormone synthesis
  4. urea production
  5. detoxification
  6. storage
218
Q

What is stored in the liver?

A
  1. glycogen (labile pool)
  2. fats and fat-soluble vitamins
  3. B12
  4. Fe/Cu
219
Q

What are the 3 energetic components of our diet?

A
  1. carbohydrates
  2. proteins
  3. fats
220
Q

What are the 3 energetic components absorbed as?

A

C: glucose primarily and also fructose and galactose

P: AA plus small peptides

F: fatty acids, triglycerides, cholesterol

221
Q

Explain the metabolism of carbohydrates:

A
  1. **ENERGY–used immediately for energy through aerobic pathways
  2. LIPOPROTEIN–used for lipoprotein synthesis in liver
  3. STORAGE–stored as glycogen in the liver/muscle
  4. EXCESS–excess converted to fat and stored in adipose tissue
222
Q

Explain fasted-stated metabolism of carbohydrates:

A

glycogens polymers broken down to glucose in liver and kidney or for glycolysis use

223
Q

Explain metabolism of proteins:

A
  1. **SYNTHESIS– AA go to tissues for protein synthesis
  2. METABOLISM– liver for aerobic metabolism
  3. EXCESS– converted to fat and stored in adipose tissues (lipgenesis)
224
Q

Explain fasted-state metabolism of proteins:

A
  1. proteins broken down to AA

2. AA deaminated in liver for ATP production or glyconeogenesis

225
Q

Explain fat metabolism:

A
  1. **STORAGE– triglycerides in the liver and adipose tissue
  2. cholesterol used for membrane component or steroid synthesis
  3. lipoprotein/eicosanoid synthesis
226
Q

Explain fasted-state metabolism of fats:

A
  1. triglycerides are broken down into fatty acids and glycerol (lipolysis)
  2. fatty acids used for ATP production through aerobic pathways
227
Q

Metabolism is 2 key points:

A
  1. some enzymes are reversible, some not

2. some tissues do one or other process better

228
Q

What is the priority in metabolism at a fasted state?

A

glucose

**brain can only use glucose and ketones for energy

229
Q

How does glucose get to the brain?

A
  1. liver
  2. adipose
  3. muscles
  4. brain
230
Q

Insulin: glucagon ratios define…

A

relative metabolic state

231
Q

What dominates in a fed state? In a fasted state?

A

F: insulin
FS: glucagon

232
Q

Alpha cells […].

A

increase glucagon

233
Q

Beta cells […].

A

decrease insulin

234
Q

Insulin facilitates movement of glucose using […].

235
Q

List the steps on insulin’s cellular mechanism of action:

A
  1. insulin binds to tyrosine kinase receptor
  2. IRS is phosphorylated by receptor
  3. second messenger pathways alter protein synthesis and existing proteins
  4. membrane transport is modified
  5. cell metabolism is changed
236
Q

Adrenal cortex secretes […] while the adrenal medulla secretes […].

A

steroid hormones; catecholamines

237
Q

Cortisol control pathway:

A

CRH (hypothalamus) — ACTH — (anterior pituitary gland) — cortisol (adrenal cortex)

238
Q

Biosynthesis of cortosol:

A

steroid synthesized from cholesterol, so it is made on demand and not stored

239
Q

What is the target cell for the following:

Thyroid hormone = […]
Parathyroid hormone = […]
Growth hormone = […]

A

most cells in the body

kidney, bone, intestine

trophic on liver for insulin-like growth factor production; direct action on many cells

240
Q

Thyroid hormone whole body/tissue reaction:

A
  1. increase in oxygen consumption
  2. protein catabolism (adults) anabolism (kids)
  3. normal development of nervous system
241
Q

What is the control pathway of the thyroid hormone?

A

TRH (hypothalamus — TSH (anterior pituitary) — T3 + T4 — deiodinates in tissues to form more T3

242
Q

Feedback regulation of thyroid hormone:

A

free T3 and T4

NFB on anterior pituitary and hypothalamus

243
Q

What is the control pathway of hGH?

A

GHRH, SOM (hypothalamus) — growth hormone (anterior pituitary)

244
Q

Growth hormone target cells or tissues:

A

trophic on liver for insulin-like growth factor production

245
Q

Whole body/tissue reaction of hGH:

A
  1. bone and cartilage growth
  2. soft tissue growth
  3. increase of plasma glucose
246
Q

Whole body/tissue reaction to PTH:

A

increase in plasma calcium

247
Q

Feedback regulation of PTH:

A

NFB by increased plasma Ca2+

248
Q

Basic endocrin pathway:

A

hormone receptors — FBL — cellular responses

249
Q

The adrenal cortex secretes:

A
  1. glucocorticoids
  2. sex steroids
  3. aldosterone
250
Q

Cortisol is a […] hormone. Its secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic […] and […] from the pituitary.

A

steroid; CRH; ACTH

251
Q

Is cortisol catabolic or anabolic?

252
Q

Cortisol promotes what three processes?

A
  1. gluconeogenesis (breakdown of skeletal muscles and adipose tissues)
  2. Ca2+ excretion
  3. suppression of the immune system
253
Q

Hypercortisolism usually results from a […] or therapeutic administration of the […]. […] disease is hyposecretion of all […] steroids.

A

tumor; hormone; Addison’s; adrenal

254
Q

Thyroid hormones are made from…

A

tyrosine and iodine

255
Q

Explain the process of thyroid hormone synthesis:

A

thyroxine (T4) is converted in target tissues to more active hormone triiodothyronine (T3)

256
Q

Are thyroid hormones essential for life?

A

no but they influence metabolic rate

257
Q

What organ secretes the growth hormone?

A

anterior pituitary

258
Q

Release of the growth hormone stimulates the secretion of […] from the liver and other tissues.

A

insulin-like growth factors (IGFs)

259
Q

What do IGFs do?

A

promote bone and soft tissue growth

260
Q

Bone is composed of […] crystals attached to a […] support.

A

hydroxyapatite; collagenous

261
Q

[…] synthesize bone. […] synthesize cartilage.

A

osteoblasts; chondrocytes

262
Q

Calcium acts as…

A
  1. intracellular signal for second messenger pathways
  2. exocytosis
  3. muscle contraction
  4. cell junctions
  5. coagulation
  6. neural function
263
Q

Ca2+ homeostasis balances…

A
  1. dietary intake
  2. urinary output
  3. distribution among bone/cells/ECF
264
Q

Decreased plasma Ca2+ stimulates […] secretion by the […] glands.

A

parathyroid hormone (PTH); parathyroid

265
Q

PTH promotes Ca2+ […] in the bone, renal, intestine.

A

resorption

266
Q

Variables that are regulated to maintain homeostasis include:

A
  1. temperature
  2. pH
  3. ion concentrations
  4. oxygen
  5. water
267
Q

Dynamic steady-state:

A

maintaining homeostasis that is not identical in composition

268
Q

Local control:

A

the simplest homeostatic control that takes places at the tissue or cell level

269
Q

Reflex pathways can be broken down into…

A

1, response loops

2. FBL

270
Q

Regulated variables that change in a predictable manner are called […]. Those that coincide with light/dark cycles are called […].

A

biological rhythms; circadian rhythms

271
Q

Blind study:

A

subjects do not know whether they are receiving treatment or placebo

272
Q

Double-blind study:

A

third party removed and only knows which group is the experimental/control

273
Q

Crossover study:

A

control group in the first half becomes the experimental in the second half

274
Q

Meta-analysis:

A

data combines data from many studies to look for trends

275
Q

What are the four methods of cell-to-cell communication?

A
  1. direct cytoplasm transfer through gap junctions
  2. contact-dependent signaling
  3. local chemical communication
  4. long distance communication
276
Q

Gap junctions are […] channels that connect two […] cells. When they are open, […] signals are pass directly from one cell to the next.

A

protein; adjacent; chemical/electrical

277
Q

Contact-dependent signaling requires […] contact between two cells.

278
Q

Local communication uses […] signals.

279
Q

Paracrine signals:

A

chemicals that act on cells close to the cell that secreted the paracrine

280
Q

Autocrine signals:

A

chemicals that act on the cell that secreted paracrine

281
Q

Long-distance communication uses […] molecules and […] signals in the nervous system, and […] in the endocrine system.

A

neurocrine; electrical; hormones

282
Q

Cytokines:

A

regulatory peptides that control cell developments, differentiation, and the immune response

283
Q

Cytokines serve under what control?

A

local and long-distance

284
Q

Lipophilic signal molecules bind with […] receptors, lipophobic signal molecules bind with […] receptors.

A

nuclear/cytoplasmic; membrane

285
Q

Signal transduction pathways activate […] or […] that create […] molecules.

A

protein kinases; amplifier enzymes; second messenger

286
Q

Singal pathways create intracellular […] that […] the original signal.

A

cascade; amplify

287
Q

G protein-coupled adenylyl cyclase cAMP protein kinase A pathway is common for…

A

protein and peptide hormones

288
Q

In the G protein-coupled phospholipase C pathway, the amplifier enzyme […] creates 2 second messengers […] and […].

A

phospholipase C; IP3; DAG

289
Q

IP3 causes […] release from the intracellular stores. DAG activates […]

A

Ca 2+; protein kinase C

290
Q

Receptor enzymes activate protein kinases such as […] or the amplifier enzyme […]. Which produces the second messengers […].

A

tyrosine kinase; guanylyl cyclase; cGMP

291
Q

Integrin receptors…

A

link the extracellular matrix to the cytoskeleton

292
Q

Calcium binds to […] to alter enzyme activity.

A

calmodulin

293
Q

Down-regulation:

A

cell decreases the number of receptors

294
Q

Desensitization:

A

cell decreases the binding affinity of the receptors

295
Q

Up-regulation:

A

increases the number of receptors for a signal

296
Q

In reflex control pathways, who makes the decision to respond? What is done if the pathways continue?

A

integrating center

chemical or electrical signal to target cell/tissue

297
Q

Long-distance reflex pathways consist of what two systems?

A

endocrine and nervous system

**also cytokines

298
Q

What are the 4 postulates of homeostasis?

A
  1. the nervous system plays an important role
  2. parameters under tonic control
  3. parameters under antagonistic control
  4. chemical signals can have different effects in different tissues of the body (depends on receptor)
299
Q

Neurol control vs endocrine control

A

N: faster and more specific

E: long lasting and amplified

300
Q

Which GI layer consists of immune cells?

A

lamina propria

301
Q

Digestion:

A

chemical and mechanical breakdown into absorbable units

302
Q

Absorption:

A

transfer of substances from the lumen of the GI tract to the ECF

303
Q

Motility:

A

movement of material through the GI tract

304
Q

Secretion:

A

transfer of fluid and electrolytes from ECF to lumen or the release of substances from cells

305
Q

About […]L of the fluid per day enters the GI tract through the mouth. Another […] L of water, ions, and proteins are secreted by the body. […] is reabsorbed to maintain mass balance.

A

2; 7; all of it

306
Q

How does the GI protect itself against foreign invaders?

A

GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue); largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body

307
Q

GI tissue type:

A

smooth muslce

308
Q

Cells of the smooth muscle GI tract are […] connected by […]. These segments can be […] or […] contracted.

A

electrically; gap junctions; tonic; phasic

309
Q

Intestinal smooth muscle exhibits spontaneous […] potentials that originate in the […].

A

slow wave; interstitial cells of Cajal

310
Q

Migrating motor complex:

A

between meals this complex moves food remnants from the upper GI tract to the lower regions

311
Q

Peristaltic contractions are […] waves of contraction that mainly occur in the […]. Segmental contractions are […] contractions.

A

progressive; esophagus; mixing

312
Q

[…] neurons lie completely within the ENS.

A

intrinsic neurons

313
Q

GI: Short reflexes originate in the […] and are integrated […]. Long reflexes may originate in the […] and are integrated by the […].

A

ENS; there; ENS or outside; CNS

314
Q

Parasympathetic innervation is […] for GI function. Sympathetic innervation is […].

A

excitatory; inhibitory

Physiology (3 decks)

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