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KCUMB Embryology > Exam II Qs > Flashcards

Exam II Qs Flashcards

1
Q

An increase incidence of what condition is strongly associated with increase in maternal age?

Trisomy 21
Trisomy 18
Trisomy 13
Anencephaly
Ambiguous external genitalia
A

Trisomy 21

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2
Q

Cleft palate is a result in a defect in what developmental mechanism?

Failure to fuse
Failure to merge
Faulty inductive tissue interaction
Disturbance in tissue reabsorption
Absence of normal cell death
A

Failure to fuse

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3
Q

Which condition is related to maternal imprinting?

Accessory placental lobes
Placenta previa
Oligohydramnios
Single umbilical artery
Hydratidform mole
A

Hydratidform mole

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4
Q

Phocomelia is most likely to be seen after maternal exposure to which teratogenic agent during first trimester of pregnancy?

Alcohol
Aminopterin
Androgens
Ionizing radiation
Thalidomide
A

Thalidomide

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5
Q 
The most serious threat of hydrop fetalis is CNS damage. The affected brain is enlarged and edematous, and when sectioned has a bright yellow color, particularly basal nuclei, thalamus, cerebellum, and cerebral gray matter, and spinal cord. The CNS damage is known as which of the following?
Erythroblastosis fetalis
Kernicterus
Phenylketonuria
Galactosemia
A

Kernicterus

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6
Q 
What is the initial initiator of future forelimb development?
Hoxd
Tbx5
Shh
Gli3
A

Tbx5

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7
Q 
A high concentration in amniotic fluid results in neural tube defects?
Lecithin
Alpha fetoprotein
Kernicterus
Creatinine
A

Alpha fetoprotein

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8
Q

The most serious threat of hydrop fetalis is CNS damage. The affected brain is enlarged and edematous, and when sectioned has a bright yellow color, particularly basal nuceli, thalamus, cerebellum, cerebral gray matter and spinal cord. The CNS damage is known as which of the following?

Erythroblastosis fetalis
Kernicterus
Phenylketonuria
Galactosemia

A

Kernicterus

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9
Q

The sclerotome arises from cells that were located in which of the following locations

Notocord
Paraxial mesoderm
Intermediate mesoderm
Lateral mesoderm

A

Paraxial mesoderm

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10
Q

The cardiogenic plate arises from where?

Embryonic endoderm
Somatic mesoderm
Splanchnic mesoderm
Intermediate mesoderm
Neural crest
A

Splanchnic mesoderm

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11
Q

An inductive stimulus from which structure stimulates the transformation of the epithelial sclerotome into secondary mesenchyme?

Neural crest
Somite
Ectodermal placodes
Embryonic endoderm
Notochord
A

Notochord

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12
Q

Intermediate mesoderm is the precursor of the:

Urogenital system
Heart
Somites
Body wall
Vertebral bodies
A

Urogenital system

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13
Q

Name the 4 stages in the development of the chorionic villi, state characteristics of each

A
  1. Previllous embryo - no villi via trophoblast
  2. Primary villous stage - solid, cytotrophoblastic, ectodermal primary villi appear
  3. Secondary villous - mesodermal cores appear within primary villi
  4. Tertiary villous stage - blood vessels within mesenchymal core of secondary villi
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14
Q

What tissue in the mature placenta directly interfaces with the maternal uterine connective tissue?

Cytotrophoblast cells
Syncytiotrophoblast cells
Trophoblast cells
Decidual cells
None of the above
A

Cytotrophoblast cells

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15
Q

Describe the location of the chorionic plate in the mature placenta

A

(mesoderm) faces away from the chorionic villi towards the chorionic cavity

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16
Q

Describe the location of the cytotrophoblast shells in the mature placenta, what are they formed by?

A

Formed by expansion of the cytotrophoblastic columns over the maternal decidual cells

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17
Q

List the 5 structures involved in the final development of the placenta

A 
Cytotrophoblast
Cytotrophoblast columns
Cytotrophoblast shells
Anchoring villi
Chorionic plate
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18
Q

What are the anchoring villi of the mature placenta anchored to?

A

The cytotrophoblastic shell (as opposed to floating villi)

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19
Q

What maternal tissues are lost at childbirth? (3)

A

Decidua capsularis

Chorion laevae

Amnion

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20
Q

What is the fate of the decidua capsularis?

A

Undergoes atrophy

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21
Q

Distinguish between early vs. late placenta

A

Early:
Thick, low permeability, small SA, total diffusion conductance is miniscule

Late:
Thin, high permeability, large SA, large increase in placental diffusion

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22
Q

State the oxygen pressure gradient near the end of pregnancy of the mother and fetus

A

PO2 mother = 50mmHg

PO2 fetus = 30mmHg

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23
Q

How does adequate oxygenation occur with such a low pressure gradient near the end of pregnancy?

A

Fetal Hb has a greater affinity for O2
Fetal blood has more Hb than mother (50%)
Bohr effect

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24
Q

Define Bohr effect

A

Hb can carry more O2 at a low PCO2

Curve is shift left for fetal, right and down for maternal

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25
Q

Define the double Bohr effect

A

The double shift in the maternal blood and fetal blood

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26
Q

Where is hCG secreted from, when, and what is its function?

A

Via syncytial trophoblast cells into maternal fluids

Measurable at 8-9d after ovulation, max = 10-12w pregnancy

Prevents degradation of corpus luteum & give growth
Causes CL to secrete more progesterone & est
Exerts interstitial cell-stimulating effect on testes of male fetus = testosterone production

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27
Q

Where is estrogen secreted from, when, and what is its function?

A

Syncytiotrophoblast cells of placenta

Toward end of pregnancy, 30X more via androgenic steroid compounds (mom&fetal adrenal glands) Converted by trophoblast cells into estradiol, estrone, and estriol

Uterine, breast, external genitalia enlargement
Breast ductal growth
Relaxation of pelvic ligaments

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28
Q

Where is progesterone secreted from and what is its function?

A

Small quantities = corpus luteum
Large quantities = placenta

Causes decidual cells to develop in the endometrium
Decreases contractility of pregnant uterus
Increases secretions of fallopian tubes and uterus
May work w/ est to prepare breast for lactation

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29
Q

When is human chorionic somatomammotropin secreted and what is its function?

A

5th week

Decreased insulin sensitivity and decreased utilization of glucose by mother
General metabolic hormone

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30
Q

Define malformation

A

Primary errors of morphogenesis.

Usually multifactoral, involving a number of etiological agents like genetic and environmental factors

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31
Q

Define disruption, what’s an example?

A

Disturbances in otherwise normal morphogenetic processes

i.e. amniotic bands

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32
Q

Define deformation, what makes it different from disruption? Give an example

A

Distrubances in otherwise normal morphogenetic processes

Typically caused by abnormal biomechanical forces = uterine constraints

i.e. clubfoot

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33
Q

Define sequences

A

A series/cascade of events triggered by one initiating factor

i.e. oligohydramnios which leads to a variety of events (bilateral renal agenesis)

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34
Q

Define syndromes

A

Constellations of congenital anomalies that are thought to be pathologically related but cannot be explained on the basis of a single local initial event

Often caused by a single event i.e. virus

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35
Q

Explain why developmental insults during the first 3 weeks of development are unlikely to result in defective development

A

The insults either kill the embryo or are compensated for by the powerful regulatory properties of the early embryo

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36
Q

Effects of thalidomide?

A

Limb defects, ear defects, cardiovascular anomalies

Phocomelia (mermaid), amelia

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37
Q

Effects of alcohol? What are the characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Growth and mental retardation, microcephaly, face and trunk malformations, heart defects

Holoprosencephaly = severe

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38
Q

Effects of RA

A

Cranial neural crest problems; facial structures, outflow tract of heart and thymus

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39
Q

Effect of folic acid

A

Neural tube defects = Anencephaly, growth retardation, cleft lip and palate, hydrocephaly, hypoplastic mandible, low set ears

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40
Q

What is surfactant? Function? How does it related to neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. Why is this referred to as hyaline membrane disease?

A

Protein and lipid component that coats walls of alveoli, so when lungs collapse they do not stick together

Hyaline membrane disease = bc it affects the respiratory membranes

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41
Q

Define fetal hydrops, what is the cause?

A

The accumulation of edema fluid in fetus during intrauterine growth due to bilirubin being released and causing water accumulation

Hemolytic amenia due to blood group incompatibility = immune hydrops

Nonimmune hydrops via cardiovascular defects and arrhythmias

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42
Q

What is the major factor in immune hydrops when the fetal blood mixes with maternal blood?

A

D Antigen of the Rh group

Blood mixes during last trimester or during birth

ABO incompatibility not an issue bc maternal Ab removes incompatible fetal RBCs that cross placenta

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43
Q

What is the major cause of nonimmune hydrops?

A

Cardiovascular defects = congenital cardiac defects and arrhythmias

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44
Q

What are the chromosomal anomalies that are associated with nonimmune hydrops?

A

Turner syndrome and trisomies 18,21 due to cardiac structural aberrations that accompany these anomalies

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45
Q

Define kernicturus and describe the consequences

A

Related to fetal hydrops

Results in CNS damage; enlarged and edematous brain that’s bright yellow color when sectioned

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46
Q

Define pregnancy-induced hypertension, at what week of pregnancy does it developed?

A

Persistent elevated bp (140/190) that develops after 20 weeks of gestation and returns to normal after birth

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47
Q

Define preclampsia, what are the symptoms?

A

Severe case of preclampsia

Higher BP
Proteinuria
Weight gain
Edema

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48
Q

Define Eclampsia, symptoms?

A

Most serious condition from preclampsia

Fatal
Grand mal seizures or coma

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49
Q

List the 3 immigrant cells, where they’re derived from and function

A

MML - Many Messicans Live

M - melanoblasts - via neural crest, migrate into dermis then epidermis, produce pigment mid-pregnancy

M - Merkel cells - via neural crest, slow-adapting mechanoreceptors

L - Langerhans - via BM, APCs

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50
Q

What is derived from the ectoderm during the development of hair?

A

Sebaceous glands
Part of follicle
Hair shaft

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51
Q

What is derived from the mesoderm during the development of hair?

A

Arrector pili

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52
Q

State the role of these hormones in mammary gland development:

Est
Prog
Prolactin
Oxytocin

A

Est = duct system growth

Prog = formation of secretory alveoli

Prolactin = synthesis of milk protein and fat

Oxytocin = causes milk letdown

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53
Q

What are the 4 bone/cartilage differentiation pathways?

A

CEMP

Common
Endochondral
Membranous
Permanent

54
Q

What skeletal tissue is derived from mesodermal sclerotomes of somites?

A

Vertebral column - (Hox genes important)
Ribs
Sternum

55
Q

What skeletal tissue is derived from lateral plate mesoderm?

A

Limb bones

Girdles

56
Q

What skeletal tissue is derived from Head mesoderm?

A

Calvaria and base of skull

57
Q

What skeletal tissue is derived from neural crest?

A

Facial bones

58
Q

List the 3 subdivisions of the developing skull?

A

Neurocranium
Viscerocranium - via neural crest; mainly branchial/pharyngeal arches
Occipital sclerotomes

59
Q

What does the neurocranium surround? What two portions is it made up of? and what do they give rise to?

A

Part of skull that surrounds the brain

Cartilaginous portion - TESO. occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid, and parts of temporals (base of skull)

Membranous portion - TPFO occipital, parietals, frontals, parts of temporals (usually flat bones)

60
Q

What does the viscerocranium surround? What two portions is it made up of? and what do they give rise to? Which CN does the pharyngeal arches give rise to?

A

Surrounds oral cavity and pharynx

Cartilaginous portion - Pharyngeal arch I CN V (meckel’s cartilage, malleus, incus) Pharyngeal arch II (Reichert’s cartilage, stapes, styloid)

Membranous portion - CN VII part of temporal, zygomatic, maxillary, nasal, lacrimal, palatine, vomer, pterygoid plates, mandible, tympanic ring

61
Q

What are the four components of each pharyngeal arch?

A

Skeletal
Muscle
A branch of a specific CN
Artery

62
Q

What signaling molecule is expressed in all sutures? What does it inhibit?

A

Noggin; suppresses BMP which leads to closure of sutures

63
Q

What signaling molecule causes the elongation of primary ossification centers?

A

Shh; ossification centers are separated by synchondroses

64
Q

List characteristics of myogenic cells

A

Originate in somites
Restricted to muscle-forming line
Mitotic cells

65
Q

List characteristics of myoblasts

A

Derived from myogenic cells

Postmitotic

66
Q

List characteristics of myotubes

A

Formed when myoblasts line up and adhere to each other
Actin, myosin, troponin, tropomyosin, actin
Formation of myofibrils w/ sarcomeric arrangement
Nuclei move to periphery

67
Q

Differentiate between primary and secondary myotubes; how are primary ones formed, when does differentiation occur? Where are secondary ones formed?

A

Primary - formed by the fusion of earliest/embryonic myoblasts, differentiation occurs before innervation

Secondary - smaller than primary, formed alongside primary from late/fetal myoblasts
Motor axons may be required to form these
Contained within same basal lamina and are electrically coupled

68
Q

Function of satellite cells?

A

B/w sarcolemma and basal lamina of myofiber
Mitotic and myogenic
Able to fuse with muscle fiber and provide growth
Do not form new muscle fibers, only assist existing ones

69
Q

Where do epaxial muscles and tendons arise from?

A

Muscles - dorsal lip of myotome

Tendons - syndetome layer within somites

70
Q

Where do hypaxial muscles and tendons arise from?

A

Muscles - ventral buds of myotome

Tendons - lateral plate mesoderm

71
Q

Where do limb bud muscles and tendons arise from?

A

Ventrolateral dermomyotome

72
Q

Where does muscles of the head and neck derive from?

A

Paraxial somitomeres

73
Q

Where are extraocular muscles derived from?

A

Prechordal plate

74
Q

Where is most cranial musculature derived from? Including lower jaw? How about cardiac muscle?

A

Most cranial - unsegmented paraxial mesoderm

Lower jaw - splanchnic mesoderm

Cardiac muscle - splanchnic mesoderm (early cells don’t express MyoD)

75
Q

Limb field vs. Limb disc; what happens is limb disc or limb field is removed?

A

Limb field surrounds the limb disc.

limb disc is removed, a limb will develop

If limb field is removed = no limb will form

76
Q

Result if you remove half the limb disc

A

The remaining half will form a complete limb

77
Q

Result if you vertically divide the limb disc into two halves and physically separate the two halves

A

Each half will form a normal limb

78
Q

Result of you fuse two limb discs together

A

A single normal limb will form

79
Q

Result if you transplant a limb disc to the opposite side? (Experiments on Axes Formation)

A

AP axis is reversed but not the DV axis

Normal limb will form with AP axis reversed

80
Q

Result when you rotate a limb disc 180 degrees (Experiments on Axes Formation)

A

Both AP axis and DV axis will be reversed

Normal limb bud will form with only AP axis reversed

81
Q

Result when you transplant a strip of flank tissue from just posterior to the limb disc to an ectopic site just anterior to the limb disc (Experiments on Axes Formation)

A

Resulting limb contains two posterior halves arranged in a mirror-image fashion

Conclusion: the strip of flank tissue just posterior to the limb disc organized the posterior edge of the disc

82
Q

List the 3 axes that form in early limb bud development

A

Anteroposterior

Dorsoventral

Proximodistal

83
Q

What are the effects of limb mesoderm on overlying ectoderm, if AER is mutant? What is this an example of? What is the role of AEMF (apical ectodermal maintenance factor) and who produces it?

A

Instructive induction

Normal wing bud mesoderm combined w/ mutant AER ectoderm fails to produce an AER

AEMF = maintains AER in healthy state, produced by mesoderm; AER maintains mesodermal cells below it in labile and mitotic state

84
Q

Function of apoptosis in limb bud development?

A

“carves” the shape of the limb, including the separation of the digits

85
Q

Where are limb bud mesenchyme cells derived from? What do they give rise to?

A

Via lateral plate mesoderm

Appendicular parts, connective tissue, some blood vessels

86
Q

What do hypertrophic cells related to mesenchymal cell and cartilage formation express?

A

Indian hedgehog = ihh

87
Q

What causes the restriction of cartilage formation to the central core of the limb bud?

A

Wnt-7a in the overlying limb bud ectoderm

88
Q

Axons originating from more medial locations in spinal cord grow into the ___________ muscle mass.

Axons originating from more lateral locations in spinal cord grow into the __________ muscle mass

A

Ventral muscle mass

Dorsal muscle mass

89
Q

Result if the forelimb rudiment of a salamander embryo is removed so that the limb fails to develop? (Motor Axon Guidance Studies)

A

Nerves of the brachial plexus remain smaller/thinner than they would have if limb was still there

Spinal ganglia 3-5 also smaller, number of cells in each ganglion may be reduced by as much as 50%

90
Q

Result if an additional limb rudiment is transplanted to the flank of a salamander embryo? (Motor Axon Guidance Studies)

A

The local spinal nerves supply the innervation to the transplanted limb and these local nerves increase in thickness

Ganglia associated with these nerves increase in size; up to 40%

91
Q

Result if the forelimb rudiment of an amphibian embryo, prior to the outgrowth of nerves is cut out and transplanted to a position very near the original one? (Motor Axon Guidance Studies)

A

The brachial nerves will deviate from their normal paths and will be deflected in the direction of the transplanted limb.

If distance is not too far, the brachial nerves will penetrate into the limb and ramify and limb is fully functional

92
Q

Result if an additional limb is transplanted into the immediate vicinity of the host limb? (Motor Axon Guidance Studies)

A

The brachial nerves will develop branches running out to the additional limb and will supply it

93
Q

Result if the normal path of the nerves is blocked by some obstacle? (Motor Axon Guidance Studies)

A

The outgrowing nerves may avoid the obstacle, go around it, and still reach their normal destination.

Hamburger inserted a piece of mica into a frog embryo b/w the spinal cord and the region where the hindlimb rudiments were to develop. The nerves formed loops around the mica plate and still reached the hindlimb rudiments

94
Q

Result if the limb rudiment is placed farther away from the normal limb site, or if the obstacle b/w the spinal cord and the limb rudiment is too great? (Motor Axon Guidance Studies)

A

The nerve fibers fail to be attracted to the limb

If limb rudiment is placed on the flank of the embryo, it will attract the local spinal nerves. These nerves will grow into the limb, but can’t provide for the normal limb function.

Only the areas of the spinal cord form which the nerves of the brachial and lumbar plexuses originate possess the properties necessary for controlling the functioning of the limbs

95
Q

Result if an eye was transplanted into the side of an embryo after the forelimb rudiment was removed? (Motor Axon Guidance Studies)

A

The brachial nerves were deflected from their normal path and grew out toward the transplanted eye.

At the eye, they fail to penetrate into the eye and make a connection

Attraction of the outgrowing nerves to peripheral organs is unspecific. Connections b/w a nerve and the end organ can be made only if the two correspond to each other

96
Q

What adult structure develops from the telencephalon?

A

CNP

Corpus striatum
Neocortex
Paleocortex

97
Q

What adult structure develops from the diencephalon

A

Epithalamus
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Infundibulum

98
Q

What adult structure develops from the mesencephalon?

A

CTT

Tectum
Tegmentum
Cerebral peduncles

99
Q

What adult structures develop from the metencephalon?

A

Cerebellum

Pons

100
Q

What adult structure develops from the myencephalon?

A

Medulla

101
Q

What happens if daughter cells in the neural tube have a metaphase plate that is parallel to the inner margin of the neural tube?

A

Daughter cell closest to lumen = remain proliferative

Daughter cell further = expresses Notch receptor, becomes postmitotic, moves to external limiting membrane, becomes a neuroblast (pre-neuron)

102
Q

What happens if daughter cells in the developing neural tube have a metaphase plate that is perpendicular to the inner margin of the neural tube? (next to lumen)

A

Two resulting daughter cells will remain proliferative

103
Q

Which is the principal signaling molecule during the regional differentiation of the neural tube in the isthmic organizer region?

En-1
Wnt-1
FGF-8
Pax-2
Pax-5
A

FGF-8

104
Q

What signaling molecule primarily is involved with the dorsoventral patterning of the midbrain?

A

Shh = located ventrally

105
Q

What local environment factors influence axon guidance? (4)

A

Chemoattraction
Contact attraction
Chemorepulsion
Contact repulsion

106
Q

What microenvironment cues dictate axon guidance?

A

Caudal half of somite
Fibronectin and laminin
Integrins
Cadherins

107
Q

Where do sympathetic preganglionic motor neurons arise from?

A

Intermediate/lateral horns of gray matter (similar with somatic motor neurons from ventral horns)

108
Q

Where does parasympathetic preganglionic motor neurons arise from?

A

Intermediate/lateral horns of gray matter OR from nuclei in hindbrain

109
Q

Where do preganglionic axons synapse?

A

Cell bodies of postsynaptic sympathetic motor neurons within the ganglia

Note: anything outside neural tube is from neural crest

110
Q

Where are autonomic ganglia and postganglionic autonomic neurons derived from?

A

BOTH Neural crest

Cholinergic differentiation factor is responsible for the conversion of postganglionic sympathetic neurons from the typical form to that used in the innervation of sweat glands

111
Q

The prechordal plate plays an important role in regionalization of the:

Notochord
Forebrain
Embryonic mesoderm
Primitive node
Hindbrain
A

Forebrain

112
Q

Which of these structures in the embryo is unsegmented?

Somitomeres
Neuromeres
Notochord
Somites

A

Notochord

113
Q

Blood vessels associated with which structure enter the fetal component of the placenta?

Decidua basalis
Allantois
Amnion
Yolk sac
Decidua parietalis
A

Allantois

114
Q

A 28yr old Rh-negative woman’s second son is born severely jaundiced. Which characteristic most likely describes her first child?

Male
Female
Rh positive
Rh negative
Hydramnios
A

Rh positive

115
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the largest percentage of congenital malformations?

Maternal infections
Chemical teratogens
Genetically based conditions
Ionizing radiations
Unknown factors
A

Unknown factors

116
Q

Folic acid deficiency is now believed to be a major cause of what class of malformations?

Trisomies
Neural tube defects
Ambiguous genitalia
Polyploidy
Duplications
A

Neural tube defects

117
Q

An increased incidence of what condition is strongly associated with increasing maternal age?

Trisomy 18
Trisomy 21
Trisomy 13
Anencephaly
Ambiguous external genitalia
A

Trisomy 21

118
Q

Satellite cells of muscle are activated under which of these conditions?

Normal muscle fiber growth
Muscle fiber regeneration
Muscle fiber hypertrophy
All of the above
None of the above
A

All of the above

119
Q

Which cellular component of the epidermis is a peripheral outpost of the immune system and functions to present Ags to other immune cells?

Merkel cells
Keratinocytes
Basal cells
Melanocytes
Langerhan cells
A

Langerhan cells

120
Q

Which structure is mesoderm in origin?

Hair shaft
Mammary duct
Sebaceous gland
Arrector pili muscle
None of the above
A

Arrector pili muscle

121
Q

Which myogenic regulatory factor is expressed latest in the development of a muscle fiber?

Myogenin
MyoD
MRF-4
Myf-5
Pax-3
A

MRF-4

122
Q

In the let-down of milk during lactation, the myoepithelial cells contract in response to:

Progesterone
Oxytocin
Estrogens
Lactalbumin
Casein
A

Oxytocin

123
Q

Which of the following molecules plays an important role in the determination of the dorsoventral axis of the developing limb?

Msx-1
Wnt-7a
Hoxd-13
Pax-1
FGF-8
A

Wnt-7a

124
Q

What molecule is associated with myogenic cells migrating into the limb bud from the somites?

Shh
BMP-7
FGF-4
Pax-3
En-1
A

Pax-3

125
Q

What is the principal function of the AER?

Stimulating outgrowth of the limb bud
Setting up the anteroposterior axis of the limb bud
Determining the specific characteristics of the ectodermal appendages of the limb
Determining the pattern of neural ingrowth into the limb
Attracting the subcutaneous plexus of capillaries in the limb bud

A

Stimulating outgrowth of the limb bud

126
Q

In the developing limb the sonic hedgehog gene product is produced in the:

Progress zone
Region of interdigital cell death
ZPA
AER
Common muscle mass
A

ZPA

127
Q

The connective tissue of the limb arises from the:

Paraxial mesoderm
Neural crest
Intermediate mesoderm
Somitic mesoderm
Lateral mesoderm
A

Lateral mesoderm

128
Q

The formation of clubfoot is associated with:

A misplaced ZPA
Defective cellular migration from somites
Thalidomide
Oligohydramnios
A neural crest defect
A

Oligohydramnios

129
Q

What molecule produced by the notochord is instrumental in inducing the floor plate of the neural tube?

Hoxa-5
RA
Pax-3
Msx-1
Shh
A

Shh

130
Q

The cell bodies of the motoneurons of a spinal nerve arise from the:

Basal plate
Marginal zone
Floor plate
Roof plate
Alar plate
A

Basal plate

131
Q

Rhombomeres are segmented divisions of the:

Forebrain
Midbrain
Hindbrain
Spinal Cord
None of the above
A

Hindbrain

KCUMB Embryology (4 decks)

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