Exam IV: Pheo, Spleen, Syndromes Flashcards

1
Q

what is a pheochromocytoma

A

Catecholamine secreting tumor from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal system

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2
Q

Chromaffin cells produce ______ and ______

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

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3
Q

Pheo can be _______

A

lethal

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4
Q

Pheo resection in the OR can ______ _______

A

cure HTN

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5
Q

Pheos found equally in _____ & ______

A

males and females

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6
Q

usually in adults ___-___ years but ___% in children

A

30-50 years
10%

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7
Q

Familial pheo can be part of ______ _____ ______ (_____) Syndrome

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplastic (MEN)

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8
Q

Almost _____% of MEN II pts have or will have a pheo

A

100

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9
Q

pheo - ____% in the adrenal medulla

A

80%

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10
Q

pheo can be _____ or _____

A

malignant or benign

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11
Q

pheo can secrete _____ and/or _____

A

NE and/or epi

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12
Q

Most common pheos secrete norepi:epi at a ____:____ ratio. Normal (non-pheo) numbers are _______.

A

85:15
reversed

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13
Q

most pheos secrete without ______ control

A

neurogenic

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14
Q

pheo symptoms occur _____ to ______ times a day - a few minutes to several hours

A

infrequently to several

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15
Q

pheo hallmark symptom

A

HTN (test question)

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16
Q

other pheo symptoms:

A
  • HA
  • sweating
  • pallor
  • palpitations
  • orthostatic HoTN
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17
Q

pheo norepi effects: increased ______ and ______ with reflex _______ (alpha agonist)

A

SBP and DBP
bradycardia

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18
Q

pheo epi effects: increased _____ and decreased ______, tachycardia (____ agonist)

A

SBP
DBP
beta

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19
Q

pheo - increased _____, normal CO, slightly decreased ____ _____

A

SVR
plasma volume

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20
Q

pheo - cardiomyopathy usually _____

A

LV

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21
Q

pheo EKG changes - _____ changes, flat/inverted T waves, prolonged _____, peaked _____ waves, L axis deviation, dysrhythmias

A

ST
QT
P

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22
Q

pheo - increased _____ d/t _____ insulin release

A

BG
inhibited

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23
Q

Pheo - Diagnosis

24 hr _____ ______ and catecholamines

A

urine metanephrines

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24
Q

Pheo - Diagnosis

most sensitive test

A

plasma free metanephrines

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25
Pheo - Diagnosis Normetanephrine (norepinephrine metabolite) >_____ pg/mL and/or
400
26
Pheo - Diagnosis Metanephrine (epinephrine metabolite) >_____ pg/mL
220
27
Pheo - Diagnosis If questionable results: ______ ______ test or _____ ______ test (if DBP <100)
Clonidine suppression glucagon stimulation
28
Pheo - Diagnosis location found by
- CT - MRI - PET
29
Pheo - Diagnosis functionality by ______ (concentrates in catecholamine-secreting tumors)
MIBG
30
Pheo - Diagnosis catecholamine samples from _____ _____ (cath lab procedure)
adrenal vein
31
Pheo - Diagnosis differentials - must differentiate from 3 other pathologies
- MH - thyroid storm - carcinoid crisis
32
Pheo - Diagnosis * Catecholamines produced by pheos are metabolized within ______ cells. So plasma free metanephrine levels are ____ _____ for diagnosing a pheo than plasma epi and norepi levels.
chromaffin more accurate
33
Reminder: Most pheos secrete ↑ _____ ( ___ _____ ).
norepi (α-agonist)
34
____-blockade to ↓ BP, ↑ volume, prevent HTN episodes, re-sensitize receptors, ↓ myocardial dysfunction
α
35
Most common: ______ (____) – non-competitive, non-selective (α1 and α2 ) irreversible α-blocker
Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline®
36
overtreatment of a pheo can lead to _____ ______
orthostatic hypotension
37
D/C alpha blockade ____-____ hours pre-op to avoid refractory hypotension
24-48
38
Prazosin (Minipress®) & doxazosin (Cardura®) - ____ ____ blocker, shorter acting, less tachycardia, easier to titrate
pure α1
39
Treat phenoxybenzamine-induced tachycardia with:
non-selective β-blockade (usually propranolol; also atenolol, metoprolol, labetalol).
40
EXTREME CAUTION with ___-blockade before ___-blockade
β α (β2 blockade leads to unopposed α effects which causes vasoconstriction and HTN crisis)
41
Other adjuncts: Metyrosine (tyrosine inhibitor causes blocked catecholamine synthesis), ____ channel blockers, ____ inhibitors
Ca++ ACE
42
primary intra-op goals of pheo:
Avoid catecholamine release (drugs, stimulation*) Maintain CV stability with short-acting drugs *Think about laryngoscopy, incision, light anesthesia, emergence…
43
Ligation of tumor-related vessels leads to _____ ______
significant HoTN
44
Standard monitoring + ____ ____ (consider CVP, PA cath, TEE)
arterial line
45
pheo - intra op you must avoid ______
hypovolemia
46
avoid drugs with known ____ effects:
CV MSO4, atracurium, atropine, sux, pancuronium, ephedrine, ketamine
47
______ ______ most common approach but insufflation and tumor manipulation causes HTN.
Laparoscopic adrenalectomy
48
_____ ______ required for large tumors
open excision
49
Common with pheo: ____ ____ intra-op regardless of pre-op α-blockade
SBP >200
50
Have _____, ____-____ drugs prepared and ready for pheo intra-op
potent, rapid-onset
51
_____ is drug of choice; phentolamine, NTG, labetolol, MgSO4, esmolol, diltiazem.
Nipride
52
↑ anesthetic depth leads to ↑ risk of hypotension with ____ _____
venous ligation
53
Lidocaine and/or β-blockers (propranolol, esmolol) for _____ _____
ventricular dysrhythmias
54
Common: SBP ____ after venous ligation Pre-treat with crystalloids; pressors and inotropes if needed.
< 80
55
avoid ____ ____ blood because it's high in ______
cell saver catecholamines
56
after pheo resection, increased _____ and decreased _____. Begin _____ solution after resection
insulin glucose dextrose
57
With complete resection, most pts eventually become _____tensive.
normo
58
Plasma catecholamines levels do not normalize for __-__ days.
7-10
59
Approx 50% will be hypertensive for ____ _____; approx. 25% remain hypertensive for ____.
several days life
60
Most frequent immediate post-op cause of death:
Hypotension d/t sudden ↓ catecholamines with refractory vasodilation. (treat with fluids and pressors if necessary)
61
steroids for ______
hypoadrenalism
62
Functions of the Spleen
Blood filtering, erythrocyte morphology, immunity related to blood-borne antigens
63
Hematopoiesis until the ___ _____ month
5th gestational
64
Macrophages engulf abnormal (SC dz, thalassemia, spherocytosis) and older (>120 days) blood cells which can lead to ____, _____, ______ ______.
anemia, splenomegaly, splenic infarction
65
Splenic macrophages, histiocytes and IgM play important roles in ______.
immunity
66
spleen - Minor role as red blood cell and platelet _____
reservoir
67
______ ______ done for hypersplenism, ITP, TTP, hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinopathies, malignancies, abscesses, cysts.
Elective splenectomies
68
Emergent splenectomies done for splenic _____.
trauma
69
The spleen receives ___% of cardiac output.
5
70
splenic bleeding is usually _____
arterial
71
Blunt abdominal trauma + ____ ____ _____ pain = high risk of splenic trauma (commonly from fractured ____)
left upper quadrant rib
72
splenectomy - Usually done ______ but with hemodynamic instability, ______ may be approach of choice.
laparoscopically laparotomy
73
for splenectomy, have _____ available
blood
74
Asplenic pts have increased risk for _____ processes (bacteremia, pneumonia, meningitis) and _____ for life.
infectious thromboembolism
75
Most carcinoid tumors occur in the
bronchus, jejunum/ileum or colon/rectum.
76
carcinoid tumors secrete ___ ____ and ____ substances that may or may not cause symptoms.
GI peptides vasoactive
77
large amounts cause
carcinoid syndrome
78
carcinoid syndrome symptoms
- flushing - diarrhea (can also have pruritus, tearing, and facial edema)
79
carcinoid syndrome precipitated by:
stress, ETOH, exercise, diet, drugs (catecholamines, SSRIs)
80
Serotonin antagonists used for ______; H1/H2 blockers for ______ and _______.
diarrhea flushing and pruritus
81
carcinoid syndrome can cause life threatening ______ ______
carcinoid crisis
82
CC symptoms:
flushing, diarrhea, abd pain, and CV instability
83
CC can be precipitated by:
sux, benzylisoquinolines (except cisatracurium), catecholamines, dopamine, isuprel, thiopental
84
Preventing/Treating Carcinoid Syndrome Avoid _____ conditions. may need ___/_____
precipitating diet/supplements
85
Preventing/Treating Carcinoid Syndrome _____ antagonists, ______ analogues, ___/___ blockers S-statin analogues (octreotide, lanreotide) for 24-48 hrs pre-op and continued throughout procedure.
5-HT3 somatostatin H1/H2
86
Preventing/Treating Carcinoid Syndrome Only cure: _____ _____ of the carcinoid tumor
Surgical excision
87
Preventing/Treating Carcinoid Syndrome GA with art line, epidural with monitoring if treated pre-op with ______.
octreotide
88
Preventing/Treating Carcinoid Syndrome May have delayed awakening d/t:
↑ serotonin levels.
89
Fibromyalgia Widespread MSK pain with _____, _____, ______ and mood issues
fatigue, sleep, memory
90
Fibromyalgia Current theory: Repeated _____ _____ causes increased neurotransmitters which leads to a hyperactive response to _____
painful stimuli pain
91
Fibromyalgia frequently associated with:
H/A, TMJ disorders, irritable bowel syndrome, anxiety, depression
92
Fibromyalgia _____ more than _____, no ______. Treat with exercise, stress reduction, alternative medicine (acupuncture, massage therapy, yoga), meds (NSAIDS, anti-depressants, gabapentinoids).
females males cure
93
Fibromyalgia ______ (____): 1st FDA approved drug for fibromyalgia
Pregabalin (Lyrica®)
94
Sarcoidosis Autoimmune, interstitial, granulomatous, usually in ____, ____, ____, ____, ______
lungs, lymphatics, bone, liver, CNS
95
Sarcoidosis ____ _____ lung dz causing dyspnea, cough, pulmonary HTN and cor pulmonale.
Chronic restrictive
96
Sarcoidosis Usually diagnosed by ______; many asymptomatic at time of diagnosis.
radiography
97
Sarcoidosis Common manifestations: _______ (uncontrolled synthesis of a vitamin D3 enzyme by macrophages) and ____ ____ _____ (neurosarcoidosis, parotid gland)
Hypercalcemia facial nerve paralysis
98
Sarcoidosis biopsy done with _______
mediastinoscopy
99
Sarcoidosis Treatment: ______ for symptoms and hypercalcemia
Corticosteroids
100
Sarcoidosis AIs: Pts have poor tolerance to apnea d/t ____ _____. Keep PIPs as low as possible to minimize ______ risks.
small FRC barotrauma
101
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Multisystem, chronic inflammatory, caused by _____ _____
antibody production
102
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Usually _____ _____, exacerbated by ______ (surgery, pregnancy, infection)
young females stressors
103
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Can be drug induced (usually... 5)
procainamide, hydralazine, isoniazid, penicillamine, methyldopa
104
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus symptoms
Arthralgias, maculopapular (butterfly) rash, fever, anemia, leukopenia
105
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus _____ and/or hypertension worsens prognosis.
Nephritis
106
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Systemic involvement: CNS, _____, _____, ______, liver, hematologic, MSK and skin
heart, lungs, kidneys
107
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Treatment based on systems affected and symptoms with:
ASA, NSAIDs, chemo, steroids
108
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus AIs: Consider organ dysfunction, _____ neck, ____ _____ nerve palsy, drugs
arthritic recurrent laryngeal
109
Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis) _____/______ dz causes inflammation, vascular sclerosis, fibrosis of skin and organs
Collagen/autoimmune
110
Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis) Vascular injury leads to leaking proteins causing _____ and ______ in skin, MSK, CNS, CV, lungs, kidneys, GI tract
edema and fibrosis
111
Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis) Can become _____ _____ (Calcinoses, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Esophageal hypomotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasis) with poor prognosis.
CREST syndrome
112
Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis) CV: Conduction, contractility, ____ ____ HTN, cor pulmonale (Consider eval pre-op.)
pulm artery
113
Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis) Lungs: May need ↑ _____, acidosis/hypoxia leading to increased pulm VR, sensitive to _____
PIPs opioids
114
Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis) Renal: HTN, irreversible renal failure (Tx: ____ _____)
ACE inhibitors
115
Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis) GI: ↓ motility, dysphagia, GERD, Vit K malabsorption causing coag problems (Tx: ______. ______ ineffective.)
Octreotide Prokinetics
116
Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis) _______: Oral/nasal bleeding with intubation
Telangiectasis
117
Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis) Skin: Difficult ____ _____, peripheral vasoconstriction causes ______ in OR
IV access hypothermia
118
Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis) _______ may be difficult but can be advantageous (peripheral vasodilation, opioid sparing).
Regional
119
What is Porphyria?
A group of inborn errors of metabolism resulting from a specific enzyme deficiency in the heme synthetic pathway causing overproduction of porphyrins
120
Heme is a ______
porphyrin
121
Binds with proteins to make _______ and ______ ______ isoenzymes
hemoglobin and cytochrome P-450
122
Heme production is regulated by _____ _____ (___) ______
aminolevulinic acid (ALA) synthetase
123
ALA is easily ______ by drugs using P-450 system
induced
124
With porphyria, ↑ _____ requirements causes _____ stimulation which leads to accumulated ______ (compounds preceding the site of the deficiency)
heme ALA intermediates
125
porphyria classified as ______ or ______; acute and non-acute
hepatic or erythropoietic
126
only forms of porphyria relevant for anesthesia
acute
127
certain drugs cause _____-_____ _____
life-threatening reaction
128
acute porphyrias are inherited, _____ dominant
autosomal
129
acute porphyrias more frequent in women in there ____s or ____s, and is rare after ______
30s or 40s menopause
130
acute porphyrias are also triggered by ____
stress (childbirth, fasting, dehydration, illness, infection)
131
acute porphyrias (4)
- plumboporphyria - acute intermittent porphyria - hereditary coproporphyria - variegate porphyria
132
“Silent” or “latent” porphyria pts may show ____ _______after perioperative triggering drugs.
1st symptoms
133
porphyria - ______ “inducers” more high risk than _____ exposure
Multiple single
134
porphyria avoid list
Barbiturates (thiopental, methohexital), sevoflurane (?), etomidate (?), pentazocine (Talwin), ephedrine (?), ketamine (?), traditional seizure meds
135
porphyria - acute exacerbation symptoms
Skeletal muscle weakness, HTN, tachycardia, abdominal pain, seizures, electrolyte imbalance (especially hyponatremia)
136
porphyria - NPO status can trigger. Consider _____ _____
glucose IVF
137
porphyria - Rule out acute crisis with _____ _______ (____) level.
urine porphobilinogen (PBG)
138
Short acting drugs tolerated well; avoid _____ _____. (Total dose and length of exposure ↑ risk of triggering.)
propofol infusion
139
porphyria - Regional OK after careful _____ assessment.
neuro
140
drugs that are OK for porphyria
N2O, isoflurane, desflurane, opioids, benzos, MRs OK.
141
treating acute porphyria crisis:
- Stop any possible triggers - Fluid/glucose loading, monitor electrolytes - Consider analgesics, anti-emetics, β-blockers, benzodiazapines or propofol for seizures - Heme (arginate) infusion, somatostatin (Octreotide®) to ↓ ALA synthetase, plasmapheresis