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Clinical Chemistry (Exams I,II,III) > Exam III > Flashcards

Exam III Flashcards

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1
Q

A drug’s most direct and effective method of delivery to its site of action is:

A

Intravenous administration

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2
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the absorption of drugs?

-Drugs absorption rates may change with age
-Morphine may slow the gastrointestinal motility of a drug
-Liquid medications are often absorbed slower than capsule medications
-Crohn’s disease may alter the absorption of some drugs

A

Liquid medications are often absorbed slower than capsule medications

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3
Q

True or False: Drugs are susceptible to hepatic metabolism, and this increases the concentration of the drug before it reaches the circulatory system.

A

False

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4
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding drug elimination?

-One drug half-life is the time needed for the drug concentration to increase by half

-Five to seven drug doses are required to reach a steady state of drug concentration

-Most medications are administered as a single dose versus a scheduled basis

-Aminoglycoside antibiotics are reabsorbed by the renal tubules

A

Five to seven drug doses are required to reach a steady state of drug concentration

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5
Q

The relationship between a drug’s concentration at its target sites and its physiological responses is known as:

A

Pharmacodynamics

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6
Q

the science of studying variations and developing drug therapies to compensate for the genetic differences impacting therapy regimens

A

Pharmacogenomics

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7
Q

study of the movement of drugs in the body

A

Pharmacokinetics

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8
Q

Which of the following is not true concerning therapeutic drug monitoring?

-It ensures drug doses for the expected therapeutic range
-It helps to identify non-compliance of the patient
-It identifies drug-drug interactions if multiple drugs are taken simultaneously
-It establishes a one-fit dosing model for all patients

A

It establishes a one-fit dosing model for all patients

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9
Q

A blood draw to determine a peak level of a drug should be drawn:

A

One hour after an orally administered dose.

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10
Q

True or False: CYP450 is a gene that influences the effectiveness of a drug in an individual

A

True

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11
Q

Which of the following is not true concerning aminoglycosides?

-They are a class of drugs that is administered in the inpatient setting

-Toxic levels can cause hearing impairment

-They are used to treat gram positive and gram negative infections

-Ototoxic effects of the drug are reversible

A

Ototoxic effects of the drug are reversible

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12
Q

Pharmacokinetics and drug concentration are influenced by which of the following factors?

A

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

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13
Q

True or False: Only bound fractions of drugs can interact with the site of action and result in a biological response

A

False

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14
Q

Tolerance to drugs could be explained as:

-Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to a reduced response

-Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to an increased response

-50% of the maximum effect of a drug on the body

A

Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to a reduced response

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15
Q

This drug is used to treat arrhythmias and CHF.

A

Digoxin

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16
Q

Natural product extracted from bark to treat arrhythmias

A

Quinidine

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17
Q

Substitute for Quinidine

A

Disopyramide

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18
Q

This drug may have the adverse effect of “redman syndrome”

-Vancomycin
-Tobramycin
-Amikacin
-Gentamicin

A

Vancomycin

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19
Q

This antiepileptic drug requires hepatic markers to be check frequently due to risk of hepatic dysfunction.

-Carbamazepine
-Phenobarbital
-Phenytoin
-Valproic acid

A

Valproic acid

Antiepileptic drug- a type of drug that is used to prevent or treat seizures or convulsions by controlling abnormal electrical actiVity in the brain.

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20
Q

True or False: Immunosuppressive drugs typically are collected as serum samples.

A

False.

Immunosuppressive drugs are a class of drugs that suppress or reduce the strength of the body’s immune system such as cannabis

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21
Q

True or False: Common routes of exposure to toxins are through the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, and skin

A

True

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22
Q

Which specimen type is preferred for analytes demonstrating variation in urinary elimination patterns?

-Random specimen
-Midstream “clean catch” specimen
-First morning specimen
-24 hour collection

A

-24 hour collection

23
Q

Which of the following is not true concerning analysis of toxic agents?

-Screening tests have good specificity by lack sensitivity

-Confirmatory tests report the concentration of the analyte

-Screening tests are a rapid test intended to detect the presence of a substance

-The reference method for most compounds is gas chromatography with a mass spectrometer (GC-MS)

A

Screening tests have good specificity but lack sensitivity

24
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding blood alcohol measurements except:

-During venipuncture, the skin must be disinfected with iodine or chlorhexidine gluconate

-Plasma and serum are acceptable specimen types for analysis

-When testing will be delayed, sodium chloride can be used as a preservative to maintain specimen integrity

-Specimens should remain capped to avoid evaporation

A

When testing will be delayed, sodium chloride can be used as a preservative to maintain specimen integrity.

The true preservative is sodium fluoride (gray top)

25
Q

The affinity of carbon monoxide for hemoglobin is 20-25 times greater than oxygen.

A

False. The affinity of carbon monoxide for hemoglobin is 200 to 300 times greater than oxygen.

26
Q

Toxic levels of acetaminophen are associated with

-Ototoxicity
-Nephrotoxicity
-Hepatotoxicity
-Neurotoxicity

A

Hepatotoxicity

27
Q

Which of the following statements is not true concerning testing for drugs of abuse?

-A two-tired testing approach includes screening and confirmatory testing

-Confirmatory testing must use methods with high specificity and low sensitivity

-Screening tests detect classes of drugs

-GC-MS is the reference method used for confirmation

A

Confirmatory testing must use methods with high specificity and low sensitivity

28
Q

Which is not a common route of exposure to toxic substances.

-Ingestion
-Intravenous
-Inhalation
-Transdermal absorption

A

intravenous

29
Q

What phase best describes what ED50 stands for?

-A drug is predicted to have a therapeutic benefit for 50% of the population.

-A drug is predicted to have a lethal effect for 50% of the population

-a drug is predicted to have a negative effect on 50% of the population.

A

A drug is predicted to have a therapeutic benefit for 50% of the population

30
Q

True or False: Chronic exposure to a toxin always has the same effect as acute exposures

A

False

31
Q

Which is not a common specimen type for analysis of toxic agents?

-Urine
-Blood
-Oral fluid
-All are common types

A

All are common types

32
Q

Match the alcohol with the common source:

-Isopropanol
-Methanol
-Ethylene glycol
-Ethanol

-Tequila
-Antifreeze
-Homemade liquors
-Rubbing alcohol

A

Isopropanol: Rubbing alcohol

Methanol: Homemade liquors

Ethylene glycol: Antifreeze

Ethanol: Tequila

33
Q

True or False: An alternative test that may be performed in order to estimate ethanol in serum is the osmolality.

A

True

34
Q

This toxic substance can be found in its organic form in clams and oysters.

-Cadmium
-Cyanide
-Lead
-Arsenic

A

Arsenic

35
Q

This environmental pollutant has been linked to Itai-itai disease.

-Cadmium
-Lead
-Mercury
-Arsenic

A

Cadmium

36
Q

Match the drug with its descriptor phrase:

-Amphetamines
-Barbiturates
-Benzodiazepines
-Opioids

-Stimulant with high abuse potential
-“Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
-High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
-Substances capable of analgesia, mediation, and anesthesia

A

Amphetamines: stimulant with high abuse potential

Barbiturates: “Downer” orginally used as sleep inducer

Benzodiazepines: High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety

Opioids: Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia

37
Q

Which of the following enzymes is increased in patients with cancer involving bone?

-Amylase
-Alkaline phosphatase
-Neuron-specifc enolase
-Gamma glutamyl transferase

A

Alkaline phosphatase

38
Q

Which tumor marker is associated with neuroblastoma?

-CA-15-3
-Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
-CA 125
-Homovanillic acid (HVA)

A

Homovanillic acid (HVA)

39
Q

Which of the following tumor markers is classified as an oncofetal antigen?

-Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
-CA 19-9
-BRCA-1
-hCG

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

40
Q

The utilization of tumor markers is most important for:

-Screening of asymptomatic patients
-Screening for molecular markers
-Monitoring the effectiveness of treatment
-Confirming the presence of cancer

A

Monitoring the effectiveness of treatment

41
Q

Tumor marker methodology include all of the following except:

-Immunoassay
-Gas chromatography
-Immunohistochemistry
-Enzyme analysis

A

Gas chromatograpy

42
Q

True or False: Abnormally low tumor marker concentrations are associated with antigen deficiency and can cause false negative results

A

False

43
Q

True or False: To accurately monitor tumor marker levels of the patient, it is important to use the same methodology each time of testing.

A

True

44
Q

If tumor cells are found in both the original tumor and also in the regional lymph nodes, this would be classified as stage:

-1
-2
-3
-4

A

3

45
Q

This type of tumor marker is valuable in diagnosing neuroblastoma, pituitary and adrenal adenomas

-Serum protein tumor markers
-Endocrine tumor markers
-Oncofetal antigens
-Carbohydrate antigen tumor markers

A

Endocrine tumor markers

46
Q

These types of tumor markers help to choose between endocrine and cytotoxic therapies.

-Endocrine tumor markers
-Oncofetal antigens
-Cancer antigen tumor markers
-Receptor tumor markers

A

Receptor tumor markers

47
Q

True or False: All tumor markers can be used to screen asymptomatic populations

A

False

48
Q

Which is not a reason that serial results can be difficult to interpret:

-Assay design
-Variation in reference ranges
-Differences in antibody specificity
-A and B
-All of the above

A

All of the above

49
Q

Which is not something that is a consideration when considering using immunoassay method for tumor markers.

-Hook effect
-Requires more specialized skill and experience
-Assay linearity
-HAMAs

A

Requires more specialized skill and experience

50
Q

Match the tumor with the description:

-Neuroblastoma
-Pheochromocytoma
-Carcinoid

-Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine
-Rare tumor associated with hypertension
-Common malignant tumor in kids

A

Neuroblastoma: Common malignant tumor in kids

Pheochromocytoma: Rare tumor associated with hypertension

Carcinoid: Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine

51
Q

Which is not an example of an enzyme tumor marker.

-ALP
-AST
-PSA
-LDH

A

-AST

52
Q

Which tumor marker is used primarily with hepatocelluar carcinoma and testicular cancer.

-Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
-CA-125
-Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)
-Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)

A

Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

53
Q

Elevations in this tumor marker in CSF may indicate Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

-Carbohydrate antigen 19-9 (CA-19-9)
-Immunoglobulin free light chains (FLC)
-Human epididymis protein 4 (HE4)
-Neuron-specific enolase (NSE)

A

Neuron-specific enolase (NSE)

Clinical Chemistry (Exams I,II,III) (4 decks)

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