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KCUMB Embryology > EXAM III Qs > Flashcards

EXAM III Qs Flashcards

1
Q

The cell bodies of the motoneurons of a spinal nerve arise from the:

a. Basal plate
b. Marginal zone
c. Floor plate
d. Roof plate
e. Alar plate

A

Basal plate

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2
Q

An infant with a tuft of hair over the lumbar region of the vertebral column undergoes surgery for a congenital anomaly in that region. During surgery, it was found that the dura and arachnoid layers over the spinal cord were complete, but that the neural arches of several vertebrae were missing. What condition did the infant have?

a. Meningocele
b. Meningomyelocele
c. Encephalocele
d. Spina bifida occulta
e. Rachischisis

A

Spina bifida occulta

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3
Q

Complete failure of the neural tube to close in the region of the spinal cord is:

a. Spina bifida occulta
b. Meningocele
c. Cranioschisis
d. Rachischisis
e. Myelomeningocele

A

Rachischisis

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4
Q

Which of these cell and tissue types arises from cranial, but not trunk, neural crest cells?

a. Sensory ganglia
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Melanocytes
d. Schwann cells
e. None of the above

A

None of the above

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5
Q

Which molecule is a poor substrate for migrating neural crest cells?

a. Laminin
b. Chondroitin sulfate
c. Fibronectin
d. Type IV collagen
e. Hyaluronic acid

A

Chondroitin sulfate

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6
Q

Neural crest cells arise from the:

a. Somite
b. Dorsal non-neural ectoderm
c. Neural tube
d. Splanchnic mesoderm
e. Yolk sac endoderm

A

Neural tube

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7
Q

A 6-month old infant exhibits multiple congenital defects, including a cleft palate, deafness, ocular hypertelorism, and a white forelock but otherwise dark hair on his head. The probable cause is:

a. CHARGE association
b. von Recklinghausen’s disease
c. Hirshcprung’s disease
d. Waardenburg’s syndrome
e. None of the above

A

Waardenburg’s syndrome

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8
Q

What molecule is involved in the migration of neural crest cells from the neural tube?

a. Slug
b. BMP-2
c. Mash 1
d. NEpi
e. Glial growth factor

A

Slug

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9
Q

Which is not a derivative of the neural crest?

a. Sensory neurons
b. Motoneurons
c. Schwann cells
d. Adrenal medulla
e. Dental papilla

A

Motoneurons

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10
Q

What maintains the competence of neural crest cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons?

a. Shh
b. Ach
c. Mash 1
d. Glial growth factor
e. TGF-beta

A

Mash 1

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11
Q

If trunk neural crest cells are transplanted into the cranial region, they can form all of the following types of cells except:

a. Pigment cells
b. Schwann cells
c. Sensory neurons
d. Cartilage
e. Autonomic neurons

A

Cartilage

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12
Q

What molecule produced by the notochord is instrumental in inducing the floor plate of the neural tube?

a. Hoxa-5
b. RA
c. Pax-3
d. Msx-1
e. Shh

A

Shh

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13
Q

Growth cones adhere strongly to a substrate containing:

a. Ach
b. Laminin
c. Epi
d. NEpi
e. Shh

A

Laminin

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14
Q

Rhombomeres are segmental divisions of the:

a. Forebrain
b. Midbrain
c. Hindbrain
d. Spinal cord
e. None of the above

A

Hindbrain

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15
Q

Rathke’s pouch arises from the:

a. Diencephalon
b. Stomodeal ectoderm
c. Mesencephalon
d. Pharyngeal endoderm
e. Infundibulum

A

Stomodeal ectoderm

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16
Q

Neural crest-derived cells constitute a significant component of which tissue of the eye?

a. Neural retina
b. Lens
c. Optic nerve
d. Cornea
e. None of the above

A

Cornea

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17
Q

The otic placode arises through an inductive message given off by the:

a. Telencephalon
b. Rhombencephalon
c. Infundibulum
d. Diencephalon
e. Mesencephalon

A

Rhombencephalon

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18
Q

What molecule plays a role in guidance of advancing retinal axons through the optic nerve?

a. Pax-2
b. FGF-3
c. BMP-4
d. Pax-6
e. BMP-7

A

Pax-2

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19
Q

Surface ectoderm is induced to become corneal epithelium by an inductive event originating in the:

a. Optic cup
b. Chordamesoderm
c. Optic vesicle
d. Lens vesicle
e. Neural retina

A

Lens vesicle

20
Q

The facial nerve (CN VII) supplies muscles derived from which pharyngeal arch?

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
e. Six

A

Second

21
Q

Cleft lip results from lack of fusion of the:

a. Nasomedial and nasolateral processes
b. Nasomedial and maxillary processes
c. Nasolateral and maxillary processes
d. Nasolateral and mandibular processes
e. Nasomedial and mandibular processes

A

Nasomedial and maxillary processes

22
Q

In cases of holoprosencephaly, defects of facial structures are typically secondary to defects of the:

a. Pharynx
b. Oral cavity
c. Forebrain
d. Eyes
e. Hindbrain

A

Forebrain

23
Q

Meckel’s cartilage is a prominent structure in the early formation of the:

a. Upper jaw
b. Hard palate
c. Nasal septum
d. Soft palate
e. Lower jaw

A

Lower jaw

24
Q

An early induction in tooth development consists of the ectoderm of the dental epithelium acting on the underlying neural crest mesenchyme. Which of the following molecules is an important mediator of the inductive stimulus?

a. BMP-4
b. Tenascin
c. Hoxb-13
d. Msx-1
e. Syndecan

A

BMP-4

25
Q

Shaping of the snout involves the ear of a gradient between which of the following pairs of signals?

a. FGF-8 and Edn-1
b. Hox and pax
c. TGF-2 and BMP-4
d. FGF-8 and shh

A

FGF-8 and shh

26
Q

In craniofacial development, segmentation of the cranial tubes results in expression of which of the following?

a. Sox
b. BMP
c. Hox
d. TGF

A

Hox

27
Q

Except for the pharyngeal muscles, pharyngeal arch mesoderm is derived from which of the following:

a. Neural crest
b. Somitomeres
c. Paraxial mesoderm
d. Parachordal mesoderm

A

Neural crest

28
Q

In molar development induction of secondary enamel knots, by the primary enamel knots followed by apoptosis of primary enamel knot is associated with which of the following:

a. Formation of future molar cusps
b. Induction of ameoloblast layer
c. Induction of odontoblast layer
d. Formation of dental sac

A

Formation of future molar cusps

29
Q

At which of the following stages of tooth development does both the ameoloblast and odontoblast appear together?

a. Tooth bud stage
b. Cap stage
c. Bell stage
d. Dental sac stage

A

Bell stage

30
Q

Which of the following is necessary for the tooth development to continue past the bud stage?

a. BMP-4
b. Shh
c. FGF-8
d. Pax9

A

Pax-9

31
Q

Which of the following abnormalities of tooth development is characterized by teeth that appear blue grey or amber brown and are opalescent and may be caused by mutations in type I collagen?

Dentinogenegis imperfecta

A

Dentinogenegis imperfecta

32
Q

Muscle of facial expression are innervated by cranial nerve seven, which pharyngeal arch?

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth

A

Second

33
Q

The malleus of the middle ear in mammals is derived from which of the following former jaw articulation bones?

a. Columella
b. Meckels cartilage
c. Quadrate
d. Articular

A

Articular

34
Q

Which bone forms around Meckels cartilage

a. Mandible
b. Malleus
c. Stapes
d. Incus

A

Mandible

35
Q

Which of the following develops from the third pharyngeal arch in response to high concentrations of shh?

a. Thyroid
b. Superior parathyroid
c. Thymus
d. Inferior parathyriod

A

Inferior parathyroid

36
Q

The auditory tube is derived from which pharyngeal pouch?

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth

A

First

37
Q

Calcitonin cells in the thyroid gland are derived from which of the following?

a. Ventral midline of gut endoderm
b. Third pharyngeal pouch
c. Fourth pharyngeal pouch
d. Rathkes pouch

A

Fourth pharyngeal pouch

38
Q

The second pharyngeal arch contributes to the:

a. Cochlea and earlobe
b. Auditory tube and incus
c. Stapes and earlobe
d. Auditory tube and stapes
e. Otic vesicle and stapes

A

Stapes and earlobe

39
Q

In cases of holoprosencephaly, defects of facial structures are typically secondary to defects of the:

a. Pharynx
b. Oral cavity
c. Forebrain
d. Eyes
e. Hindbrain

A

Forebrain

40
Q

Which of the following does not connect directly with the primary nephric (mesonephric) duct?

a. Metanephros
b. Cloaca
c. Nephrotomes
d. Mesonephric tubules
e. Ureteric bud

A

Metanephros

41
Q

Which association is correct?

a. Potter’s facies and hydramnios
b. Urachal fistula and hydramnios
c. Horseshoe kidney and superior mesenteric artery
d. GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema
e. Bilateral renal agenesis and compensatory hypertrophy

A

GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema

42
Q

Which defect is strongly associated with oligohydramnios?

a. Pelvic kidney
b. Renal agenesis
c. Horseshoe kidney
d. Crossed ectopia
e. Polycystic kidney

A

Renal agenesis

43
Q

Which anomaly is most closely associated with exstrophy of the bladder?

a. Epispadias
b. Renal agenesis
c. Anal atresia
d. Pelvic kidney
e. Ectopic ureteral orifice

A

Epispadias

44
Q

The uterus arises from the:

a. Paramesonephric ducts
b. Urogenital sinus
c. Mesonephric tubules
d. Pronephric ducts
e. Mesonephric ducts

A

Paramesonephric ducts

45
Q

The floor of the penile urethra in the male is homologous to what structure in the female?

a. Clitoris
b. Trigone of the bladder
c. Labia majora
d. Labia minora
e. Perineum

A

Labia minora

46
Q

The metanephrogenic blastema is induced by the:

a. Pronephric duct
b. Ureteric bud
c. Mesonephric tubules
d. Allantois
e. Mesonephric duct

A

Ureteric bud

KCUMB Embryology (4 decks)

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