Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

KCUMB Embryology > EXAM III Final > Flashcards

EXAM III Final Flashcards

1
Q

Weaver and reeler mutations are involved in the layering of the brain cortex (6 layers of gray matter). It has been shown that a weaver mutant causes behavioral defects related to abnormal cerebellum function. What is the morphological basis for the weaver mutant?

a. Absence of normal cortical layering
b. Abnormal migration of radial glial cells that normally form granular layer or cerebellar cortex
c. Abnormal migration of astrocytes that normally form granular layer or cerebellar cortex
d. Abnormal migration of radial glial cells that normally form cortical layer of cerebellar cortex

A

Abnormal migration of RADIAL GLIAL CELLS that normally make up the GRANULAR LAYER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Weaver and reeler mutations are involved in the layering of the brain cortex (6 layers of gray matter). It has been shown that a reeler mutant causes behavioral defects related to abnormal cerebellum function. What is the morphological basis for the reeler mutant?

a. Absence of normal cortical layering
b. Abnormal migration of radial glial cells that normally form granular layer or cerebellar cortex
c. Abnormal migration of astrocytes that normally form granular layer or cerebellar cortex
d. Abnormal migration of radial glial cells that normally form cortical layer of cerebellar cortex

A

Absence of normal cortical layering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the relation of reelin to reeler during the development of the brain cortex?

A

It has been shown that an extracellular protein Reelin is defective in the reeler mutant

Reelin = stop signal for radial neuronal migration or insertional signal for migrating neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define Rachischisis; what is it associated with?

A

Closure defect of the spinal cord

Chronic infection, motor and sensory defects and disturbances in bladder function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the primary defect in spina bifida occulta, meningocele and myelomeningocele? Characteristics of each?

A

Defect in the formation of bony covering over the spinal cord

Bifida occulta = spinal cord and meninges in place, incomplete neural arch covering (tuft of hair)

Meningocele = missing dura mater, arachnoid space bulges out

Myelomeningocele = spinal cord bulges or entirely displaced into the protruding subarachnoid space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following are the major derivatives of the diencephalon?

a. Epithalamus, Thalamus and pons
b. Epithalamus, Hypothalamus and pons
c. Epithalamus, Thalamus and Hypothalamus
d. Cerebellum, Thalamus and pons

A

C. Epithalamus, thalamus and hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The forebrain contains three patterning centers, which signal is used for the rostral patterning center? (rostral, dorsal, ventral)

a. Shh
b. Hox
c. Shh
d. BMPs and Wnts
e. FGF-8

A

E. FGF-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The forebrain contains three patterning centers, which signal is used for the dorsal patterning center?

a. Shh
b. Hox
c. Shh
d. BMPs and Wnts
e. FGF-8

A

D. BMPs and Wnts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The forebrain contains three patterning centers, which signal is used for the ventral patterning center?

a. Shh
b. Hox
c. Shh
d. BMPs and Wnts
e. FGF-8

A

A. Shh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The topographical arrangement of the myelencephalon is almost identical to the spinal cord. What is the major topographical change?

A

Pronounced expansion of the roof plate to form the thin roof over the fourth ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Expression of which set of genes seems to be responsible for the differentiation of specific nuclei in the myelencephalon?

a. Shh
b. Hox
c. Shh
d. BMPs and Wnts
e. FGF-8

A

Hox genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Epithelial-mesenchymal transformations.
While in the neural tube, neural crest cells are epithelial. Which of the following factors are involved in breaking free of the neural tube?

a. BMPs and Wnts
b. Snail-1, Snail-2, and Foxd3
c. Gbx-2, Msx-1,2, and Pax-3,7
d. FGF-8 and Wnts
e. All of the above

A

Snail-1, Snail-2, Wnts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Neural crest cells undergo 3 migratory pathways; ventral, ventralateral, and dorsolateral. The pathways result in formation of many components of the NS. Which of the following do neural crest cells NOT form?

a. Melanocytes
b. Spinal ganglia and Schwann cells
c. Motor neurons
d. Adrenal chromaffin cells
e. Sympathetic ganglion

A

Motor neurons

Sympathetic ganglion and adrenal chromaffin cells (ventral)
Spinal ganglia and Schwann cells (ventralateral)
Melanocytes (dorsolateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Neural crest cells are not always irreversibly fixed along a single pathway. If neural crest cells from the trunk/thoracic are transplanted into the head, what normal derivatives are not formed?

a. Cartilage or skeletal elements
b. Adrenergic Sympathetic neurons
c. Cholinergic parasympathetic neurons
d. Melanocytes

A

Cartilage or skeletal elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which rhombomeres do the neural crest cells arise from that make up the vagal crest?
Innervation for what organ?
Where does it arise from and exit?

A

R4-7

Make up vagal crest and form parasympathetic innervation for digestive tract

Arise from the circumpharyngeal crest and exit S1-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which somites does the circumpharyngeal neural crest arise from?
Which PA do they pass behind?
Which CN do they provide a pathway for?

A

S1-7

Pharyngeal arch 6

Cells migrate ventrally and then cranially to provide pathway for CN XII and related musculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which factor maintains the competence of neural cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons?

a. Slit-2
b. Mash-1
c. Noggin
d. Chordin
e. Shh

A

Mash-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is caused by Pax-3 mutations, involves various combinations of pigmentation defects (commonly a white stripe in the hair and other pigment anomalies in the skin), deafness, cleft palate, and ocular hypertelorism?

a. Waardenburg’s syndrome
b. CHARGE
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Neurofibromas
e. Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Waardenburg’s syndrome - white forelock/stripe in hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following includes defects of the trunk and cranial neural crest which involves coloboma, heart disease, atresia of nasal choanae, retardation of development, genital hypoplasia in males, and anomalies of the ear?

a. Waardenburg’s syndrome
b. CHARGE
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Neurofibromas/Von Recklinghausen’s disease
e. Hirschsprung’s disease

A

CHARGE - coloboma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is associated with a deletion on chromosome 22 that encompasses up to 15 genes, characterized by hypoplasia and reduced function of the thymus, thyroid, and parathyroid glands and cardiovascular defects, including persistent truncus arteriosus and abnormalities of the aortic arches?

a. Waardenburg’s syndrome
b. CHARGE
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Neurofibromas/Von Recklinghausen’s disease
e. Hirschsprung’s disease

A

DiGeorge syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is a common genetic disease manifested by multiple tumors of neural crest origin, with characteristics of cafe au lait spots (light brown pigmented lesions) on the skin, multiple peripheral nerve tumors, and occasional gigantism of a limb/digit?

a. Waardenburg’s syndrome
b. CHARGE
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Neurofibromas/Von Recklinghausen’s disease
e. Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Neurofibromas/Von Recklinghausen’s disease - peripheral nerve tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The preplacodal region encircles the cranial plate and is often induced by cranial mesoderm and neural tube, which of the following pathways are activated during this induction?

a. FGF activation and Wnt and BMP inhbition
b. Wnt activation and FGF and BMP inhibition
c. BMP activation and FGF and Wnt inhibition
d. FGF and Wnt activation and BMP inhibition
e. FGF and BMP activation and Wnt inhibition

A

FGF activation and Wnt and BMP inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BMP concentration is a major factor in the induction in placodes. What forms in the area with the greatest BMP concentration?

a. Placodes
b. Neural crest
c. Neural plate
d. Neural folds
e. Neural tube

A

Neural plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

BMP concentration is a major factor in the induction in placodes. What forms in the area with the least BMP concentration?

a. Placodes
b. Neural crest
c. Neural plate
d. Neural folds
e. Neural tube

A

Placodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

BMP concentration is a major factor in the induction in placodes. What forms in the area with the middle BMP concentration?

a. Placodes
b. Neural crest
c. Neural plate
d. Neural folds
e. Neural tube

A

Neural crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the formation of the optic stalk and what structures are continuous with what

Optic stalk
Optic vesicle
Choroid fissure
Hyaloid artery

A

Optic stalk = lateral evagination of diencephalon that enlarges distally to form optic vesicle

Optic vesicle asymmetrically invaginates w/ groove alongside

Groove = choroid fissure that’s continuous with optic stalk groove

Optic stalk groove is continuous with posterior chamber of eye

Hyaloid artery uses choroid fissure and optic stalk to pass into posterior chamber of eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What events occur in the development of the eye when Pax6 is not expressed?

A

Only early optic vesicle formation occurs, no eye formation

Optic vesicle is not able to induce the formation of the lens placode from the lens ectoderm

Prospective lens ectoderm doesn’t respond to optic vesicle induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following is important during the formation of the lens when the lens separate from the lens vesicle from surface ectoderm causing posterior cells to transform into lens fibers?

a. FGF, BMP
b. Pax6
c. Foxe3
d. Wnt

A

Foxe3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following induces the optic vesicle to induce the lens ectoderm to form the lens placode by way of FGF and BMP?

a. Pax6
b. Foxe3
c. Wnt
d. All of the above

A

Pax6 - downregulation by neural crest cells prevents formation of prospective lens in surrounding areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following is necessary for corneal induction?

a. Pax6
b. Foxe3
c. Wnt
d. FGF
e. BMP

A

Pax6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following during cornea development induces overlying ectoderm to transform from bilayered epithelium (simple cuboidal basal layer plus flattened periderm) to transparent multi-layered cornea?

a. Lens placode
b. Lens ectoderm
c. Neural crest
d. Lens vesicle
e. Neural plate

A

Lens vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

During the development of the retina, Shh stimulates which of the following to differentiate into the pigmented retina, which is the outer layer of the optic cup?

a. Otx2
b. BMP-4
c. Tbx-5
d. Vax-2
e. Eph

A

Otx2

Inner layer of the optic cup is the sensory layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Retinal polarity is fixed into a nasotemporal (anterior-posterior) and dorsoventral axis. Which of the following is associated with the establishment of the nasotemporal axis?

a. Shh, BMP, and Ventroptin
b. Shh and Otx2
c. Foxe3
d. Ephrins and receptors

A

Ephrins and receptors - nasotemporal axis is fixed first while dorsoventral is fixed second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Retinal polarity is fixed into a nasotemporal (anterior-posterior) and dorsoventral axis. Which of the following is associated with the establishment of the dorsoventral axis?

a. Shh, BMP, and Ventroptin
b. Shh and Otx2
c. Foxe3
d. Ephrins and receptors

A

Shh, BMP, and Ventroptin - nasotemporal axis is fixed first while dorsoventral is fixed second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is known as an absence of an eye resulting from a mutation in RAX, is very rare and can normally be attributed to lack of formation of the optic vesicle?

a. Anophthalmos
b. Microphthalamos
c. Coloboma
d. Congenital cataract
e. Cyclopia

A

Anophthalmos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following congenital malformation of the eye can range from an eyeball that is slightly smaller than normal to one that is almost vestigial.

a. Anophthalmos
b. Microphthalamos
c. Coloboma
d. Congenital cataract
e. Cyclopia

A

Microphthalamos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following congenital malformations of the eye is due to nonclosure of the choroid fissure of the iris during the 6-7th week? Individuals are sometimes sensitive to bright light.

a. Anophthalmos
b. Microphthalamos
c. Coloboma
d. Congenital cataract
e. Cyclopia

A

Coloboma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is an evagination from the roof of the stomodeal ectoderm and is the primordium for the anterior pituitary/adenohypophysis?

a. Thyroid
b. Trachea
c. Rathke’s pouch
d. Reichert’s cartilage
e. Meckel’s cartilage

A

Rathke’s pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A lack of which signaling molecule causes the first pharyngeal arch to develop into jaws?

a. BMP
b. Shh
c. Hox
d. Wnt

A

Hox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following is necessary to keep pharyngeal arch 2 from differentiating into arch 1 and forming the jaws?

a. BMP
b. Shh
c. Hoxa-2
d. Wnt

A

Hoxa-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

During craniofacial development, which of the following signaling molecules allows for the segmentation of cranial neural tube, which becomes carried over onto neural crest cells that give rise to neural crest tissue?

a. Wnt
b. BMP
c. Shh
d. Hox

A

Hox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following molecules induces the formation of the frontonasal ectodermal zone?

a. Shh
b. Hox
c. Wnt
d. BMP

A

Shh from the forebrain = dorsoventral gradient

Dorso = FGF-8
Ventral = Shh
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

For jaw primordia, neural crest are derived from which centers of the brain for the maxillary and mandibular processes?

A

Maxillary = forebrain and midbrain

Mandibular = hindbrain and midbrain

44
Q

What are the two process of the primordia of the palate?

A

Median palatine process = unpaired = premaxilla

Lateral palatine processes = paired = secondary plate

45
Q

Which of the following is a condensation of mesenchymal cells around the developing tooth which will form the cementum and periodontal ligament = jaw attachment?

a. Tooth bud
b. Enamel organ
c. Dental lamina
d. Dental sac

A

Dental sac

46
Q

Which of the following is necessary for tooth development to continue past the bud stage?

a. BMP-4
b. Shh
c. FGF-8
d. Pax-9
e. Msx-1, Msx-2

A

Pax-9

47
Q

Which of the following causes the formation of the future cusps of the molar?

a. Primary enamel knot
b. Secondary enamel knot
c. Pax-9
d. Hox

A

Secondary enamel knot

48
Q

Which of the following molecules is branching pattern of salivary glands highly dependent upon?

a. Shh
b. Hox
c. FGF
d. Wnt

A

Shh

49
Q

For salivary gland development, where does the signaling between Shh and FGF occur? One major difference compared to other types of glandular development.

a. Between the epithelium and mesenchyme
b. Within the epithelium
c. Outside of the epithelium
d. Within the endoderm

A

Within the epithelium

50
Q

Which of the following results from the lack of fusion of the maxillary and nasomedial process?

a. Cleft lip
b. Cleft palate
c. Holoprosencephaly
d. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
e. Amelogenesis imperfecta

A

Cleft lip

51
Q

Which of the following defects is based on the defective formation of the forebrain and include external facial malformations, with an extreme case of nose reduction defects, cyclopia (near absence of upper facial & midfacial tissue)

a. Cleft lip
b. Cleft palate
c. Holoprosencephaly
d. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
e. Amelogenesis imperfecta

A

Holoprosencephaly

52
Q

Which of the following is the main organizer for pharyngeal arch development?

a. Foregut endoderm
b. Midgut endoderm
c. Hindgut endoderm
d. Hindgut mesoderm

A

Foregut endoderm

53
Q

What two molecules are important in the formation of pharyngeal arches?

a. Hox and Shh
b. Pax and Wnt
c. Tbx1 and FGF8
d. FGF8 and Wnt
e. Shh and Tbx1

A

Tbx1 and FGF8

54
Q

What molecules cause the formation of the inferior parathyroids and the thymus?

A

Inferior parathyroid = Shh (pouch 3)

Thymus = BMP-4 (pouch 3)

55
Q

Which of the following becomes incorporated into thyroid as parafollicular (C) cells which secrete calcitonin?

a. Inferior parathyroid
b. Superior parathyroid
c. Postbranchial/ultimobranchial body
d. Thymus

A

Postbranchial/ultimobranchial body = 4th pouch

56
Q

What is the location of the thyroid in relation to the pharyngeal arches?

A

Between 1st and 2nd arches

Grows down into underlying mesenchyme as thyroid diverticulum and remains connected temporarily to the floor of the pharynx via thyroglossal duct

Opening of duct = foramen cecum (small pit at base of tongue)

57
Q

What are some characteristics of the pronephros?

A

Among the first kidneys to develop

Non-functional solid cords required for the remainder of the excretory system to develop

58
Q

The induction of the pronephric ducts requires many molecules, what is the primary inducer and what molecules determine the craniocaudal limits of early urinary system?

a. RA, Hox 4-11
b. RA, Pax 3 and 7
c. Shh, Hox 4-11
d. Shh, Pax 3 and 7

A

RA and Hox 4-11

59
Q

During the induction of the pronephric ducts, which molecule causes the aggregation of mesenchymal cells in the intermediate mesoderm into pronephric ducts by way of Pax-2 and Pax-8?

a. RA
b. Hox 4-11
c. Lim-1
d. Foxe3
e. Wt-1

A

Lim-1; formed by TFs Pax-2,8 via Hox 4-11

60
Q

Which of the following is the functional kidney in most vertebrate embryos?

a. Pronephros
b. Mesonephros
c. Metanephros
d. Renal tubules

A

Mesonephros; caudal to the pronephros containing mesonephric tubules

61
Q

During which week of gestation does each mesonephric duct form a ureteric bud/metanephric diverticulum?

a. Week 1
b. Week 2
c. Week 3
d. Week 4
e. Week 5

A

Week 5; ureteric buds grow into the surrounding mesenchyme of the mesonephric ridge

62
Q

The adult ureter, renal pelvis, and collecting tubules are derived from which of the following?

a. Pronephros
b. Mesonephros
c. Metanephros
d. Renal pelvis

A

Metanephros

63
Q

What does the blastemata of the metanephric diverticula give rise to?

a. Ureter
b. Renal pelvis
c. Renal tubules
d. Cloaca

A

Renal tubules

64
Q

During ureteric bud outgrowth via the metanephrogenic blastema, which of the following causes GDNF to be repressed in anterior regions?

a. Slit-2/Robo-2
b. WT-1
c. Sprouty
d. BMP
e. Gremlin

A

Slit-2/Robo-2

65
Q

What is the function of gremlin during the formation of the ureteric bud outgrowth from the metanephrogenic blastema?

a. Make the ureter epithelium impermeable to water
b. Reduces sensitivity of anterior mesonephric duct to GDNF
c. Represses GDNF in anterior regions
d. Inhibits BMP in the region of the metanephrogenic blastema

A

d. Inhibits BMP in the region of the metanephrogenic blastema

66
Q

Which of the following can be caused from infants born with bilateral renal agenesis that have a flattened nose, wide interpupillary space, a receding chin, tapering fingers, low-set ears, hip dislocation, and pulmonary hypoplasia?

a. Potter sequence
b. Horseshoe kidney
c. Polycystic kidney disease
d. Exstrophy of the bladder
e. Renal Hypoplasia

A

Potter sequence - renal agenesis causes oligohydramnios = pulmonary hypoplasia, flattened face and ears, hip dislocation

67
Q

Which of the following is a major defect in which the urinary bladder opens broadly onto the abdominal wall? Most commonly attributed to an insufficiency of mesodermal tissue of the ventral abdominal wall.

a. Potter sequence
b. Horseshoe kidney
c. Polycystic kidney disease
d. Exstrophy of the bladder
e. Renal Hypoplasia

A

Exstrophy of the bladder

68
Q

Where are sex cords located and what do they have the potential to give rise to if the bipotential system turns into a male?

A

Within the medulla of the indifferent gonad

Seminiferous tubules (Sertoli cells) and interstitial cells

69
Q

Which of the following anastomoses with the sex cords in the genetic male? What does this become if a genetic female is determined?

a. Tunica albuginea
b. Seminiferous tubules
c. Rete cords
d. Sertoli cells

A

Rete cords

In female = medulla regresses and cortex forms ovary

70
Q

Where is the location of the tunica albuginea?

a. Within the medulla of the indifferent gonad
b. Within the cortex of the indifferent gonad
c. Between the medulla and cortex of the indifferent gonad
d. Degenerates before the indifferent gonad develops

A

Between the medulla and cortex; lies on external surface of testis and internalized in the ovary

71
Q

What is the fate of the mesonephric tubules in the male and female?

A

Female = nothing forms

Male = efferent ductules coveying sperm to the exterior

72
Q

What does the genital tubercle give rise to in male and female?

A

Male - Glans penis

Female - clit

73
Q

What does the genital folds give rise to in male and female?

A

Male - shaft

Female - labia minora

74
Q

What does the genital swellings give rise to in male and female?

A

Male - Scrotum

Female - Labia majora

75
Q

What molecule allows primordial germ cells to become meiosis-competent germ cells?

a. Nanos-2
b. Stra-8
c. RA
d. Dazl
e. BMP

A

Dazl

76
Q

What is the function of Dazl in the fate of primordial germ cells in male and females?

A

Allows for the primordial germ cell to become meiosis-competent germ cells

77
Q

What does the primary heart field (heart crescent) form?

a. Right ventricle and atria
b. Left ventricle and atria
c. Both ventricles and atria
d. Right ventricle and left atria
e. Left ventricle and left atria

A

Left ventricle and atria

78
Q

Which molecule exposes the more posterior cells of the heart that are assumed to cause the atrial identity?

a. Shh
b. Hox
c. RA
d. Wnt
e. BMP

A

RA

More anterior cells are not exposed to RA = ventricle

79
Q

Hand-1 is expressed in the primary heart field (heart crescent), what occurs if there is a defect in Hand-1?

a. Defective left atrium
b. Defective right atrium
c. Defective left ventricle
d. Defective right ventricle
e. Defective heart overall

A

Defective left ventricle

80
Q

What does the secondary heart field form?

a. Right ventricle and proximal outflow tract
b. Left ventricle and proximal outflow tract
c. Right atrium and proximal outflow tract
d. Left atrium and proximal outflow tract

A

Right ventricle and proximal outflow tract; express Hand-2

81
Q

Hand-2 is expressed in the secondary heart field (heart crescent), what occurs if there is a defect in Hand-2?

a. Defective left atrium
b. Defective right atrium
c. Defective left ventricle
d. Defective right ventricle
e. Defective heart overall

A

Absence of right ventricle

82
Q

What 3 structures does the proepicardium form?

A
  1. Epicardium
  2. Interstitial cells and vasculature smooth muscle
  3. Coronary vasculature
83
Q

Which of the following is known as the first asymmetrical embryonic structure to appear?

a. Cardiac crest
b. Left ventricle
c. Right ventricle
d. Cardiac tube

A

Cardiac tube; asymmetry est. by Hand-1 and Hand-2

84
Q

What two molecules are used to establish the asymmetry of the cardiac tube?

a. Hand-1 and Hand-2
b. Pax-3 and Pax-7
c. Shh and Hox
d. Wnt and BMP

A

Hand-1 and Hand-2

85
Q

Primary myocardium forms during the 3rd week of gestation while the formation of the chamber myocardium forms afterwards as atrial and ventricular chamber bulges. What two molecules guide these processes?

A

Primary myocardium = Tbx-2

Myocardium chamber = Tbx-5

86
Q

Is it the primary heart field or secondary heart field that contributes most to the primary myocardium?

A

Secondary heart field

87
Q

What term is used for the outflow part of the heart during cardiac looping that leads to the aortic sac and aortic arch system?

a. conus arteriosus
b. bulbus cordis
c. truncus arteriosus
d. internal septum

A

Bulbis cordis

88
Q

Define conus arteriosus and truncus arteriosus

A

Conus = Broader proximal part of the bulbus cordis

Truncus = Narrower distal part of bulbus cordis

89
Q

What are the characteristics of the results of cardiac looping?

A

S-shaped heart
Original caudal inflow part (atrium) is now dorsal to outflow part of the heart
Outflow part of heart = bulbus cordis
Internal septum begins to divide ventricle then atrium

90
Q

List the two components of atrial partitioning

A
  1. Interatrial septum primum (sp) - downward growth to endocardial cushion; separates atrium into left and right chambers
  2. Interatrial septum secundum (ss) - to the right of sp grows dorsal to ventral part of atrium
91
Q

What is the function of the interatrial septum primum?

Where does it grow towards and what does it separate?

A

Grows downward from cephalic wall of single atrium to endocardial cushion

Separates atrium into left and right chambers

92
Q

List the 3 openings in the partition of the atrial partitioning

A
  1. Interatrial foramen primum - right to left atrial shunt; space b/w leading edge of septum primum and endocardial cushion
  2. Interatrial foramen secundum - forms at cephalic end of septum primum thru apoptosis; continues the right to left atrial shunt after the foramen primum closes with the fusion of the septum primum w/ the endocardial cushion
  3. Foramen ovale - space within septum secundum; right to left atrial shunt
93
Q

Which opening in the partition of the atria is the space formed within the septum secundum and is a right to left atrial shunt?

a. Interatrial foramen primum
b. Interatrial foramen secundum
c. Foramen ovale
d. Endocardial cushion

A

Foramen ovale

94
Q

Which opening in the partition of the atria is the space between the leading edge of the septum primum and the endocardial cushion and is a right to left atrial shunt?

a. Interatrial foramen primum
b. Interatrial foramen secundum
c. Foramen ovale
d. Endocardial cushion

A

Interatrial foramen primum

95
Q

Which opening in the partition of the atria forms at the cephalic end of the septum primum through apoptosis and continues the right to left atrial shunt after the foramen primum closes with the fusion of the septum primum with the endocardial cushion?

a. Interatrial foramen primum
b. Interatrial foramen secundum
c. Foramen ovale
d. Endocardial cushion

A

Interatrial foramen secundum

96
Q

What is the fate of the left umbilical vein?

A

Hepatic portal vein

97
Q

Which structure permits oxygenated blood to bypass the capillary network of the liver in the fetus?

a. Ductus venosus
b. Umbilical vein
c. Hepatic portal vein
d. Ductus arteriosus

A

Ductus venosus

98
Q

The internal carotid artery arises from aortic arch number:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

A

Aortic arch 3

99
Q

The common carotids are derived from the ventral aortae between which two aortic arches?

a. first and second
b. second and third
c. third and fourth
d. fourth and fifth

A

Third and fourth

100
Q

External carotids are cranial extensions of the paired ventral aortae cranial to the third arches

A

.

101
Q

The right subclavian artery is formed from which aortic arch

a. right first
b. right second
c. right third
d. right fourth
e. left first
f. left second

A

Right fourth aortic arch

102
Q

Which pair of aortic arches degenerate?

Which pair of aortic arches becomes associated with the pulmonary system?

A

Degenerate = 5th

Pulmonary system = 6th - dorsal part = ligamentum arteriosus

103
Q

The aortic arch is formed from which aortic arch

a. right first
b. right second
c. right third
d. left second
e. left third
f. left fourth

A

Left 4th

104
Q

Neural crest contributes to the structure of which of the following?

a. Truncus arteriosus
b. Ascending aorta
c. Pulmonary trunk
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

All of the above

105
Q

For which of these cardiovascular malformations is a patent ductus arteriosus necessary for survival of the individual?

a. Atrial septal defect
b. Ventricular septal defect
c. Double aortic arch
d. Right subclavian artery from arch of aorta
e. None of the above

A

None of the above

106
Q

Five days after birth, an infant become cyanotic during a prolonged crying spell. The cyanosis is most likely caused by venous blood entering the systemic circulation through the:

a. Interatrial septum
b. Ductus arteriosus
c. Ductus venosus
d. Umbilical vein
e. Interventricular septum

A

Interatrial septum

KCUMB Embryology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions